Exam 4 Lecture Notes Flashcards

1
Q

required to maintain partial pressure gradients for oxygen to diffuse to pulmonary capillaries

A

ventilation

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2
Q

ultimately supports cellular respiration

A

ventilation

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3
Q

decrease in oxygen

A

hypoxia

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4
Q

complete lack of oxygen

A

anoxia

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5
Q

necessary for movement of oxygen

A

pressure gradient

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6
Q

conducting zone has what

A

lots of hyaline cartilage

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7
Q

conducting zone does what

A

treats the air

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8
Q

respiratory zone is what

A

very vasculaized

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9
Q

where does exchange occur (zone and structure)

A

respiratory zone, alveoli

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10
Q

diaphragm action inhalation

A

diaphram lowers with contraction, increasing volume in pleural cavity which causes lungs other expand along with cavity, decreasing pressure within them… air rushes into lower pressure area

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11
Q

what is a diaphragm and where does it insert

A

sheet of muscle, inserts on itself

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12
Q

what happens to diaphragm during exhalation

A

it relaxes, moves up

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13
Q

when diaphragm contracts, how does it move

A

moves down

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14
Q

why does diaphragm move down during contraction

A

helps with volume change

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15
Q

analogy of relationship between lung and pleural sac

A

lollipop and water filled balloon

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16
Q

which muscles are used all the time

A

primary respiratory muscles

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17
Q

which group of muscles are used during exertion

A

accessory respiratory muscles

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18
Q

which muscles are primary respiratory

A

diaphram, external intercostals

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19
Q

tension pneumothorax aka

A

collapsed lung

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20
Q

what happens to gradient in collapsed lung

A

gradient is lost causing air to get into pleural cavity

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21
Q

what cause collapsed lung

A

puncture to lung, thinning of walls of alveoli causing problems to outside of lungs but inside pleural cavity causing collapse

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22
Q

air in pleural cavity called what

A

pneumothorax

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23
Q

what actually happens with tension pneumothroax

A

can push heart against stable lung

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24
Q

how is tension pneumothorax fixed

A

sucking air out of pleural cavity

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25
Q

purpose of nasal bones

A

increase surface area of initially incoming air

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26
Q

4 sinuses

A

frontal, ethmoidal, sphenoidal, maxillary

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27
Q

what do sinuses do/ properties

A

contain respiratory mucous membranes, connect to nasal cavity, create mucus, humidify and warm inhaled air

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28
Q

nasal cavity function

A

moistens, warms, filters air

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29
Q

once air is moistened and warmed in nasal cavity where does it go

A

nasopharynx

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30
Q

what is respiratory mucosa

A

ciliated epithelium with goblet cells and laminate propria underneath

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31
Q

lamina propria contains what kind of properties

A

immune system properties

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32
Q

submucosa ct contains what

A

mucus and serous glands that discharge to surface

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33
Q

serous glands release what

A

fluid with lysozyme

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34
Q

alveoli can be easily damaged by

A

debris, pathogens

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35
Q

main layers of trachea anatomy

A

mucosa, submucosa, hyaline cartilage

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36
Q

what makes up mucosa in trachea

A

respiratory epithelium, lamina propria

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37
Q

what fibers does laminate propria contain

A

elastin

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38
Q

submucosa contains what

A

seromucous glands

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39
Q

crossover between airway and digestive tract

A

pharynx

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40
Q

pharynx is crossover between what

A

airway and digestive tract

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41
Q

what is nasopharynx

A

air passage only, closed by uvula during swallowing

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42
Q

nasopharynx contains what

A

pharyngeal (adenoid) tonsil, opening for auditory tube

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43
Q

oropharynx is what

A

junction of 2 pathways

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44
Q

stratified epith in oropharynx typical of what and does what

A

typical of digestive tract, protects against abrasion

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45
Q

oropharynx contains what

A

palatine and lingual tonsils

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46
Q

tonsils are like what and contain what

A

like lymph nodes, contain lymphocytes and defend against airborne pathogens

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47
Q

which tonsils are easiest to look at

A

palatine

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48
Q

extends to epiglottis and esophagus

A

laryngopharnyx

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49
Q

function of epiglottis

A

tilts downward during swallowing to prevent food.liquid from entering airway

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50
Q

epiglottis made of what

A

elastic cartilage

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51
Q

larynx external anatomy top to bottom

A

epiglottis, hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, tracheal cartilages

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52
Q

where is tracheostomy

A

between tracheal cartilage near larynx

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53
Q

what happens to cartilage in larynx

A

gains more and more calcium over time, that’s why voices change as we get older

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54
Q

vocal cords attached where

A

between thyroid and arytenoid cartilages

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55
Q

where does sound come from

A

vibration of soft tissue

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56
Q

arytenoid cart does what

A

moves vocal cords to due muscle attached here

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57
Q

secondary palate = what

A

hard palate + soft palate

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58
Q

speech involves what

A

expelled air passing by vocal cords, vibrating them to make sound

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59
Q

how is sound altered

A

changes to resonation, tension on cords (pitch), speed of air (loudness) and brief stoppages or restrictions to airflow

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60
Q

resonance comes form what

A

size of nasal cavity, oral cavity and vocal tract

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61
Q

tongue influences what in speech

A

oral cavity and vocal tract

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62
Q

what is trachea and what does it do

A

c shaped rings of hyaline cartilage stiffen trachea to keep it open with pressure changes, elastic ligaments between rings

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63
Q

where does trachea branch to

A

left and right bronchi

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64
Q

bronchi diameter controlled by what

A

ANS

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65
Q

sympathetic NS does what to bronchi

A

dilates (fight or flight)

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66
Q

trachea prod what kinds of secretion

A

mucous and serous secretions

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67
Q

how is the diameters of trachea controlled

A

muscles surround various structures

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68
Q

what movement of the trachea helps with coughing

A

squeezing down

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69
Q

is the split to right and left bronchi even for trachea

A

no, right is larger

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70
Q

where do drs look to see if someone swallowed something

A

where the trachea branches off

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71
Q

mucosa of trachea is what

A

pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium, also has laminate propria

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72
Q

how do elastic fibers run in trachea and what do they help with

A

lengthwise down trachea , help with exhalation

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73
Q

what are cilia doing

A

constantly moving, pushing things along, form the mucocilliary elevator

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74
Q

each bronchus divides into what

A

lobular bronchi, many tertiary bronchi, and eventually many terminal bronchi

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75
Q

what do terminal bronchi lead to

A

alveoli

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76
Q

lobular bronchi aka

A

secondary bronchi

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77
Q

right lung contains what lobes

A

right superior, right middle, right inferior

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78
Q

left lung contains what lobes

A

left superior , left inferior

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79
Q

lung layers outer to inner

A

intercostal muscle, parietal layer, pleural cavity, visceral pleura

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80
Q

terminal bronchi wrapped with what

A

muscle

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81
Q

characteristics of alveoli

A

thin, no muscle, gas exchange occurs here

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82
Q

walls of alveoli have what

A

elastin and collagen

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83
Q

air exits alveoli via what from what

A

passive recoil from elastic fibers

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84
Q

cells at alveoli are what

A

type I, type ii, macrophages

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85
Q

type I alveoli cells

A

simple squamous epithelium, needs short distance for diffusion

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86
Q

type 2 alveoli cells

A

cuboidal, release surfactant, secretory

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87
Q

macrophages in alveoli do what

A

in case there are little particles, they engulf them

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88
Q

what is surfactant

A

lipoprotein fluid secretion with detergent capabilities to reduce surface tension along lining of alveoli

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89
Q

surfactant increases what in lung

A

compliance

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90
Q

when gas meets water, there is what

A

surface tension

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91
Q

what happens to alveoli without surfactant

A

shape will collapse from ST due to water wanting to join each other - noncompliance

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92
Q

lipoprotein has what characteristics

A

hydrophobic and philic ends

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93
Q

what is respiratory distress syndrome in premature new borns

A

extremely labored breathing

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94
Q

solution to res distress syndrome

A

tube to lungs to add in artificial surfactant , causes lungs to become compliant

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95
Q

gas exchange requires what

A

gradient

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96
Q

most O2 is carried on what

A

hemoglobin

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97
Q

body detects oxygen levels by using what

A

chemoreceptors in walls of bv

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98
Q

chemoreceptors detect oxygen where

A

in plasma not in RBC

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99
Q

chemoreceptors checking for o2 levels send impulses where

A

respiratory center in brainstem

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100
Q

where are the chemoreceptors in vessel walls located in the body

A

aorta and split

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101
Q

why is hemoglobin loving CO a problem

A

if given a choice btw co and o2, it will taken co, it cannot be detected bc receptors only look at plasma and not hemoglobin, can lead to death quickly

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102
Q

COPD stands for

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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103
Q

what conditions fall under COPD

A

chronic bronchitis, emphysema

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104
Q

what is chronic bronchitis

A

narrowing of airway increases resistance

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105
Q

emphysema is what

A

continual injury to alveoli causes elastin breakdown -> reduced recoil -> trouble exhaling

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106
Q

emphysema damages what

A

respiratory bronchi and alveoli

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107
Q

those with COPD likely to have what

A

pulmonary fibrosis (not part of COPD)

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108
Q

two groups of organs in the digestive system

A

alimentary canal (GI) and accessory organs

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109
Q

what are the accessory organs

A

tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas

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110
Q

functions of digestive system

A

swallowing, chemical digestion, mechanical digestion, absorption, defacation

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111
Q

what design is the digestive system

A

tube within a tube

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112
Q

what does small intestine do

A

nutrients and water to blood vessels and lymph nodes

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113
Q

what does large intestine do

A

water to blood vessels

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114
Q

peritoneal cavity lined with what and what are two layers

A

serous membrane, parietal and visceral peritoneum

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115
Q

what is mesentery and its function

A

two fused layers of peritoneum, pathway for blood vessels to get to tube

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116
Q

some mesenteries called what

A

ligaments

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117
Q

what cavities make up peritoneal cavity

A

abdominal and pelvic

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118
Q

develop posterior to the peritoneum

A

retroperitoneal organs

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119
Q

fuse to dorsal body wall during development and are not surrounded by peritoneum on al sides

A

secondarily retroperitoneal organs

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120
Q

mesenteries store what

A

fat

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121
Q

mesenteries serve as route for hwat

A

vascularization and nerves

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122
Q

are most mesenteries dorsal or ventral

A

dorsal

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123
Q

what is peritonitis

A

inflammation, infection along GI due to breach, internal bleeding, bacterial infection

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124
Q

seriousness of peritonitis

A

extremely serious, can cause death

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125
Q

layers of alimentary canal deepest to superficial

A

mucosa,muscularis mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, mesentery, serosa

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126
Q

another name for serosa

A

visceral perioneum

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127
Q

describe mucosa layer

A

inner pink lining - epithelium - tends to be simple columnar, lamina propria layer is present

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128
Q

purpose of lamina propria in alimentary canal , what kind of tissue is it

A

connective tissue, immune function

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129
Q

what is purpose of muscularis mucosa

A

gives GI tract tone, does not move anything along

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130
Q

describe submucosa

A

lots of glands, vascularized, connective tissue, lymph nodes, vessels, nerves

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131
Q

what is nerve plexus

A

lots of nerves, innervates glands, muscles, important for timing of digestion

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132
Q

what NS allows digestion to occur

A

parasympathetic

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133
Q

describe muscularis externa

A

circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers for physical digestion, motility

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134
Q

what is the muscularis externa at either end

A

skeletal muscle with voluntary control

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135
Q

in cross section of intestine, what muscle layers are visible

A

longitudinal layer of smooth muscle, circular layer of smooth muscle

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136
Q

contains neurons that innervate pacemaker cells and glands.

A

intrinsic plexus

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137
Q

myenteric plexus between what

A

muscle layers

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138
Q

submucosal plexus signal to what

A

glands, muscularis mucosa

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139
Q

smooth muscles of GI joined in what, interconnected with what

A

layers, interconnected with gap junctions

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140
Q

what do smooth muscles of GI not have

A

motor units,

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141
Q

what do smooth muscles of GI have

A

pacemakers and contractile cells (single unit)

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142
Q

what inhibits smooth muscles of GI

A

sympathetic NS

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143
Q

pertaining to smooth muscle contraction, what do they not gave

A

sarcomeres

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144
Q

what causes contraction of smooth muscle

A

Ca2+

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145
Q

pacemakers have what kind of potentials, what do they lead to

A

have cycling potentials, do not always result in APs, it depends on signaling

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146
Q

what things cause an action potential to occur in GI

A

parasympathetic NS signals, reflex arcs due to stretching of GI, hormones

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147
Q

if membrane potential is below the threshold potential, what happens,

A

AP won’t occur

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148
Q

if stomach detects protein, what happens

A

certain hormone is released to start digesting

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149
Q

AP = what

A

contraction

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150
Q

contraction strength depends on waht

A

signal

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151
Q

what kind of cells for oral mucosa and where are they

A

all thick stratified squamous with keratinization, along tongue, gums, hard palate

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152
Q

another term for gums

A

gingivae

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153
Q

lip epithelium, ketainized or not

A

not very keratinized

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154
Q

what glands found in the lip

A

small salivary glands

155
Q

outside of lip contains what and causes what

A

lots of vascularization, darker color

156
Q

attachement on underside of tongue called what

157
Q

what happens if frenulum is too large

A

can impede speech and suckling

158
Q

palatoglossal arch made of what

159
Q

palatophayngeal arch made of what

160
Q

muscles of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches help with

A

swallowing - lifting the tongue, helping to close off nasopharynx

161
Q

palatopharngeal arch located wehre

A

just behind uvula

162
Q

palatine tonsil is between what

A

two arches

163
Q

tongue is attached where

A

to mandible, sytloid process, and hyoid

164
Q

what kinds of muscles does tongue have and what do they do

A

intrinsic - control tongue shape
externtic - control tongue postion

165
Q

tongue does what when we swallow and why

A

contracts, keeps food down

166
Q

palatoglossal muscle does what

A

lift tongue up

167
Q

styloglossal muscle does what

A

move tongue back

168
Q

genoglossos does what

A

pull tongue down

169
Q

what does hyoglossus do

A

pull tongue down

170
Q

list extrinsic tongue muscles

A

palatoglossal, styloglossal, genoglossus, hyoglossus,

171
Q

teeth are composed of what

A

bone with higher amounts of hydroxyapatite vs typical bone

172
Q

are teeth vascularized

A

not vascularized

173
Q

teeth are a combo of what

A

ectoderm and mesoderm

174
Q

which layer of teeth is the hardest

175
Q

wha percent HA in enamel

176
Q

enamel covers what

177
Q

enamel has what kind of collagne

A

no collagen

178
Q

describe enamel and living cells

A

once enamel is made it has no living cells

179
Q

describe dentine

A

70% HA, makes majority of the tooth

180
Q

what does HA stand for

A

hydroxyapatite

181
Q

describe pulp

A

loose CT with nerve and blood supply

182
Q

describe cement

A

outer bony layer anchoring periodontal ligament formed from cementoblasts

183
Q

what forms cement

A

cementoblasts

184
Q

which layers make up ectoderm and mesoderm in teeth

A

ectoderm, - enamel
mesoderm, - dentine, pulp, cement

185
Q

maintenance of enamel

A

there is none

186
Q

two dental arches

A

maxillary and mandibular arch

187
Q

describe the types of teeth per quadrant

A

2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, 3 molars

188
Q

describe teeth starting at front and moving back

A

central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, first premolar, second premolar, third premolar aka wisdom tooth

189
Q

enamel is derived from what

A

ameloblasts differentiating from ectoderm

190
Q

what happens to ameloblasts , and what is the result of this

A

die when tooth erupts and aren’t replaceable, no enamel repair

191
Q

dentine derived from what

A

odontoblasts differentiating from NC mesenchyme

192
Q

odontoblasts receive nutrients from

A

pulp via tubules

193
Q

what does dentine have

194
Q

collagen can extend from what to what

A

bone to tooth

195
Q

tissue types from jaw to bone

A

alveolar bone, periodontium, acellular cementum/cellular cementum, dentin and prevention, odontoblasts

196
Q

what kinds of cells make up periodontium

A

fibroblasts and cementoblasts

197
Q

what kind of cells found in cellular cementum

A

cementocytes

198
Q

how do teeth attach

A

periodontal ligament

199
Q

describe periodontal ligament

A

dense fibrous connective tissue w colagen fibers set at diff angles and arranged in groups

200
Q

most NC cells are what

A

mesenchymal

201
Q

NC cells induce formation oof what

A

sensory neurons, many skin structures, some skull bones

202
Q

how teeth develop is similar to what

A

development of other skin structures

203
Q

what interacts with teeth development

A

ectoderm and underlying mesenchyme

204
Q

first step of teeth development

A

ectoderm thickens into dental lamina which descends into NC mesenchyme, and a dental papilla condenses underneath. Tooth germ cells form where they meet

205
Q

when do teeth start to be made

A

6 week old fetus

206
Q

describe teeth development in 6 week old fetus

A

first, ectoderm grows and sinks down into a spot(dental lamina)
dental lamina becomes papilla bc of condensing dental mesenchyme
ameloblasts form on outside of odontoblasts and lay down enamel

207
Q

what lay down enamel

A

amelobalsts

208
Q

ameloblasts form on what

A

outside of odontoblasts

209
Q

how is dentin formed

A

odontoblasts moving down

210
Q

what is plaque, describe effects

A

film of debris on teeth – mixture of sugars, bacteria. Bacteria proliferate and make acid that dissolves ename

211
Q

what are cavities

A

results from loss of tooth mineral

212
Q

what is tartar

A

forms when plaque is not removed and calcifies after mixing with minerals from saliva

213
Q

which teeth are at more risk of cavities

214
Q

what are the mastication muscles

A

masseter, temporalis, lateral and medial pterygoids

215
Q

what does masseter do

A

strongly closes jaw

216
Q

temporalii funciton

A

closes jaw, can retract

217
Q

lateral and medial pterygoids do what

A

protraction, lateral excursion

218
Q

which gland secretions regulated by ANS

A

submandibular, sublingual, parotid secretions regulated by ANS

219
Q

which NS regulates major salivary glands

220
Q

describe saliva

A

95% water, with lysozymes, mucus, and salivary amylase

221
Q

function of salivary amylase

A

initial breakdown of starches that continues in stomach

222
Q

describe muscularis externa in esophagus

A

superiorly - skeletal muscle
lower - smooth muscle

223
Q

what happens to stratified squamous in esophagus

A

stratified squamous mucosa ends, becomes simple columnar in stomach and intestine

224
Q

what is a hiatal hernia

A

superior portion of stomach prolapses through the esophageal hiatus

225
Q

what is great mimic

A

symptoms of hernia resemble other disorders like heartburn, pain, cough

226
Q

what does GERD stand for and what is another term for it

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease, acid reflex

227
Q

what does GERD cause

A

heartburn, chest pains, coughing, enamel issues

228
Q

what does BE stand for

A

Barrett’s esophagus

229
Q

describe BE

A

epithelium lining of lower esophagus changes from stratified squamous to simple columnar as a protective function due to acid coming up

230
Q

must be converted to chyme to exit pyloric valve

231
Q

function of stomach

A

physical and chemical digestion. some absorption of fat soluble molecules like alcohol

232
Q

what kills most microbes

233
Q

gastric secretions elevated by what

A

hormones, PNS, stretch.

234
Q

how do proteins affect stomach release

A

slows it down

235
Q

what kinds of acid in the stomach

A

hydrochloric and pepsinogen

236
Q

what is pepsinogen converted to

237
Q

what do acids do to proteins

A

break apart proteins into peptides

238
Q

function of amylase and where is it found

A

in saliva, begins digestion of carbohydrates

239
Q

how do proteins affect pepsin levels

A

increase pepsin released

240
Q

liquid food is what

241
Q

describe stomach histology

A

simple columnar

242
Q

what does the simple columnar layer release (stomach)

A

mucous and gastric secretions

243
Q

where are acid and pepsinogen made

A

bottom of the pits of the stomach

244
Q

what are peptic ulcers

A

stomach wall injured by acid and enzymes -> injury releases histamine, which stimulates acid production

245
Q

what layer is missing in peptic ulcers

246
Q

what bacteria can tolerate acid in the stomach

247
Q

how does h pylori cause ulcers

A

bacteria travels into pits to survive - > infects these pits

248
Q

shortest section of small intestine

249
Q

function of duodenum

A

neutralize chyme using goblet and brunners gland

250
Q

duodenum recieves exocrine secretions from what

A

liver and pancreas

251
Q

what are brunners gland

A

found in submucosa of duodenum, release bicarbonate

252
Q

if too much acid in duodenum what happens

A

stomach slows down release, or more chemicals released to neutralize

253
Q

primary site for absorption

254
Q

which section of small intestine has features for increased surface area

255
Q

what features of the jejunum increase SA

A

dense plicae circulares, villi, microvilli

256
Q

mucosa layer of jejunum releases what and where does it go

A

digestive enzymes to lumen as response to chyme

257
Q

increased surface area in jejunum is there why

A

increased contact with digestive enzyme

258
Q

what releases the last enzymes in jejunum

A

presence of chyme

259
Q

ileum absorbs what

A

b12, bile salts, last nutrients

260
Q

ileum has large amounts of what

A

MALT (mucosa associated lymph tissue)

261
Q

lymphoid tissue that initiates immune response to foreign antigen encountered in various body locations along a mucous layer

262
Q

examples of MALT

A

Peter patches, appendix, tonsils

263
Q

which layer in ileum contains conc of immune cells

A

lamina propria

264
Q

how to tell ileum and jejunum apart

A

jejunum has much more folds

265
Q

villi contain what

A

capillaries and lymph vessels

266
Q

absorbed molecules in blood are brought to where via what

A

liver via hepatic portal system

267
Q

what structures absorb nutrients

268
Q

pancreas releases exocrine secretions from what

A

pancreatic duct

269
Q

pancreas endocrine or exocrine

270
Q

what is released from pancreatic duct

A

bicarbonate, lipases, amylases, proteases

271
Q

what do endocrine hormones released from pancreas control

A

blood sugar

272
Q

where is bile produced

273
Q

where is bile stored

A

gall bladder

274
Q

where is bile released from

275
Q

function of bile salts

A

emulsify fat

276
Q

what section of the liver is gallbladder located

277
Q

what is the section above the gall bladder

278
Q

what kind of capillaries are found in the liver

A

sinusoidal capillaries

279
Q

what do sinusoidal capillaries in the liver help the liver do

A

allows it to monitor blood content

280
Q

hepatocytes in liver do what

A

modify molecules we’ve absorbed

281
Q

liver acts as a gateway from what to what

A

intestines to body

282
Q

etwork of veins that carries blood from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and spleen to the liver

A

hepatic portal system

283
Q

all capillary beds around abdominal cavity do what

A

lead to hepatic portal

284
Q

efers to the initial breakdown of a drug in the liver (or gut wall) after it’s absorbed from the digestive tract but before it reaches the systemic circulation.

A

first pass effect

285
Q

poor venous blood flow thru scarred liver can lead to what

A

portal hypertension

286
Q

portal hypertension can cause what

A

edema and ascites

287
Q

what can poor venous blood flow thru liver be caused by

A

could be cancer or cirrhosis

288
Q

what is edema

A

welling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body’s tissues, usually legs

289
Q

what is ascites

A

abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdomen, specifically in the peritoneal cavity

290
Q

in portal hypertension, where does the blood back up and what does fluid come out of

A

in edema, backs up in legs
in ascites it backs up in abdomin
fluid comes out of capillaries

291
Q

what are some main structural features of large intestine

A

appendix, cecum, colon, rectum

292
Q

what is the function of large intestine

A

water is reclaimed from what we dumped into digestion so far

293
Q

what is unique about sigmoid colon

A

it is a human characteristic bc we stand vertically

294
Q

what does the appendix do

A

has some immune function

295
Q

what is appendicitis

A

inflammation/infection of appendix

296
Q

why is appendix more likely to get infected

A

shit backs up in it bc it is a deadend, commonly is blocked

297
Q

in large intestine, chyme mixes with what to form what

A

bacteria to form gut flora

298
Q

in large intestine, what is reabsorbed from chyme and what is the result of this reabsorption

A

water, some vitamins are resorbed, yields solid feces

299
Q

how many microbes in the human body

A

billions of microbes

300
Q

some benefits of microbes:

A

provide body with vitamin K, biotin, help digestion and immunity, inhibit harmful bacteria

301
Q

what is diverticulosis

A

presence of pouches in the descending colon

302
Q

where do pouches form in diverticulosis

A

in between muscle rings where tissue is weaker

303
Q

what can diverticulosis turn into

A

diverticultisis

304
Q

what is diverticulitis

A

inflammation of pouches found in descending colon

305
Q

some examples of inflammatory bowel diseases

A

crohns disease and ulcerative colitis

306
Q

inflammation that tends to be confined to ileum or colon

A

chron’s disease

307
Q

describe what happens during crohns disease

A

intestines chronically inflamed form interactions with bacteria, can affect deep layers

308
Q

what layer of ulcerative colitis affect

A

colon mucosa

309
Q

what is cobble stoning common in

A

Crohns disease

310
Q

kidney functions

A

getting rid of waste, balance pH, water/salt, control blood volume and pressure

311
Q

how much salt is retained in plasma is important in what

A

blood pressure

312
Q

what wastes is the kidney getting rid of

A

urea, creatine, uric acid

313
Q

what fat is around kidneys

A

peritoneal

314
Q

outer portion of kidney

A

renal cortex

315
Q

inner portion of kidney

A

renal medulla

316
Q

which part of kidney has high salt conc

317
Q

where are nephrons

318
Q

what do nephrons produce

319
Q

about how many nephrons does the kidney have

A

about a million

320
Q

funnel for urine that receives it from nephrons

A

renal pelvis

321
Q

where does renal pelvis lead to

322
Q

regions in kidney that have clusters of nephrons

A

renal pyrimid

323
Q

lots of vascularization where on the kidney

A

outside of the kidney

324
Q

what percent of all cardiac output goes to kidney

325
Q

almost all blood to the kidney goes to what part within what

A

glomeruli within cortex

326
Q

when blood flows thru liver and kidney, what it happening to it

A

it is being conditioned

327
Q

which vessel travels to the glomerulus

A

afferent glomerular arteriole

328
Q

characteristics of afferent glomerular arteriole

A

it is wider in diameter, under ANS control

329
Q

what does ANS control in afferent glomerular arteriole

A

filration rate

330
Q

kidney contains what kind of capillaries

A

fenestrated

331
Q

why does the kidney contain fenestrated capillaries

A

higher filtration rate, allows plasma to ooze out

332
Q

which renal vessel branches to the peri tubular capillaries

A

efferent glom arteriole

333
Q

where do preitubular capillaries lead

334
Q

peri tubular. capillaries along long nephrons called what

A

vasa recta

335
Q

describe blood flow in capillary bed in kidney and why it matters

A

it is slow, can be exchanged between nephron and capillary bed

336
Q

what ever isn’t put into peritubule capillaries is what

337
Q

2 nephron types are … and what is their abundance of each

A

85% cortical, 15% juxtamedullary

338
Q

which nephrons have long loops of henle

A

Jm nephrons

339
Q

Jm nephrons go where

A

deep into medulla

340
Q

nephrons dump into what

A

collecting ducts

341
Q

the jm that dive deeply into medullary, describe that

A

runs through high osmolarity, which can absorb water out of Jm

342
Q

vasa recta associated with which nephron

343
Q

vasa recta transfer what between what

A

NaCL between limbs

344
Q

if organism wants to release a hyper osmotic urine, it must have what

A

area of high osmolarity

345
Q

what need to be in place with those high osmolarity areas in the body

A

gates for water for regulation

346
Q

nephrons receive filtrate where

A

at the glomerus

347
Q

how much filtrate is reabsorbed what what is included in that

A

99% of filtrate, includes water, ions, AA, glucose

348
Q

what regulates the process of filtrate being reabsorbed

A

endocrine hormones like ADH, renin, and aldosterone

349
Q

some substances can be secreted into filtrate from what

A

peritubular capillary

350
Q

mainly reabsorption come from what

A

renal tube to peritubular capillary

351
Q

what kinds of things are transferred from peritubular capillary to renal tube

A

acid, h ions, K+ions

352
Q

kidneys influence BP and heart health why

A

bc they regulate water/salt balance

353
Q

if there is a drop in renal flow, what happens

A

renin is released, it will raise blood volume and vasoconstriction via RAAS pathway

354
Q

if blood pressure drops what happens

A

renin begins RAAS PW

355
Q

how do some drugs lower blood pressure

A

inhibit the RAAS pathway

356
Q

where are granular cells located

A

juxtaglomerular complex

357
Q

function of granular cells

A

they stretch, the further they stretch the higher the blood pressure, when they aren’t stretched they detect this and release renin to inc blood pressure

358
Q

what do macula densa cells sense and what do they do

A

Na+ levels, signal to granular cells when salt is low to release renin

359
Q

trigone defined by what

A

2 ureter opening and urethra

360
Q

urge to urinate starts when

A

150 ml in volume

361
Q

what kind of muscle along walls of bladder

362
Q

what muscle squeezes down on bladder

363
Q

keeps body from urinating constantly

A

internal and external sphincter

364
Q

which sphincter is voluntary

A

the external one

365
Q

which gender has larger bladder capacity

366
Q

bladder histology

A

has transitional epithelium, which has different states depending on the situation

367
Q

which part of brain is responsible for urination

368
Q

what is another name for urination

A

micturition

369
Q

which NS used for urination

A

ANS both para and sym

370
Q

where does ANS innervate in peeing

A

internal sphincter, detrugar muscle

371
Q

innervates external sphincter

A

simple motor neuron

372
Q

2nd most common type of infection

A

urinary tract infection

373
Q

how to urinary tract infections happen

A

bacteria introduced to urethra multiply and travel to bladder or potentially further

374
Q

what is it called when bacteria travel to bladder

375
Q

what is it called when bacteria travel to kidney

A

pyelonephritis

376
Q

UTI more common in which gender

377
Q

treatment for UTI

A

antibiotics

378
Q

caused when hard deposits form in the kidney

A

kidney stones

379
Q

what are the deposits that normally form in the kidney

A

usually calcium, sometimes uric acid

380
Q

kidney stones enter what and what happens

A

enter ureter, extreme pain

381
Q

what inc risk o kidney stones

A

dehydration

382
Q

can inc uric acid stones

383
Q

least common stone and what is it caused by

A

struvite stone, caused by bacteria in the kidney