Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OB/Peds > Exam 4 Preeclampsia > Flashcards

Exam 4 Preeclampsia Flashcards

1
Q

The onset of HTN without proteinuria after week 20 of pregnancy

A

Gestational HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HTN is defined as a systolic BP greater than what?

A

140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gestational HTN does not last longer than what?

A

Week 12 postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does gestational HTN usually resolve?

A

1st postpartum week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pregnancy-specific condition in which HTN and proteinuria develop after 20 weeks of gestation in a woman who previously had neither

A

Preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A vasospastic, systemic disorder that is easily characterized as mild or severe

A

Preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does preeclampsia resolve?

A

After the birth the fetus and expulsion of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Risk factors for preeclampsia

A
  • Primigravida younger than 19 or older than 40
  • Severe preeclampsia in previous pregnancy
  • Family history of mother or sister with preeclampsia
  • Paternal history of fathering a preeclamptic pregnancy in another woman
  • African descent
  • Multifetal gestation
  • Maternal infection/inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What preexisting medical or genetic conditions are risk factors for preeclampsia?

A
  • Chronic HTN
  • Renal dz
  • Pregestational DM
  • Connective tissue dz (lupus, RA)
  • Thrombophilia
  • Obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the best preeclampsia prevention method?

A

Early prenatal care and early detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mild preeclampsia BP

A

Greater than or equal to 140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proteinuria for mild preeclampsia

A

Greater than or equal to 1+ on a dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Urine output for mild preeclampsia

A

Greater than 25-30 mL/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fetal effects of mild preeclampsia

A

Placental perfusion is reduced and intrauterine growth restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Severe preeclampsia BP

A

Greater than or equal to 160/110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Proteinuria for severe preeclampsia

A

Greater than or equal to 3+ on a dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Urine output for severe preeclampsia

A

Less than 500 mL in a 24 hr period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HA with mild/sever preeclampsia

A

Mild: absent/transient
Severe: persistent/severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Visual problems with severe preeclampsia

A

Blurred, photophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pulmonary edema with mild/severe preeclampsia

A

Mild: absent
Severe: may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Irritability or changes in affect with mild/severe preeclampsia

A

Mild: transient
Severe: severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What might be present with severe preeclampsia but not mild?

A

Epigastric pain, N/V, thrombocytopenia, impaired liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fetal effects from severe preeclampsia

A

Decreased perfusion expressing as IUGR, abnormal fetal status on antepartum tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The onset of seizure activity or coma in a woman with preeclampsia who has no history of preexisting patho

A

Eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Usually preceded by premonitory s/s, including persistent HA, blurred vision, severe epigastric or RUQ abdominal pain, and altered mental status

A

Eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What follows an eclampsia seizure?

A

Hypotension, muscular twitching, disorientation, amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do you monitor with eclamptic pts?

A

Urine output, lung sounds, DTRs, may have mag sulfate toxicity. You expect BP to be low, but really watch the respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A lab diagnosis for a variant of severe preeclampsia that involves hepatic dysfunction

A

HELLP Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HELLP Syndrome is characterized by what?

A
  • Hemolysis (H)
  • Elevated liver enzymes (EL)
  • Low platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HELLP Syndrome usually develops when?

A

Antepartum period, progresses rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mag sulfate is continued after birth for how long?

A

12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Preeclamptic women should be hospitalized where?

A

Tertiary care facility that is able to provide both maternal and neonatal intensive care

33
Q

What meds are ordered to enhance fetal lung maturation?

A

Corticosteroids

Betamethasone, Celestone

34
Q

When is immediate birth indicated?

A

If eclampsia, pulmonary edema, placental abruption, DIC, or renal dysfunction develops

35
Q

What meds are given for preeclampsia?

A
  • Mag sulfate
  • Hydralazine
  • Labetalol
  • Procardia
  • Celestone
36
Q

Excessive N/V that doesn’t subside throughout pregnancy. Causes weight loss, electrolyte imbalance, nutritional deficiency, and ketonuria

A

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

37
Q

Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum

A
  • IUGR
  • Low birth weight
  • Prematurity
  • 5 min agars less than 7
38
Q

Maternal risks from a hemorrhagic disorder

A

Hypovolemia, anemia, infection, preterm labor

39
Q

Fetal risks from a hemorrhagic disorder

A

Blood loss, anemia, hypoxemia, hypoxia, anoxia, and preterm birth

40
Q

What has the highest incidence of maternal mortality?

A

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy and abruptio placentae

41
Q

Types of early pregnancy bleeding

A

Miscarriage, reduced cervical competence/incompetent cervix (premature dilation of cervix), ectopic pregnancy, hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy)

42
Q

A pregnancy that ends without medical surgical methods before 20 weeks or gestation or fetal weight of less than 500 grams

A

Miscarriage

43
Q

Threatened miscarriage (A)

A

You don’t really know if it’s gonna happen or not

44
Q

Inevitable miscarriage (B)

A

You know for sure they’re going to deliver

45
Q

Incomplete miscarriage (C)

A

Not all the products of conception are delivered. Sometimes the placental is retained. D&C cleans out the uterus

46
Q

Complete miscarriage (D)

A

Everything comes out

47
Q

Missed miscarriage (E)

A

Fetus has died in utero but has not delivered yet

48
Q

Septic miscarriage

A

There’s an infection in the uterus and the baby is going to miscarry

49
Q

Recurrent (habitual) miscarriage

A

A woman just keeps miscarrying

50
Q

What meds do you do for miscarriage?

A

Maybe IV fluids or pain meds, really you just watch and wait

51
Q

Cytotec

A

Drug that causes uterine contractions to help expel the products of conception

52
Q

RhoGAM with miscarriages

A

They go ahead and give the mom a dose cause they won’t know what the baby was

53
Q

Passive and painless dilation of the cervix during the second trimester

A

Reduced cervical competence/Incompetent cervix. May cause recurrent miscarriages

54
Q

Causes of Incompetent Cervix

A
  • Previous cervical trauma
  • Lacerations during childbirth
  • Excessive cervical dilation for curettage or biopsy
  • Exposure to DES (diethylstilbestrol)
55
Q

Most common way to treat incompetent cervix

A

Cerclage

56
Q

A suture is placed around the cervix beneath the mucosa to constrict the internal cervix

A

Cerclage

57
Q

How is a cerclage placed?

A

Prophylactically (11-15 weeks) or as a rescue procedure once the cervix has been found to be effaced or dilated

58
Q

Risks with cerclages

A
  • Premature ROM
  • PTL
  • Chorioamnionitis
59
Q

Follow up care with cerclages

A
  • Bedrest
  • Avoid sex
  • Stress importance of initial activity restriction and close observation
60
Q

Patient education with cerclages

A

Signs of PTL:

  • Infection
  • Contraction
  • ROM
  • Severe perineal pressure
  • Urge to push
61
Q

The frequency of ectopic pregnancies is consistent across what?

A

Maternal age ranges and ethnic origins

62
Q

Causes of ectopic pregnancies

A
  • Previous ectopic pregnancy
  • History of STDs
  • Fallopian tube scars form PID
  • Endometriosis
  • Previous pelivc surgery
  • Infertility treatment
  • Uterine fibroids
  • Previous intrauterine contraception
63
Q

Clinical manifestations before rupture of ectopic pregnancy

A
  • Dull LQ abdominal pain on one side
  • Delayed menses
  • Spotting occurring 6-8 weeks after last normal menstrual period
  • Mild to moderate dark red or brown intermittent vaginal bleeding
64
Q

Clinical manifestations after rupture of ectopic pregnancy

A
  • Referred shouolder pain: diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the peritoneal cavity
  • Generalized, one sided or deep LQ acute abdominal pain
  • Faintness, dizziness r/t amount of bleeding in abdominal cavity
  • Cullen sign
65
Q

Ecchymotic blueness around umbilicus

A

Cullen sign

66
Q

Medical treatment for ectopic pregnancy if the pt desires a future pregnancy

A

Methotrexate IM

3.5 cm or less, no fetal cardiac activity, enraptured, condition stable

67
Q

Surgical removal of fallopian tube

A

Salpingectomy

68
Q

Incision made for removal of products of conception (for ectopic pregnancies)

A

Salpingostomy

69
Q

Benign proliferative growth of the placental trophoblast in which the chorionic villi develop into edematous, cystic, avascular transparent vesicles that hand in a grapeike cluster

A

Hydatidiform Mole (molar pregnancy)

70
Q

A group of pregnancy related trophoblastic proliferative disorders without a viable fetus that are caused by abnormal fertilization

A

Gestational trophoblastic dz

71
Q

GTD includes what?

A

Molar pregnancies, invasive mole and choriocarcinoma

72
Q

Cause of molar pregnancies

A

Unknown but may be r/t an ovular defect or a nutritional deficiency

73
Q

Who is at an increased risk for molar pregnancies?

A

Women who have had a previous molar pregnancy, early teens or older than 40 years of age

74
Q

Types of molar pregnancies

A

Complete and partial

75
Q

Clinical manifestations of molar pregnancies

A
  • Dark brown (looks like prune juice) or bright red vaginal bleeding, either scant or profuse
  • Excessive N/V
  • Abdominal cramps
  • Signs of preeclampsia before 24 weeks of gestation
  • Excessively enlarged uterus
76
Q

What labs do you frequently check with molar pregnancies?

A

Serum hCG levels

77
Q

A rising titer of serum hCG levels and enlarged uterus may indicate what?

A

Choriocarcinoma

78
Q

Types of late pregnancy bleeding

A

Placenta previa and Abruptio placentae (placental abruption)

OB/Peds (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions