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PHRM 845 Therapeutics > Exam 4 - Lec 52-53 Antipsychotics Watt > Flashcards

Exam 4 - Lec 52-53 Antipsychotics Watt Flashcards

1
Q

based on mech of LSD and mescaline

a. dopamine NT hypothesis
b. serotonin NT hypothesis
c. glutamate NT hypothesis

A

b. serotonin NT hypothesis

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2
Q

based on phencyclidine and ketamine

a. dopamine NT hypothesis
b. serotonin NT hypothesis
c. glutamate NT hypothesis

A

c. glutamate NT hypothesis

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3
Q

at what dose will risperidone cause EPS side effects in most patients?

a. 0.5 mg
b. 1 mg
c. 2 mg
d. 6 mg
e. 10 mg

A

d. 6 mg

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4
Q

rating scale of tardive dyskinesia

A

AIMS (abnormal invol movement scale)

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5
Q

which VMAT inhibitor is for TD and Huntington’s chorea?

a. tetrabenazine
b. valbenazine
c. deutetrabenazine

A

c. deutetrabenazine

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6
Q

EPS is due to ____ antagonism

A

D2

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7
Q

what syndrome is associated with EPS sx with fever, impaired cognition, and muscle rigidity?

A

NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

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8
Q

Tx of NMS

A

restore dopamine balance (3 drug options: DA agonists, diazepam, or dantrolene)

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9
Q

how long does it take antipsychotics to have max efficacy for tx of psychosis?

A

6 weeks to 6 months

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10
Q

pimozide use

a. psychosis
b. Tourette’s tics
c. Huntington’s chorea
d. NMS

A

b. Tourette’s tics

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11
Q

_______ and _______ are noncompetitive inhibs of NMDA receptors and exacerbate psychosis and cognition deficits

A

phencyclidine; ketamine

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12
Q

why are D2 receptors a more effective drug target than D1 receptors for schizophrenia?

A

there is a perfect correlation between binding potency and clinical effectiveness for D2 (ability of drugs to bind to D2 is predictable)

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13
Q

loss of accommodation, dry mouth, difficulty urinating, constipation

a. muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade
b. alpha adrenoreceptor blockade
c. dopamine receptor blockade
d. supersensitivity of dopamine receptors
e. histamine receptor blockade

A

a. muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade

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14
Q

typical antipsychotics have more movement problems, inc EPS and TD due to ?

A

strong D2 block

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15
Q

1st antipsychotic

A

chlorpromazine

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16
Q

importance of R2 in phenothiazine nucleus

A

important for potency

17
Q

R10 of phenothiazine nucleus

a. important for potency
b. requires 3 atom chain (allows nitrogen to bind receptor)

A

b. requires 3 atom chain (allows nitrogen to bind receptor)

18
Q

aliphatic phenothiazines (1)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

a. chlorpromazine

19
Q

aliphatic phenothiazines: used for H1 antag properties (1)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

b. promethazine

20
Q

piperidine phenothiazine (1)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

c. thioridazine

21
Q

piperazine phenothiazines (3)

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

A

d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine

22
Q

drug that is a butyrophenone

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone

A

h. haloperidol

23
Q

1st antipsychotic, antihistamine SE

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

a. chlorpromazine

24
Q

antihistamine, antiemetic

a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide

A

b. promethazine

25
many SE: anticholinergic, sedation, sexual dysfunction, CV a. chlorpromazine b. promethazine c. thioridazine d. fluphenazine e. prochlorperazine f. perphenazine g. thiothixene h. haloperidol i. molindone j. pimozide
c. thioridazine
26
modest EPS (2) a. chlorpromazine b. promethazine c. thioridazine d. fluphenazine e. prochlorperazine f. perphenazine g. thiothixene h. haloperidol i. molindone j. pimozide
g. thiothixene i. molindone
27
CATIE studies: combination with anticholinergic a. chlorpromazine b. promethazine c. thioridazine d. fluphenazine e. prochlorperazine f. perphenazine g. thiothixene h. haloperidol i. molindone j. pimozide
f. perphenazine
28
antiemetic only a. chlorpromazine b. promethazine c. thioridazine d. fluphenazine e. prochlorperazine f. perphenazine g. thiothixene h. haloperidol i. molindone j. pimozide
e. prochlorperazine
29
EPS (not moderate EPS; 2 of them) a. chlorpromazine b. promethazine c. thioridazine d. fluphenazine e. prochlorperazine f. perphenazine g. thiothixene h. haloperidol i. molindone j. pimozide
d. fluphenazine h. haloperidol
30
Tourett's disease, suppress motor and vocal tics a. chlorpromazine b. promethazine c. thioridazine d. fluphenazine e. prochlorperazine f. perphenazine g. thiothixene h. haloperidol i. molindone j. pimozide
j. pimozide
31
T or F: atypicals have more EPS and less metabolic problems than typicals
F (less EPS, more metabolic problems)
32
drug with agranulocytosis as SE a. clozapine b. olanzapine c. quetiapine d. risperidone e. ziprasidone f. lurasidone g. aripiprazole
a. clozapine
33
weight gain, risk of diabetes a. clozapine b. olanzapine c. quetiapine d. risperidone e. ziprasidone f. lurasidone g. aripiprazole
b. olanzapine
34
metabolite w/ antidepressant activity; hypotension, sedation a. clozapine b. olanzapine c. quetiapine d. risperidone e. ziprasidone f. lurasidone g. aripiprazole
c. quetiapine
35
5HT2A/D2 receptor antagonist a. clozapine b. olanzapine c. quetiapine d. risperidone e. ziprasidone f. lurasidone g. aripiprazole
d. risperidone
36
5HT2A/D2, alpha 1 affinity; prolongs QT interval a. clozapine b. olanzapine c. quetiapine d. risperidone e. ziprasidone f. lurasidone g. aripiprazole
e. ziprasidone
37
5HT2A/D2, reduced metabolic effects, rapid titration a. clozapine b. olanzapine c. quetiapine d. risperidone e. ziprasidone f. lurasidone g. aripiprazole
f. lurasidone
38
high 5HT2A/D2 affinity, partial agonist activity a. clozapine b. olanzapine c. quetiapine d. risperidone e. ziprasidone f. lurasidone g. aripiprazole
g. aripiprazole
39

PHRM 845 Therapeutics (34 decks)

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