Exam 4 - Lec 52-53 Antipsychotics Watt Flashcards
based on mech of LSD and mescaline
a. dopamine NT hypothesis
b. serotonin NT hypothesis
c. glutamate NT hypothesis
b. serotonin NT hypothesis
based on phencyclidine and ketamine
a. dopamine NT hypothesis
b. serotonin NT hypothesis
c. glutamate NT hypothesis
c. glutamate NT hypothesis
at what dose will risperidone cause EPS side effects in most patients?
a. 0.5 mg
b. 1 mg
c. 2 mg
d. 6 mg
e. 10 mg
d. 6 mg
rating scale of tardive dyskinesia
AIMS (abnormal invol movement scale)
which VMAT inhibitor is for TD and Huntington’s chorea?
a. tetrabenazine
b. valbenazine
c. deutetrabenazine
c. deutetrabenazine
EPS is due to ____ antagonism
D2
what syndrome is associated with EPS sx with fever, impaired cognition, and muscle rigidity?
NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)
Tx of NMS
restore dopamine balance (3 drug options: DA agonists, diazepam, or dantrolene)
how long does it take antipsychotics to have max efficacy for tx of psychosis?
6 weeks to 6 months
pimozide use
a. psychosis
b. Tourette’s tics
c. Huntington’s chorea
d. NMS
b. Tourette’s tics
_______ and _______ are noncompetitive inhibs of NMDA receptors and exacerbate psychosis and cognition deficits
phencyclidine; ketamine
why are D2 receptors a more effective drug target than D1 receptors for schizophrenia?
there is a perfect correlation between binding potency and clinical effectiveness for D2 (ability of drugs to bind to D2 is predictable)
loss of accommodation, dry mouth, difficulty urinating, constipation
a. muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade
b. alpha adrenoreceptor blockade
c. dopamine receptor blockade
d. supersensitivity of dopamine receptors
e. histamine receptor blockade
a. muscarinic cholinoreceptor blockade
typical antipsychotics have more movement problems, inc EPS and TD due to ?
strong D2 block
1st antipsychotic
chlorpromazine
importance of R2 in phenothiazine nucleus
important for potency
R10 of phenothiazine nucleus
a. important for potency
b. requires 3 atom chain (allows nitrogen to bind receptor)
b. requires 3 atom chain (allows nitrogen to bind receptor)
aliphatic phenothiazines (1)
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
a. chlorpromazine
aliphatic phenothiazines: used for H1 antag properties (1)
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
b. promethazine
piperidine phenothiazine (1)
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
c. thioridazine
piperazine phenothiazines (3)
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
drug that is a butyrophenone
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
h. haloperidol
1st antipsychotic, antihistamine SE
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
a. chlorpromazine
antihistamine, antiemetic
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
b. promethazine
many SE: anticholinergic, sedation, sexual dysfunction, CV
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
c. thioridazine
modest EPS (2)
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
g. thiothixene
i. molindone
CATIE studies: combination with anticholinergic
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
f. perphenazine
antiemetic only
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
e. prochlorperazine
EPS (not moderate EPS; 2 of them)
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
d. fluphenazine
h. haloperidol
Tourett’s disease, suppress motor and vocal tics
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thioridazine
d. fluphenazine
e. prochlorperazine
f. perphenazine
g. thiothixene
h. haloperidol
i. molindone
j. pimozide
j. pimozide
T or F: atypicals have more EPS and less metabolic problems than typicals
F (less EPS, more metabolic problems)
drug with agranulocytosis as SE
a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole
a. clozapine
weight gain, risk of diabetes
a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole
b. olanzapine
metabolite w/ antidepressant activity; hypotension, sedation
a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole
c. quetiapine
5HT2A/D2 receptor antagonist
a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole
d. risperidone
5HT2A/D2, alpha 1 affinity; prolongs QT interval
a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole
e. ziprasidone
5HT2A/D2, reduced metabolic effects, rapid titration
a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole
f. lurasidone
high 5HT2A/D2 affinity, partial agonist activity
a. clozapine
b. olanzapine
c. quetiapine
d. risperidone
e. ziprasidone
f. lurasidone
g. aripiprazole
g. aripiprazole
