Exam 3 - Lec 48-49 Seizures Ott Flashcards

1
Q

risk factors for seizure recurrence (9 of them; slide 8)

A

< 2 years seizure free
-onset of seizure after age 12
-history of atypical febrile seizures
-2-6 yrs before good seizure control in tx
> 30 episodes before control achieved
-partial seizures
-abnormal EEG throughout tx
-organic neuro disorder (brain injury, dementia)
-withdrawal of phenytoin or valproate

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2
Q

what medications/drug classes lower the seizure threshold at normal doses? (6 of them)

A

-bupropion
-clozapine
-theophylline
-varenicline
-phenothiazine antipsychotics
-CNS stimulants (amphetamines)

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3
Q

what medications/drug classes lower the seizure threshold at high doses and impaired renal function? (6 of them)

A

-carbapenems (**imipenem)
-lithium
-meperidine
-penicillin
-quinolones
-tramadol

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4
Q

possible reasons for tx failure for drug-resistant epilepsy (3 of them)

A

-failure to reach CNS target
-alteration of drug targets in CNS
-drugs missing the real target

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5
Q

management of drug-resistant epilepsy (3 things bolded)

A

-rule out pseudo-resistance (wrong drug/diagnosis)
-combination therapy
-electrical/surgical intervention

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6
Q

status epilepticus definition

A

continuous seizure activity lasting 5 min or more, or two or more discrete seizure with incomplete recovery between

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7
Q

possible drug therapy for status epilepticus (bolded)

A

benzodiazepines, most commonly lorazepam or midazolam

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8
Q

for status epilepticus tx, what is given if seizure continues 5-20 minutes after (initial tx phase)? (2 options)

A

IV lorazepam or IV midazolam

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9
Q

why does phenytoin have a limited infusion rate?

A

it can cause hypotension due to propylene glycol diluent

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10
Q

fosphenytoin dosing

A

20 mg PE (phenytoin equivs)/kg IV, may give additional dose 10 min after load

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11
Q

why does fosphenytoin have better IV tolerance of dosing than phenytoin?

A

bc fosphenytoin is a prodrug of phenytoin

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12
Q

phenytoin/fosphenytoin administration requires cardiac monitoring, and may also cause what local reaction?

A

purple glove syndrome

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13
Q

for oral phenytoin dosing, we must obtain what two things in the same blood draw?

A

-phenytoin serum conc
-serum albumin

(these are used in the equation to calculate dose)

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14
Q

therapeutic serum conc range for phenytoin

a. 5-10 mcg/mL
b. 10-20 mcg/mL
c. 20-40 mcg/mL
d. 50-100 mcg/mL

A

b. 10-20 mcg/mL

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15
Q

IV to PO conversion for valproate

A

1:1 conversion

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16
Q

desired serum conc range for valproate

A

50-125 mcg/mL (~80 mcg/mL)

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17
Q

carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and phenytoin are inducers of which 3 CYPS?

A

1A2, 2C9, 3A4

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18
Q

lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, and topiramate induce which CYP?

a. 1A2
b. 2C9
c. 3A4

A

c. 3A4

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19
Q

which drug is a UGT inhibitor?

a. carbamazepine
b. phenobarbital
c. phenytoin
d. lamotrigine
e. oxcarbazepine
f. valproate
g. topiramate

A

f. valproate

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20
Q

boxed warning for lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

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21
Q

lamotrigine dosing without concomitant UGT drug interactions (4 doses to know)

A

-25 mg once daily x 14 days
-50 mg once daily x 14 days
-100 mg once daily x 7 days
-200 mg once daily

(if given with UGT inhibitor, dec doses by half; if given with UGT inducer, double the doses)

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22
Q

what must be screened prior to starting carbamazepine or like derivatives?

A

screen for HLA-B*1502 allele

(it is assoc with SJ syndrome and anticonvulsant hypersensitivity syndrome; if positive, pt should not be treated with these drugs unless benefits outweigh risk)

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23
Q

true or false: there is strong correlation for positive HLA-B*1502 allele and AHS in Asian pts

A

true

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24
Q

which allele in pts of Northern European and Asian descent may confer similar risk for AHS to HLA-B*1502?

a. HLA-B1330
b. HLA-A
3101
c. HLA-B1503
d. HLA-A
3151

A

b. HLA-A*3101

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25
mortality rate of DRESS syndrome
10%
26
true or false: DRESS syndrome is less likely in pts positive for HLA-A*1301
false (more likely)
27
DRESS syndrome usually occurs ___-___ weeks after start of drug therapy
2-6 weeks
28
DRESS syndrome is associated with which drugs? (7 of them in bold)
-carbamazepine -phenobarbital -phenytoin -cenobamate -lamotrigine -valproate -zonisamide
29
antiseizure drug withdrawal syndrome (2 things in bold)
-associated with abrupt discontinuation of antiseizure med -may cause recurrence of seizures, always taper
30
drug serum conc for antiseizure drugs may be altered in pregnancy due to changes in ?
volume of distribution
31
why is valproate not recommended in pregnancy?
causes neural tube defects and is assoc with dec IQ of the offspring (consider supplemental folic acid 5 mg daily)
32
which antiseizure drugs are teratogenic risks? (7 of them)
-carbamazepine -phenobarbital -phenytoin -fosphenytoin -clonazepam -primidone -topiramate
33
infants should receive what dose of vitamin K at birth to dec risk of hemorrhagic disease? a. 1 mg b. 2 mg c. 3 mg d. 5 mg
a. 1 mg
34
why do antiseizure drugs dec efficacy of estrogen-containing contraceptives?
estrogen compounds are major 3A4 substrates; need to use higher dose estrogen contraceptives, or can use progestin-only - depot formulation, or IUDs are also recommended
35
_________ can dec lamotrigine serum conc (50%) and vice versa
estrogen
36
which medications have an AE of arrhythmias? (2 of them) a. lamotrigine b. lacosamide c. pregabalin d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin e. fenfluramine
a. lamotrigine d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin
37
which medications have an AE of PR interval changes? (2 of them) a. lamotrigine b. lacosamide c. pregabalin d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin e. fenfluramine
b. lacosamide c. pregabalin
38
which medication has an AE of heart block? a. lamotrigine b. lacosamide c. pregabalin d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin e. fenfluramine
b. lacosamide
39
which medication has an AE of valvular heart disease? a. lamotrigine b. lacosamide c. pregabalin d. phenytoin/fosphenytoin e. fenfluramine
e. fenfluramine
40
which drug(s) are assoc with hyponatremia and SIADH? a. carbamazepine b. zonisamide c. phenytoin d. topiramate
a. carbamazepine (also eslicarbazepine/oxcarbazepine)
41
which drug(s) alters vitamin D metab and can lead to osteoporosis? a. carbamazepine b. zonisamide c. phenytoin d. topiramate
c. phenytoin
42
which drug(s) are assoc with dec serum bicarb leading to metabolic acidosis, as well as decreased sweating, heat intolerance, oligohydrosis, and nephrolithiasis? a. carbamazepine b. zonisamide c. phenytoin d. topiramate
d. topiramate
43
psychiatric SE: psychosis, suicidal thoughts/behaviors, unusual mood changes, worsening depression (usually seen in children and adolescents) a. levetiracetam b. perampanel c. valproate d. topiramate
a. levetiracetam
44
psychiatric SE: acute mental status changes related to hyperammonemia (differentiate from sedation) a. levetiracetam b. perampanel c. valproate d. topiramate
c. valproate
45
psychiatric SE: associated with cognitive dysfunction if dose is inc too rapidly, use a slow titration a. levetiracetam b. perampanel c. valproate d. topiramate
d. topiramate
46
boxed warning for perampanel
dose-related serious/life-threatening neuropsychiatric events; use caution with pre-existing psychosis
47
post-marketing warning for topiramate
vision loss, myopia, retinal detachment
48
vigabatrin is CI in which pts?
pts who have other risk factors for irreversible vision loss
49
gabapentin/pregabalin should be evaluated before use in pts with risk for __________ _________ in pt who is taking other CNS depressants, has pulmonary disease, or is elderly
respiratory depression
50
_________ can cause thrombocytopenia, as well as PCOS, weight gain, and sedation a. carbamazepine b. oxcarbazepine c. valproate d. zonisamide e. felbamate
c. valproate
51
carbamazepine induces p-glycoprotein, as well as which 4 cyps?
1A2 2C9 2C19 3A4 (oxcarbazepine induces 3A4)
52
which is CI if there is a sulfa allergy? a. topiramate b. zonisamide c. phenobarbital d. phenytoin
b. zonisamide
53
topiramate and zonisamide clinical pearls (3 of them)
-weight loss -oligohydrosis (decreased sweating) -nephrolithiasis
54
_________ absorption is dec when given with enteral feedings, hold feedings 1-2 hours before and after administration. It can also cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism a. topiramate b. zonisamide c. phenobarbital d. phenytoin
d. phenytoin
55
which drug can cause gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism?
phenytoin
56
How is gabapentin/pregabalin eliminated? How should we adjust the dose?
renally elim; dec dose in renal impairment
57
what drug is indicated for Dravet Syndrome and Lennox Gastaut Syndrome?
Epidiolex (oral CBD)
58
multiple seizure types that develop in childhood, usually accompanied by intellectual disability, sometimes responsive to combination of some AEDs a. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome b. Dravet Syndrome
a. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
59
rare genetic epileptic encephalopathy with normal childhood development until seizures begin in 1st year of life leading to multiple seizure types and developmental disability a. Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome b. Dravet Syndrome
b. Dravet Syndrome
60
what is the fats:carbs/protein ratio in the "keto diet"?
3:1 or 4:1
61
true or false: children respond only while on the keto diet, the effects in adults may continue after the diet is discontinued
false (adults only respond while on the keto diet, effects in children may continue after diet is discontinued)
62
all antiseizure drugs carry what warning?
inc risk of suicidal thinking/behaviors
63
antidepressants carry a warning for inc risk of suicidal thinking during tx in pts < ____ years of age
< 24
64
use of _________ should be avoided in pts with uncontrolled seizure disorders, as it can inc risk of seizures and frequency
bupropion
65
what condition is a common co-morbidity for epilepsy/seizure disorders?
depression
66
which drug is indicated only for absence seizures? a. clonazepam b. carbamazepine c. lamotrigine d. ethosuximide
d. ethosuximide