Exam 4 Iggy 10th Ed. Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Chapter 20 Concepts of Care for Patients With Cancer

A

Buckle up folks, here we gooooooo!

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2
Q

An 85-year-old client tells the nurse that she does not perform breast self-exam because there is no history of breast cancer in her family. What is the nurse’s best response?

A) “Because your breasts are no longer as dense as they were when you were younger, your risk for breast cancer is now deceased.”
B) “Breast cancer can be found more frequently in families; however, the risk for general, nonfamilial breast cancer increases with age.”
C) “You are correct. Breast cancer is an inherited type of malignancy and your family history indicates low risk for you.”
D) “Examining your breasts once per year when you have your mammogram is sufficient screening for someone with your history.”

A

B) “Breast cancer can be found more frequently in families; however, the risk for general, nonfamilial breast cancer increases with age.”

The risks for all types of sporadic (noninherited, nonfamilial) cancers increase with age. An 85-year-old woman is two to three times more likely to have breast cancer than is a 30-year-old woman.

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3
Q

Which actions or behaviors represent to the nurse that a client is engaging in secondary cancer prevention practices? (Select all that apply.)
A) Eating a diet high in fiber and low in animal fat
B) Having a health checkup, including chest x-ray, annually
C) Obtaining a colonoscopy every 5 years
D) Electing to have both ovaries removed who has a BRCA2 mutation
E) Getting a mammogram or breast MRI annually
F) Having a mole removed from the neck

A

B) Having a health checkup, including chest x-ray, annually
E) Getting a mammogram or breast MRI annually

Removal of at-risk tissue or a precancerous lesion (such as a mole, colon polyp, or ovaries when a person has a specific mutation in a BRCA2 gene) represents primary cancer prevention, as does eating a diet that is high in fiber and low in animal fats. Mammograms and health check-ups represent secondary prevention in the form of possible early detection.

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4
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage cancer who needs clarification on the purpose of palliative surgery. Which outcome will the nurse teach the client is the goal of palliative surgery?

A) Prolonging the client’s survival time
B) Relief of symptoms or improved quality of life
C) Allowing other therapies to be more effective
D) Cure of the cancer

A

B) Relief of symptoms or improved quality of life

The focus and goal of palliative surgery is to help relieve symptoms of end-stage cancer and improve quality of life during the survival time.

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5
Q

Which client statement allows the nurse to recognize whether the client receiving brachytherapy for breast cancer understands the treatment?

A) “I may lose my hair during this treatment.”
B) “I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time.”
C) “I must be positioned in the same way during each treatment.”
D) “I will be placed in a semiprivate room for company.”

A

B) “I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time.”

Brachytherapy refers to short-term insertion of a radiation source. Side effects of radiation therapy are site-specific.
Because radiation therapy is site-specific; this client is unlikely to experience hair loss from treating breast cancer with radiation.

The client undergoing teletherapy (external beam radiation), not brachytherapy, must be positioned precisely in the same position each time. The client who is receiving brachytherapy must be in a private room.

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6
Q

The oncology nurse is caring for a group of clients receiving chemotherapy. The client with which sign/symptom is displaying bone marrow suppression?

A) Hemoglobin of 7.4 g/dL (74 mmol/L) and hematocrit of 21.8%
B) 5000 white blood cells/mm3 (5 × 109/L)
C) 250,000 platelets/mm3 (250 × 109/L)
D) Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) and diarrhea

A

A) Hemoglobin of 7.4 g/dL (74 mmol/L) and hematocrit of 21.8%

Bone marrow suppression causes anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia; the client with a hemoglobin of 7.4 g/dL (74 mmol/L) and hematocrit of 21.8% has anemia demonstrated by low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
The client with diarrhea and a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) has hypokalemia and electrolyte imbalance. The client with 250,000 platelets/mm3 (250 × 109/L), and the client with 5000 white blood cells/mm3 (5 × 109/L) demonstrate normal values.

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7
Q

When caring for the client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis, which intervention will be most helpful?

A) Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab
B) Maintaining NPO until the lesions have resolved
C) Encouraging oral care with commercial mouthwash
D) Administering a biological response modifier

A

A) Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab

The client with mucositis would benefit most from oral care; mouth swabs are soft and disposable and therefore clean and appropriate to provide oral care.
Biological response modifiers are used to stimulate bone marrow production of immune system cells; mucositis or sores in the mouth will not respond to these medications. Commercial mouthwashes should be avoided because they may contain alcohol or other drying agents that may further irritate the mucosa. Keeping the client NPO is not necessary because nutrition and hydration are important during cancer treatment; a local anesthetic may be prescribed.

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8
Q

A client who is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer reports problems with concentration and memory. Which nursing intervention is indicated at this time?

A) Explain that this occurs in some clients and is usually permanent.
B) Inform the client that a small glass of wine may help her relax.
C) Protect the client from infection.
D) Allow the client an opportunity to express her feelings.

A

D) Allow the client an opportunity to express her feelings.

Although no specific intervention for this side effect is known, therapeutic communication and listening may be helpful to the client.
Evidence regarding problems with concentration and memory loss with chemotherapy is not complete, but the current thinking is that this process is usually temporary. The client should be advised to avoid the use of alcohol and recreational drugs at this time because they also impair memory. Chemotherapeutic agents are implicated in central nervous system function in this scenario, not infection.

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9
Q

Which client problem does the nurse determine as the priority for the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy?

A) Potential for injury related to sensory and motor deficits
B) Altered sexual function related to erectile dysfunction
C) Potential for lack of understanding related to side effects of chemotherapy
D) Potential for ineffective coping strategies related to loss of motor control

A

A) Potential for injury related to sensory and motor deficits

The highest priority is safety. Although knowing the side effects of chemotherapy may be helpful, the priority is the client’s safety because of the lack of sensation or innervation to the extremities.
Every chemotherapy client needs to be taught related side effects of chemotherapy. The nurse should address the client’s coping only after providing for safety. Erectile dysfunction may be a manifestation of peripheral neuropathy, but the priority is still the client’s safety.

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10
Q

The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who reports anorexia. Which measure does the nurse use to best monitor for cachexia?

A) Observe for motor deficits.
B) Monitor weight.
C) Monitor platelets.
D) Trend red blood cells and hemoglobin and hematocrit.

A

B) Monitor weight.

Cachexia results in extreme body wasting, malnutrition, and severe weight loss.
Anemia and bleeding tendencies result from bone marrow suppression secondary to invasion of bone marrow by a cancer or a side effect of chemotherapy. Motor deficits result from spinal cord compression.

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11
Q

Which instruction is appropriate for the nurse to convey to the client with chemotherapy-induced neuropathy?

A) Consume a diet high in fiber.
B) Bathe in cold water.
C) Wear cotton gloves when cooking.
D) Make sure shoes are snug.

A

A) Consume a diet high in fiber.

A high-fiber diet will assist with constipation related to neuropathy.
The client should bathe in warm not cold water, not hotter than 96° F. Cotton gloves may prevent harm from scratching, but protective gloves should be worn for cooking, washing dishes, and gardening. Wearing cotton gloves while cooking can increase the risk for burns. Shoes should allow sufficient length and width to prevent blisters. Shoes that are snug can increase the risk for blisters in a client with peripheral neuropathy.

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12
Q

Which medication does the nurse plan to administer to a client before chemotherapy to decrease the incidence of nausea and vomiting?

A) Naloxone
B) Ondansetron
C) Diazepam
D) Morphine

A

B) Ondansetron

Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor blocker that blocks serotonin to prevent nausea and vomiting. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, may also be given for nausea.
Morphine is a narcotic analgesic or opiate and may cause nausea. Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist used for opiate overdose. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is an antianxiety medication only.

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13
Q

The RN working on an oncology unit has just received report on these clients. Which client will the nurse assess first?

A) Client with lymphoma who will need administration of an antiemetic before receiving chemotherapy.
B) Client with metastatic breast cancer who is scheduled for external beam radiation in 1 hour.
C) Client with xerostomia associated with laryngeal cancer who needs oral care before breakfast.
D) Client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia who has just been admitted with an elevated temperature.

A

D) Client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia who has just been admitted with an elevated temperature.

The nurse should see the client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia first. Neutropenia poses high risk for life-threatening sepsis and septic shock, which develop and progress rapidly in immune-suppressed people.
The client with lymphoma and the client with metastatic breast cancer are not in distress and can be assessed later. The client with dry mouth (xerostomia) can be assessed later, or the nurse can delegate mouth care to unlicensed assistive personnel.

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14
Q

The nurse is teaching a client undergoing radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which potential side effects will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Select all that apply.

A) Fatigue
B) Difficulty urinating
C) Change in taste
D) Difficulty swallowing
E) Changes in hair color
F) Changes in skin of the breast
A

A) Fatigue
C) Change in taste ??????
F) Changes in skin of the breast

Radiation therapy to any site produces fatigue in most clients, and may cause clients to report changes in taste. Radiation side effects are site-specific.

Chemotherapy, which causes alopecia, may cause changes in the color or texture of hair, but this does not normally occur with radiation therapy. Difficulty urinating is not a side effect of radiation for breast cancer.

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15
Q

When caring for the client receiving chemotherapy, which signs or symptoms related to thrombocytopenia should the nurse report to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

A) Bruises
B) Fever
C) Epistaxis
D) Pallor
E) Petechiae
A

A) Bruises
C) Epistaxis
E) Petechiae

Bruising, petechiae, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) are symptoms of a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia).
Fever is a sign of infection secondary to neutropenia. Pallor is a sign of anemia.

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16
Q

When caring for a client who has had a colostomy created during treatment for colon cancer, which nursing actions help support the client in accepting changes in appearance or function? (Select all that apply.)

A) Encourage the client to participate in changing the ostomy.
B) Encourage the client and family members to express their feelings and concerns.
C) Offer to have a person who is coping with a colostomy visit with the client.
D) Explain to the client that the colostomy is only temporary.
E) Obtain a psychiatric consultation.

A

A) Encourage the client to participate in changing the ostomy.
B) Encourage the client and family members to express their feelings and concerns.
C) Offer to have a person who is coping with a colostomy visit with the client.

Encouraging the client to participate in changing the ostomy is an appropriate way for the client to become familiar with the ostomy and its care. A visit from a person who is successfully coping with an ostomy can demonstrate to the client that many aspects of life can be the same after surgery. Offering to listen to feelings and concerns is part of a therapeutic relationship and therapeutic communication.
Ostomies may be temporary for bowel rest, such as after a perforation, but are typically permanent for cancer treatment. Obtaining a psychiatric consultation may need to be done for clients with persistent depression, but would not be done immediately.

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17
Q

The nurse has received in report that a client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which intervention does the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)

A) Do not permit fresh flowers or plants in the room.
B) Do not allow the client’s 16-year-old son to visit.
C) Observe for bleeding.
D) Teach the client to omit raw fruits and vegetables from the diet.
E) Administer pegfilgrastim.
F) Assess for fever.

A

A) Do not permit fresh flowers or plants in the room.
D) Teach the client to omit raw fruits and vegetables from the diet.
E) Administer pegfilgrastim.
F) Assess for fever.

Any temperature elevation in a client with neutropenia is considered a sign of infection and should be reported immediately to the health care provider. Administration of biological response modifiers, such as filgrastim and pegfilgrastim, is indicated in neutropenia to prevent infection and sepsis. Flowers and plants may harbor organisms such as fungi or viruses and are to be avoided for the immune-suppressed client. All fruits and vegetables should be cooked well; raw fruits and vegetables may harbor organisms.
Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet levels, causes bleeding, not low neutrophils (a type of white blood cell). The client is at risk for infection, not the visitors, if they are well. However, very small children, who may get frequent colds and viral infections, may pose a risk.

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18
Q

The nurse is teaching the client about skin protection during radiation therapy. What teaching will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

A) Protect the area by wearing clothing.
B) Avoid all lotions to the area.
C) Avoid exposure to sun and heat.
D) Do not remove the ink markings on your skin.
E) Try to take walks in the early morning or later evening.
F) Do not wash the irradiated area.

A

A) Protect the area by wearing clothing.
C) Avoid exposure to sun and heat.
D) Do not remove the ink markings on your skin.
E) Try to take walks in the early morning or later evening.

The client can wash the irradiated area daily with either water or a mild soap. Ink or dye used to mark the radiation area should not be removed. The area should be protected by wearing soft clothing over the site, avoiding exposure to the sun and heat. Lotions can be used as long as they are approved by the radiation team. Walking in the early morning or late evening is a good way to avoid more intense sun.

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19
Q

Chapter 49: Concepts of Care for Patients With Oral Cavity and Esophageal Problems

A

Strong urge to brush my teeth

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20
Q

Which food does the nurse teach a client undergoing chemotherapy with secondary stomatitis to avoid?

A) Broiled fish
B) Ice cream
C) Salted pretzels
D) Scrambled eggs

A

C) Salted pretzels

Salty foods like pretzels can further irritate ulcers in the client’s mouth, causing pain.
Cool or cold foods and foods high in protein, such as fish, eggs, and ice cream, may be included in the diet of the client with stomatitis.

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21
Q

While undergoing radiation treatment for oral cancer, a client develops xerostomia. What collaborative resource does the nurse suggest for this client’s care?

A) Dentist
B) Occupational therapist
C) Speech therapist
D) Psychiatrist

A

A) Dentist

Xerostomia is the subjective feeling of oral dryness. It is a long-term effect of radiation therapy and requires ongoing oral care such as the use of saliva substitutes and follow-up dental visits.
Occupational therapists, psychiatrists, and speech therapists are not the appropriate resource for a client with xerostomia.

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22
Q

A client who has undergone surgery and completed radiation therapy to treat oral cancer reports persistent dry mouth. What will the nurse teach this client about managing this symptom?

A) This condition is common but is temporary.
B) Use saliva substitutes, especially when eating dry foods.
C) This indicates a complication of therapy.
D) Use lozenges and hard candies to prevent dry mouth.

A

B) Use saliva substitutes, especially when eating dry foods.

Xerostomia is a common effect of oral irradiation. Clients should be advised to use saliva substitutes.
The condition is common, but often permanent. Lozenges and hard candies are not as effective as saliva substitutes. Dry mouth is a side effect of therapy, not a symptom of complications. Taking frequent sips of water is the preferred method of treating xerostomia during radiation therapy.

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23
Q

Which practice does the nurse include when teaching a client about proper oral hygiene?

A) Perform self-examination of the mouth every week, and report any unusual findings.
B) Brush the teeth daily and floss as needed.
C) Wear dentures that fit a bit loosely for movement when chewing.
D) Use mouthwash with alcohol unless lesions are present.

A

A) Perform self-examination of the mouth every week, and report any unusual findings.

The nurse will teach the client that proper oral care involves self-examination of the mouth every week and to report any unusual findings to the Health Care Provider.
Clients need to brush teeth and floss every day—not just as needed. Clients are taught to avoid contact with agents that may cause inflammation of the mouth (such as, alcohol-based mouthwashes). Dentures should fit snugly, not loosely.

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24
Q

The nurse is providing instructions to a client with a history of stomatitis. Which instructions does the nurse include in the teaching plan?

A) Encourage the client to eat acidic foods to decrease bacteria.
B) Mouth care should be performed twice daily at the maximum.
C) Rinse the mouth frequently with warm saline or sodium bicarbonate.
D) Use a medium-bristled toothbrush for oral care.

A

C) Rinse the mouth frequently with warm saline or sodium bicarbonate.

Rinsing the mouth frequently with warm saline or sodium bicarbonate or a combination of the two decreases inflammation and pain.
Acidic foods increase inflammation and should be avoided. Mouth care should be done after each meal and as often as needed, at the minimum of twice daily. If stomatitis is not controlled, mouth care may have to be done every 2 hours or more frequently. A soft toothbrush, not medium-bristled one, needs to be used for oral care.

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25
Q

When caring for a client with oral cancer who has developed stomatitis as a complication of radiation and chemotherapy, which action does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)?

A) Instruct how to use nystatin oral rinses.
B) Assist with making appropriate dietary choices that do not irritate tissues.
C) Provide oral care using a soft toothbrush.
D) Inspect the oral mucosa for evidence of oral candidiasis.

A

C) Provide oral care using a soft toothbrush.

Providing oral care using a soft toothbrush for a client with oral lesions is an appropriate assignment for an AP.
Assessments, client teaching, and assisting clients with oral problems in making appropriate dietary choices are the responsibilities of licensed nursing staff.

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26
Q

The nurse is assessing a client who reports having a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which assessment finding does the nurse report to the primary health care provider?

A) “My family likes to eat small meals every 3 to 4 hours throughout the day.”
B) “When I buy meat, I ask for the leanest cut that is available.”
C) “I quit smoking 6 months ago.”
D) “Sometimes I wake up gasping for air in the middle of the night.”

A

D) “Sometimes I wake up gasping for air in the middle of the night.”

Gasping for air upon waking in the middle of the night can be a sign of sleep apnea; the nurse must report this finding to the primary health care provider. Often patients who have one condition (sleep apnea or GERD) also experience the other.
Quitting smoking 6 months ago, eating small meals, and eating lean meats are favorable findings that do not need to be reported.

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27
Q

A client reports ongoing episodes of “heartburn.” Which food will the nurse recommend that the client eliminate from the diet?

A) Steak
B) Carrots
C) Chocolate
D) Popcorn

A

C) Chocolate

Foods that decrease esophageal sphincter pressure, such as fatty foods, caffeine, and chocolate, should be avoided.
Steak, carrots, and popcorn do not decrease esophageal sphincter pressure.

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28
Q
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with aphthous ulcers. Which food will the nurse recommend that the client avoid? (Select all that apply.)
A) Apples
B) Pasta
C) Baked Potato
D) Nuts
E) Cheese
A

B) Pasta
C) Baked Potato
D) Nuts
E) Cheese

Aphthous ulcers (canker sores) are small, shallow lesions that develop on the soft tissues in the mouth or at the base of the gums. The nurse tells the client that certain foods such as cheese, nuts, potatoes, and foods containing gluten (like pasta) may trigger allergic responses that cause aphthous ulcers and should be avoided.
Apples and bananas are not acidic and do not trigger allergic responses that cause aphthous ulcers.
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29
Q

Chapter 50 Concepts of Care for of Patients With Stomach Disorders

A

Give me some some, some this of this for my tum. WORK IT. I need a glass of wataaa.

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30
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who has a gastric ulcer. For which potentially life-threatening complication would the nurse monitor for this client?

Hypokalemia

Hemorrhage

Nausea and vomiting

Infection

A

B) Hemorrhage

Clients who have gastric ulcers are particularly at risk for upper GI bleeding, or hemorrhage. They may also experience nausea and vomiting causing dehydration. However, hemorrhage is most serious.

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31
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been vomiting profusely at home before coming to the emergency department. For which acid–base imbalance will the nurse expect for this client?

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis

Metabolic alkalosis

Metabolic acidosis

A

C) Metabolic alkalosis

Gastric contents are rich in acid (hydrogen and chloride ions). When this fluid is lost through vomiting, the client has less acid causing an alkalotic state.

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32
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been vomiting profusely at home before coming to the emergency department. For which vital sign change will the nurse expect for this client?

Hypotension

Tachypnea

Oxygen desaturation

Bradycardia

A

A) Hypotension

The client who is vomiting profusely is losing fluids from the body causing dehydration. A client who is dehydrated has hypovolemia resulting in hypotension and tachycardia.

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33
Q

A client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) asks the nurse whether licorice and slippery elm might be useful in managing the disease. What is the nurse’s best response?

“No, they probably won’t be useful. You should use only prescription medications in your treatment plan.”

“These herbs could be helpful. However, you should talk with your primary health care provider before adding them to your treatment regimen.”

“No, herbs are not useful for managing this disease. You can use any type of over-the-counter drugs though. They have been shown to be safe.”

“Yes, these are known to be effective in managing this disease but make sure you research the herbs thoroughly before taking them.”

A

B) “These herbs could be helpful. However, you should talk with your primary health care provider before adding them to your treatment regimen.”

The nurse’s best response is that although licorice and slippery elm may be helpful in managing PUD, the client must consult his or her primary health care provider before making a change in the treatment regimen.
Alternative therapies may or may not be helpful in managing PUD. The client should not use over-the-counter medications without first discussing it with his or her primary health care provider.

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34
Q

The nurse is teaching a client how to prevent recurrent chronic gastritis symptoms before discharge. Which statement by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of the nurse’s instruction?

“I will need to take vitamin B12 shots for the rest of my life.”

“I should eat small meals about six times a day.”

“It is okay to continue to drink coffee in the morning when I get to work.”

“I should avoid alcohol and tobacco of any type.”

A

D) “I should avoid alcohol and tobacco of any type.”

The client’s statement that he or she needs to avoid alcohol and tobacco shows that the client correctly understands the nurse’s instructions.
The client also needs to eliminate caffeine from the diet. The client will need to take vitamin B12 shots only if he or she has pernicious anemia. The client would also not eat six small meals daily. This practice may actually stimulate gastric acid secretion.

35
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a perforated duodenal ulcer. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?

Positive McBurney point

Rigid, board-like and tender abdomen

Nausea and profuse vomiting

Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants

A

B) Rigid, board-like and tender abdomen

Perforation allows intestinal contents to escape into the peritoneal cavity causing peritonitis. The classic assessment finding for a client who has peritonitis is a rigid, board-like abdomen that is tender or painful.

36
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who reports stomach pain and heartburn. Which assessment finding is most significant suggesting the client’s ulcer is duodenal and not gastric?

Pain occurs 1½ to 3 hours after a meal, usually at night.

The client is a man older than 50 years.

Pain is worsened by the ingestion of food.

The client has a malnourished appearance.

A

A) Pain occurs 1½ to 3 hours after a meal, usually at night.

A key symptom of duodenal ulcers is that pain usually awakens the client between 1:00 a.m. and 2:00 a.m. (0100 and 0200) and occurs 1½ to 3 hours after a meal.
Pain that is worsened with ingestion of food and a malnourished appearance are key features of gastric ulcers. A male over 50 years is a finding that could apply to either type of ulcer.

37
Q

The nurse is recovering a client who had an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). What assessment would the nurse perform before determining if the client can have fluids to drink?

Bowel sounds

Orientation

Presence of bruit

Gag reflex

A

D) Gag reflex

The nurse would check for the return of the client’s gag reflex before allowing the client to drink or eat to prevent aspiration.

38
Q

The nurse is planning health teaching about omeprazole for a client who has acute gastritis. What would the nurse include in the health teaching?

Crushing the drug and mixing in applesauce

Avoiding alcohol while taking this drug

Taking the drug 30 minutes before a meal

Taking the drug when the client has gastric pain

A

C) Taking the drug 30 minutes before a meal

This drug is a proton pump inhibitor and is activated by the presence of food in the stomach. Therefore, it should be taken before a meal.

39
Q

The nurse finds a client vomiting coffee-ground emesis. On assessment, the client has a blood pressure of 100/74 mm Hg, is acutely confused, and has a weak and thready pulse. Which intervention is the nurse’s first priority?

Administer antianxiety medication.

Initiate enteral nutrition.

Start intravenous (IV) fluids,

Administer histamine (H2) antagonist.

A

C) Start intravenous (IV) fluids,

The nurse’s first priority is to administer intravenous (IV) fluids. Administering IV fluids is necessary to treat the hypovolemia caused by acute gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding.

40
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with Helicobacter. pylori infection. Which drugs does the nurse and anticipate would be used for this client to manage the infection? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply.

A)Metronidazole
B) Lansoprazole
C) Azithromycin
D) Tetracycline
E) Hydroxychloroquine
A

A)Metronidazole
B) Lansoprazole
D) Tetracycline

Most clients who have this type of infection are prescribed to take a proton pump inhibitor, such as lansoprazole, and two antimicrobial drugs, such as metronidazole and tetracycline. Clarithromycin and amoxicillin may be used as alternative antibiotics.

41
Q

Chapter 51: Concepts of Care for Patients With Noninflammatory Intestinal Disorders

A

Everybody say it with me: POOP!

42
Q

A client has a nasogastric tube (NGT) connected to low continuous suction. What is the nurse’s priority to ensure client safety?

A) Assess for peristalsis at least once every 8 to 12 hours.
B) Assess placement of the NGT for placement every 4 hours.
C) Measure the gastric drainage every 8 to12 hours and document.
D) Monitor the nasal skin and membranes around the tube for irritation.

A

B) Assess placement of the NGT for placement every 4 hours.

Assessing the NGT for placement every 4 hours can help prevent aspiration which could lead to pneumonia. The other actions are appropriate for some clients, checking tube placement is the priority for care.

43
Q

A client who has colorectal cancer is scheduled for a colostomy. Which referral is initially the most important for this client?

A) Home health nursing agency
B) Social worker
C) Certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse (CWOCN)
D) Hospital chaplain

A

C) Certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse (CWOCN)

A CWOCN (or an enterostomal therapist) will be of greatest value to the client with colorectal cancer because the client is scheduled to receive a colostomy.
The client is newly diagnosed, so it is not yet known whether home health nursing will be needed. A referral to hospice may be helpful for a terminally ill client. Referral to a chaplain may be helpful later in the process of adjusting to the disease.
44
Q

The home health nurse is teaching a client about the care of a new colostomy. Which statement by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of the health teaching?
A) “If the skin around the stoma is red or scratched, it will heal soon.”
B) “I need to strive for a very tight fit when applying the barrier around the stoma.”
C) “A dark or purplish-looking stoma is normal and would not concern me.”
D) “I need to check for leakage underneath my colostomy.”

A

D) “I need to check for leakage underneath my colostomy.”

The client’s statement, “I need to check for leakage underneath my colostomy” shows that the patient correctly understands the instructions about how to care for a new colostomy. The pouch system must be checked frequently for evidence of leakage to prevent excoriation.
A purplish stoma is indicative of ischemia and necrosis. Redness or scratched skin around the stoma must be reported to prevent it from beginning to break down. An overly tight fit may lead to necrosis of the stoma.

45
Q

A male client’s sister was recently diagnosed with colorectal cancer (CRC), and his brother died of CRC 5 years ago. The client asks whether he will inherit the disease. How would the nurse respond?
A) “Have you asked your primary health care provider about your chances ?”
B) “It is hard to know what can predispose a person to develop a certain disease.”
C) “The only way to know whether you are predisposed to CRC is by genetic testing.”
D) “No. Just because they both had CRC doesn’t mean that you will have it, too.”

A

C) “The only way to know whether you are predisposed to CRC is by genetic testing.”

The nurse’s best response to the client who asks if he will inherit CRC is “the only way to know whether you are predisposed to CRC is by genetic testing.” Genetic testing is the only definitive way to determine whether the patient has a predisposition to develop CRC.

46
Q

The Certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse (CWOCN) is teaching a client with colorectal cancer how to care for a newly created colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the necessary self-management skills?

A) “If I have any leakage, I’ll put a towel over it.”
B) “I can put aspirin tablets in the pouch in order to reduce odor”
C) “I will apply a nonalcoholic skin sealant and let it dry before applying the bag.”
D) “I will have my spouse change the bag for me.”

A

C) “I will apply a nonalcoholic skin sealant and let it dry before applying the bag.”

The nurse would teach the client and family to apply a skin sealant (preferably without alcohol) and allow it to dry before application of the appliance (colostomy bag) to facilitate less painful removal of the tape or adhesive. It is not realistic that the spouse will always change the patient’s bag and does not reflect correct understanding of self-management skills. A towel is not an acceptable or effective way to cope with leakage. Putting an aspirin in the pouch will not reduce odor and can lead to ulcers in the stoma.
offers reassurance and is a “pat” statement, making it nontherapeutic. “Why” questions place patients on the defense and are not therapeutic because they close the conversation.

47
Q

A client with a family history of colorectal cancer (CRC) regularly sees a primary health care provider for early detection of any signs of cancer. Which laboratory result may be an indication of CRC in this client?

A) Decrease in liver function test results
B) Elevated carcinoembryonic antigen
C) Negative test for occult blood
D) Elevated hemoglobin levels

A

B) Elevated carcinoembryonic antigen

Carcinoembryonic antigen may be elevated in many patients diagnosed with CRC. Liver involvement may or may not occur in CRC. Hemoglobin will likely be decreased with CRC, not increased. An occult blood test is not reliable to affirm or rule out CRC.

48
Q

The nurse is providing teaching on ways to promote bowel health and disease prevention. Which statement will the nurse include in this teaching?

A) “You should start colorectal cancer screening when you are over 70 years of age.”
B) “You only need to have regular colonoscopies if there is colorectal cancer in your family.’
C) “If you perform fecal occult blood tests every 5 years, you don’t need a colonoscopy.”
D) “You should have a colonoscopy every 10 years starting at 45 years of age.”

A

D) “You should have a colonoscopy every 10 years starting at 45 years of age.”

The American Cancer Society recommends that for individuals of average risk for colorectal cancer (CRC), a colonoscopy every 10 years or flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years is adequate. The screening should begin for adults of 45 years of age or older unless individuals are at high risk for CRC.

49
Q

A client with an intestinal obstruction has pain that changes from a “colicky” intermittent type to constant discomfort. After a complete assessment, what action would the nurse plan implement at this time?

A) Change the nasogastric suction level from “intermittent” to “continuous.”
B) Administer medication for pain based on the client’s pain level.
C) Position the client in a semi- or high-Fowler position.
D) Prepare the client for emergency surgery in collaboration with the health team.

A

D) Prepare the client for emergency surgery in collaboration with the health team.

The appropriate nursing action for a client with intestinal obstruction whose pain changes from “colicky” intermittent type to constant discomfort is to prepare surgery because this change is most likely indicative of perforation or peritonitis and will require immediate surgical intervention.
Pain medication may mask the client’s symptoms but will not address the root cause. A change in the nasogastric suction rate will not resolve the cause of the client’s pain and could be particularly ineffective if a nonvented tube is in use.

50
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who had an anterior-posterior surgical resection for colorectal cancer this morning. What will the nurse anticipate as the client’s priority problem at this time?

A) Intestinal obstruction
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Severe pain
D) Constipation

A

C) Severe pain

The surgical incisions are in the perineal area and are very painful due to the number of nerves in that region of the body. Pain control is the biggest challenge for the nurse and health care team to promote client comfort.

51
Q

The nurse is teaching a client with a newly created colostomy about foods to limit or avoid because of flatulence or odors. Which foods should be avoided? (Select all that apply.)

A) Mushrooms
B) Peas
C) Onions
D) Broccoli
E) Buttermilk
F) Yogurt
A

A) Mushrooms
B) Peas
C) Onions
D) Broccoli

Foods the patient with a newly created colostomy needs to limit or avoid because of flatulence or odors include: broccoli, mushrooms, onions, and peas. Buttermilk will help prevent odors. Yogurt can help prevent flatus.

52
Q

Chapter 52: Concepts of Care for Patients With Inflammatory Intestinal Disorders

A

Come on baby light my… FIRAAAHHHHH

53
Q

A client is admitted to the hospital with right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. What assessment would the nurse monitor to identify a potentially life-threatening complication based on the client’s condition?

A) Intake and output
B) Electrolyte values
C) Abdominal assessment
D) Vital signs

A

D) Vital signs

The client most likely has appendicitis which can result in perforation of the appendix and peritonitis. If this complication occurs, the client would develop tachycardia and a fever. Therefore, the nurse would monitor for changes in vital signs.

54
Q

The nurse is assessing an older client who has had frequent vomiting and diarrhea for the last 24 hours. Which vital sign change would be of most concern to the nurse?

A) Increased oxygen saturation
B) Decreased blood pressure
C) Increased temperature
D) Decreased pulse rate

A

B) Decreased blood pressure

Older clients are most at risk for dehydration from loss of fluids. Older clients who have dehydration usually have an increased pulse and decreased blood pressure (BP). When BP decreases, the client is at risk for orthostatic hypotension which can cause dizziness and subsequent falls. The client may also experience an elevated temperature, but this change is less common in older adults when compared to their younger counterparts.

55
Q

The nurse is preparing to provide health teaching for a client who is starting sulfasalazine. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A) “I’ll let my primary health care provider know if the drug upsets my stomach.”
B) “I will be sure to take a folic acid supplement while on this drug.”
C) “I will follow up with getting labs done to check my blood counts.”
D) “This drug can make me dehydrated because I’m already on a diuretic.”

A

D) “This drug can make me dehydrated because I’m already on a diuretic.”

Sulfasalazine can cause nausea and vomiting, and can interfere with folic acid absorption. In high doses, it can also cause anemia and agranulocytosis, so blood work would be important for ongoing monitoring. However, the drug does not cause dehydration.

56
Q

The nurse is teaching a client about caring for a new ileostomy. What information is most important to include?

A) “After surgery, output from your ileostomy may be a loose, dark-green liquid with some blood present.”
B) “Remember that you must wear a pouch system at all times.”
C) “Notify the primary health care provider if output from your stoma has a sweetish odor.”
D) “Call your primary health care provider if your stoma has a bluish or pale look.”

A

D) “Call your primary health care provider if your stoma has a bluish or pale look.”

It is most important for the nurse to tell the client with a new ileostomy to call the primary health care provider if the stoma has a bluish or pale look. If the stoma has a bluish, pale, or dark look, its blood supply may be compromised and the primary health care provider must be notified immediately.

57
Q

A male client with a long history of ulcerative colitis experienced massive bleeding and had emergency surgery for creation of an ileostomy. He is very concerned that sexual intercourse with his wife will be impossible because of his new ileostomy pouch. How would the nurse respond?

A) “A change in position may be what is needed for you to have intercourse with your wife.”
B) “You must get clearance from your primary health care provider before you attempt to have intercourse.”
C) “What has your wife said about your pouch system?”
D) “Have you considered going to see a marriage counselor with your wife?”

A

A) “A change in position may be what is needed for you to have intercourse with your wife.”

The nurse tells the client who had an emergency ileostomy that a simple change in positioning during intercourse may alleviate apprehension and facilitate sexual relations with his wife. Suggesting marriage counseling may address the client’s concerns, but it focuses on the wrong issue. The client has not stated that he has relationship problems. Asking the client what his wife has said about the pouch may address some of the client’s concerns, but it similarly focuses on the wrong issue.

58
Q

The nurse is reinforcing teaching provided by the registered dietitian nutritionist about dietary restrictions needed for a client who has a new ileostomy. Although each client can tolerate different foods, what food would the nurse suggest that the client avoid?

A) Potatoes
B) Corn
C) Bread
D) Green beans

A

B) Corn

The client should avoid gas-forming foods like cabbage and foods that contain indigestible fiber such as nuts and corn.

59
Q

A client developed gastroenteritis while traveling outside the country. What is the most likely cause of the client’s symptoms?

A) Overcooked food
B) Ingestion of parasites in the water
C) Insufficient vaccinations
D) Bacteria on the patient’s hands

A

B) Ingestion of parasites in the water

The likely cause of gastroenteritis when a client travels outside the country is ingestion of water that is infested with parasites. Bacteria on the client’s hands will not produce gastroenteritis unless food or water is contaminated with the bacteria. Insufficient vaccinations may cause other disease processes, but not gastroenteritis. Undercooked, not overcooked, food may produce gastroenteritis.

60
Q

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a long-term diagnosis of ulcerative colitis (UC). For what potentially life-threatening complication would the nurse monitor?

A) Chronic kidney disease
B) Lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Hyperkalemia

A

B) Lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding

The client who has UC is at most risk for lower GI bleeding due to inflammation and diarrhea. The client with UC is also at risk for hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis as a result of losing intestinal contents through diarrhea.

61
Q

The nurse is teaching a client with Crohn disease about managing the disease with the adalimumab Which instruction does the nurse emphasize to the client?

A) “Do not take the medication if you are allergic to foods with fatty acids.”
B) “Avoid large crowds and anyone who is sick.”
C) “Monitor your blood pressure and report any significant decrease in it.”
D) “Expect difficulty with wound healing while you are taking this drug.”

A

B) “Avoid large crowds and anyone who is sick.”

The nurse emphasizes that the client taking adalimumab for Crohn disease needs to avoid being around large crowds to prevent developing an infection. Adalimumab (Humira), a biological response modifier (BRM), also known as a monoclonal antibody drug, has been approved for use in Crohn disease when other drugs have been ineffective. BRMs are approved for refractory (not responsive to other therapies) cases. These drugs cause immunosuppression and should be used with caution. Clients must be taught to report any signs of a beginning infection, including a cold, and to also avoid others who are sick.
The client would not take the medication if he or she is allergic to certain proteins. Although immune suppression may occur to some degree, the client would not experience difficulty with wound healing while taking adalimumab. Also, the client would not experience a decrease in blood pressure from taking this drug.

62
Q

The nurse is teaching a client about dietary methods to help manage exacerbations (flare-ups) of diverticulitis. What does the nurse advise the client?

A) “Maintain a high-fiber diet to prevent the development of hemorrhoids that frequently accompany this condition.”
B) “Consume a low-fiber diet while your diverticulitis is active. When inflammation resolves, consume a high-fiber diet.”
C) “Make sure you consume a high-fiber diet while diverticulitis is active. When inflammation resolves, consume a low-fiber diet.”
D) “Be sure to maintain an exclusively low-fiber diet to prevent pain on defecation.”

A

B) “Consume a low-fiber diet while your diverticulitis is active. When inflammation resolves, consume a high-fiber diet.”

The nurse teaches the client that the most effective way to manage diverticulitis is to consume a low-fiber diet while inflammation is present, followed by a high-fiber diet once the inflammation has subsided.
Neither an exclusively low-fiber diet nor an exclusively high-fiber diet will effectively manage diverticulitis. A high-fiber diet while diverticulitis is active will only worsen the disease and its symptoms.

63
Q

A client who developed viral gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea is scheduled to be seen in the clinic the following day. What intervention would the nurse recommend for the client to do?

A) “Avoid all solid foods to allow complete bowel rest.”
B) “Take an over-the-counter antidiarrheal medication.”
C) “Contact your primary health care provider for an antibiotic medication.”
D) “Consume extra fluids to replace fluid losses.”

A

D) “Consume extra fluids to replace fluid losses.”

The nurse tells the client to drink extra fluids to replace fluid lost through vomiting and diarrhea.
It is not necessary to stop all solid food intake. Antidiarrheal medications are used if diarrhea is severe. Antibiotics are used if the infection is bacterial.

64
Q

A client returns to the unit after having an exploratory abdominal laparotomy. How does the nurse position this client after being situated in bed?

A) Semi-Fowler
B) Lateral Sims’ (side-lying)
C) High Fowler
D) Supine

A

A) Semi-Fowler

The nurse places the postoperative abdominal laparotomy client in the semi-Fowler position in bed. The client is maintained in this position to facilitate the drainage of peritoneal contents into the lower region of the abdominal cavity after an abdominal laparotomy. This position also helps increase lung expansion.
High-Fowler position would be too high for the client postoperatively. It would place strain on the abdominal incision(s), and, if the client was still drowsy from anesthesia, this position would not enhance the client’s ability to rest. Sims’ position does not promote drainage to the lower abdomen. The supine position does not facilitate drainage to the abdomen or increased lung expansion. The client would be more likely to develop complications (wound drainage stasis and atelectasis) in the supine position.

65
Q

A client has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC). What does the nurse teach the client about diet and lifestyle choices?

A) “Raw vegetables and high-fiber foods may help to diminish your symptoms.”
B) “Lactose-containing foods should be reduced or eliminated from your diet.”
C) “Drinking carbonated beverages will help with your abdominal distress.”
D) “It’s OK to smoke cigarettes, but you should limit them to ½ pack per day.”

A

B) “Lactose-containing foods should be reduced or eliminated from your diet.”

The nurse teaches the newly diagnosed client with ulcerative colitis that lactose-containing foods are often poorly tolerated and need to be reduced or eliminated from the diet.
Carbonated beverages are GI stimulants that can cause discomfort and must be used rarely or completely eliminated from the diet. Cigarette smoking is a stimulant that can cause GI distress symptoms. Nurses would never advise patients that any amount of cigarette smoking is “OK.” Raw vegetables and high-fiber foods can cause GI symptoms in patients with UC.

66
Q

The nurse is instructing a client with recently diagnosed diverticular disease about diet. What food does the nurse suggest the client include?

A) A slice of 5-grain bread
B) Strawberries (1 cup [160 g])
C) Tomato (1 medium)
D) Chuck steak patty (6 ounces [170 g])

A

A) A slice of 5-grain bread

The nurse suggests to the client with recently diagnosed diverticular disease to include a slice of 5-grain bread in the diet. Whole-grain breads are recommended to be included in the diet of clients with diverticular disease because cellulose and hemicellulose types of fiber are found in them. Dietary fat would be reduced in clients with diverticular disease.
If the client wants to eat beef, it must be of a leaner cut. Foods containing seeds, such as strawberries, must be avoided. Tomatoes would also be avoided unless the seeds are removed. The seeds may block diverticula in the patient and present problems leading to diverticulitis.

67
Q

An older client with a 2-day history of myalgia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Which primary health care provider request does the nurse implement first?

A) Obtain a stool specimen for culture and sensitivity.
B) Start an IV solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45 normal saline.
C) Draw blood for a complete blood count and serum electrolytes.
D) Administer acetaminophen 650 mg rectally.

A

B) Start an IV solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45 normal saline.

The request the nurse implements first is to start an IV solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45 normal saline at 125 mL/hr. Although the dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride is hypertonic in the IV bag, once it is infused, the glucose is rapidly metabolized and the fluid is really hypotonic. Fluid therapy is the focus of treatment for clients with gastroenteritis. Older clients are at increased risk for the complications of dehydration such as hypovolemia and acute kidney failure.
Acetaminophen 650 mg should be administered rectally soon, and blood draws and stool specimen collection would also be implemented soon, but prevention and treatment of dehydration are the priorities for this client.

68
Q

A client with ulcerative colitis (UC) is prescribed sulfasalazine and corticosteroid therapy. As the disease improves, what change does the nurse expect in the client’s medication regimen?

A) Corticosteroid therapy will be tapered.
B) Corticosteroid therapy will be stopped.
C) Sulfasalazine will be stopped.
D) Sulfasalazine will be tapered.

A

A) Corticosteroid therapy will be tapered.

The nurse expects that corticosteroid therapy will be tapered as the UC improves in the client who was taking both sulfasalazine and corticosteroids. Once clinical improvement has been established, corticosteroids are tapered over a 2- to 3-month period.
Stopping corticosteroid therapy abruptly is unsafe—steroids must be gradually decreased in patients. Usually the amount that they have been taking dictates how quickly or slowly they can be stopped. Sulfasalazine therapy will be taken on a long-term basis. It may be increased or decreased, depending on the patient’s symptoms, but will likely never be stopped. These decisions are made over a long period of therapy.

69
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer natalizumab for a client who has Crohn disease (CD). What is the most important client assessment for the nurse to perform before giving this drug?

A) Skin integrity
B) Body temperature
C) Peripheral pulses
D) Breath sounds

A

B) Body temperature

Because this drug may cause a deadly infection that affects the brain (progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy [PML]), the nurse would want to ensure that the client does not have any type of infection. Assessing body temperature is one way to determine the presence of infection.

70
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who has an enterocutaneous fistula. For what complications will the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Skin breakdown
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Malnutrition
D) Hypernatremia
E) Dehydration
F) Bowel obstruction
A

A) Skin breakdown
C) Malnutrition
E) Dehydration

The client has an abnormal tunneling between the small intestines and the skin causing spillage of the GI contents onto the skin. Enzymes in the intestines can break down skin and underlying tissues. The intestinal contents are also rich in fluids and electrolytes, especially potassium, such that the client would likely develop hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Loss of fluids could lead to dehydration if the client is not carefully monitored and managed.

71
Q

The nurse is teaching a family how to prevent the client’s transmission of gastroenteritis at home. Which instructions will the nurse include in the health teaching? (Select all that apply.)

A) “Clean and disinfect all bathrooms often to avoid stool exposure.”
B) “Everyone in the home should wash their hands for at least 30 seconds with an antibacterial soap using friction.”
C) “Contact the primary health care provider if GI symptoms last more than 3 days.”
D) “Wear a mask at home to prevent transmission of the disease.”
E) “Do not share dishes, glasses, and silverware among members of the family.”

A

A) “Clean and disinfect all bathrooms often to avoid stool exposure.”
B) “Everyone in the home should wash their hands for at least 30 seconds with an antibacterial soap using friction.”
C) “Contact the primary health care provider if GI symptoms last more than 3 days.”
E) “Do not share dishes, glasses, and silverware among members of the family.”

All of these interventions are important to prevent the spread of gastroenteritis except there is no need to wear a mask because the disease is spread via the fecal-oral route rather than by droplets.

72
Q

Chapter 65 - Concepts of Care for Patients With Breast Disorders

A

Ain’t no boob about it, last chapter! WOOOO!

73
Q

A client who has been diagnosed with breast cancer tells the nurse she wishes to use only natural and complementary interventions. What teaching will the nurse provide?

A) This type of therapy would not replace standard treatment.
B) If chemotherapy has been recommended, complementary therapies are contraindicated.
C) Complementary therapies can only be used after surgery.
D) There are many natural herbs that have been shown to treat cancer.

A

A) This type of therapy would not replace standard treatment.

The nurse would explain that complementary and integrative therapies cannot replace standard treatment for breast cancer. Complementary and integrative health options include prayer, herbal therapy, cancer diets, guided imagery, acupuncture, and others. Encourage clients to seek evidence-based information and to notify their health care provider if they choose to use any of these methods.
Complementary therapies are not contraindicated when chemotherapy is recommended, but it is important to ensure that the client’s choices can be safely integrated with conventional treatment for breast cancer. To date, no herbal treatments have been shown to treat cancer. If approved by the primary health care provider, complementary and integrative therapies can be used before surgery, as well as after surgery.

74
Q

A client tells the nurse in the gynecology clinic that she doesn’t get a yearly mammogram because she is afraid of what might be found. Which teaching will the nurse provide?

A) People with low breast cancer risk can obtain an MRI instead.
B) Detection of breast cancer before or after axillary node invasion yields the same outcome.
C) Mammography is needed only if the client has a first-degree relative with breast cancer.
D) Early detection is important, as localized breast cancer has a 99% 5-year survival rate

A

D) Early detection is important, as localized breast cancer has a 99% 5-year survival rate

The purpose of screening is early detection of breast cancer before it spreads. Early detection is the key to effective treatment and survival. The nurse will teach that the 5-year survival rate for localized breast cancer is 99%, so early detection is critical.
MRI is used for screening high-risk women and better examination of suspicious areas found by a mammogram. Recommending the client to an MRI does not address her fear. Detection of breast cancer before axillary node invasion increases the chance of survival. Mammography is recommended for all women, not just those with a first-degree relative with breast cancer.

75
Q

A 48-year-old woman with the BRCA genetic mutation requests information about early detection for her daughter due to genetic risk. Which information will the nurse convey?

A) Breast self-examination (BSE) beginning at 20 years of age is the best way to detect breast cancer.
B) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) combining estrogen and progesterone may be recommended by your daughter’s primary health care provider.
C) Cancer screening for the daughter would begin at age 38.
D) The health care provider will discuss prophylactic mastectomy as the definitive option for prevention.

A

C) Cancer screening for the daughter would begin at age 38.

Women with a high family history risk for developing breast cancer need to begin cancer screening at an age that is 10 years younger than the age at which the affected cancer client was initially diagnosed. For the daughter of a 48-year-old woman, her screening should begin at 38 years old.
BSE is an option for everyone, not just those at high genetic risk for breast cancer. However, it is not the best way to detect breast cancer. Use of HRT containing both estrogen and progestin increases risk, but risk diminishes after 5 years of discontinuation. Although prophylactic mastectomy may be discussed with the daughter, it is not a definitive option. That is left to the client’s choice.

76
Q

The nurse is instructing a client with breast cancer who will be undergoing chemotherapy about the side effects of doxorubicin. Which teaching will the nurse provide?

A) Report any symptoms of fatigue, cough, or edema to the oncologist.
B) There are very few side effects associated with this agent.
C) Doxorubicin is a type of selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).
D) If side effects arise, they begin within 2 days of chemotherapy administration.

A

D) If side effects arise, they begin within 2 days of chemotherapy administration.

Doxorubicin has cardiotoxic effects; clients must be instructed to be aware of and to report edema, shortness of breath, chronic cough, and excessive fatigue right away.
There are indeed side effect associated with doxorubicin. The side effects of fatigue, cough, and edema can manifest even up to 2 years posttreatment. Doxorubicin is not a SERM; it is a topoisomerase inhibitor antineoplastic agent.

77
Q

A client who has undergone breast surgery is struggling her sexuality. How will the nurse address the client’s concerns?

A) Remind the client the she needs to avoid sexual intercourse at this time.
B) Ask the client if she is using her surgery as an excuse not to avoid intercourse.
C) Give the client a business card for a local counselor.
D) Ask the client about satisfaction with sexual relations with her partner.

A

D) Ask the client about satisfaction with sexual relations with her partner.

The appropriate way the nurse will address the client’s concerns about sexuality after undergoing breast surgery is to ask the client about her satisfaction with sexual relations with her partner.
It is inappropriate to insinuate or ask if the client is using surgery as an excuse. Reminding the client that she needs to avoid intercourse for a period of time after surgery is accurate information, yet this does not address her concern. Giving the client a business card for a local counselor may be a later intervention; at this time, it does not address the client’s concern.

78
Q

A client is struggling with body image after breast cancer surgery. Which behavior indicates to the nurse that the client’s coping is maladaptive?

A) Requesting a temporary prosthesis
B) Avoiding eye contact with staff
C) Saying, “I feel like less of a woman”
D) Saying, “This is the ugliest scar ever”

A

B) Avoiding eye contact with staff

Avoiding eye contact may be an indication of decreased self-image.
The client stating that she feels like less of a woman or that her scar is ugly illustrates an expected emotional state. By verbalizing her frustration, the client suggests a willingness to discuss and express feelings. Requesting a prosthesis can be a sign of healing and working through body image changes.

79
Q

The nurse at the gynecology clinic is examining a woman’s breasts. Which assessment finding requires immediate notification of the primary health care provider?

A) Backache and breast fungal infection
B) Ill-defined painful rubbery lump in the outer breast quadrant
C) A 1-cm freely mobile rubbery mass discovered by the client
D) Nipple discharge and dimpling

A

D) Nipple discharge and dimpling

Nipple discharge and dimpling are high-risk assessment findings for a malignant breast lesion that requires immediate notification of the primary health care provider.
On clinical examination, fibroadenomas as benign lesions are oval, freely mobile, rubbery masses usually discovered by the woman herself. Breast pain and tender lumps or areas of thickening in the breasts are typical symptoms of a fibrocystic breast condition. The lumps are rubbery, ill-defined, and commonly found in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. Many large-breasted women develop fungal infection under the breasts, especially in hot weather, because it is difficult to keep this area dry and exposed to air. Backaches from the added weight are also common. All of these findings will be documented and discussed with the health care provider; however, they do not require immediate notification.

80
Q

The nurse is discussing treatment options with a client newly diagnosed with breast cancer. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

A) “If I get radiation, I am not radioactive to others.”
B) “I might have chemotherapy before surgery.”
C) “Hormonal therapy is used to prevent cancer growth.”
D) “Radiation will remove the cancer, so I might not need surgery.”

A

D) “Radiation will remove the cancer, so I might not need surgery.”

Further teaching is needed when the client says that, “Radiation will remove the cancer, so I might not need surgery.” The purpose of radiation therapy is to kill breast cancer cells that may remain near the site of the original tumor. Typically, radiation therapy follows surgery. Radiation therapy plays a critical role in the therapeutic regimen and is an effective treatment for almost all sites where breast cancer can metastasize.
The purpose of hormonal therapy is to reduce the estrogen available to breast tumors to stop or prevent their growth. Chemotherapy drugs destroy breast cancer cells that may be present anywhere in the body. The client receiving radiation therapy is radioactive only if the radiation source is dwelling inside the breast tissue.

81
Q

The nurse is caring for a client undergoing mastectomy who asks the nurse about breast reconstruction. Which of these will the nurse include in the discussion?

A) Reconstruction of the nipple–areola complex is the first stage in reconstruction.
B) Prostheses are not recommended because of the nature of the surgery.
C) Reconstruction cannot take place until several months after a mastectomy.
D) Some women want breast reconstruction using their own tissue.

A

D) Some women want breast reconstruction using their own tissue.

The correct statement reflects that some women do wish to have breast construction with their own tissue.
Prostheses can be recommended if the client desires. Reconstruction of the nipple–areola complex is the last stage in breast reconstruction surgery. Breast reconstruction surgery would be discussed before mastectomy takes place.

82
Q

Which client being cared for on the medical-surgical unit is appropriate for the nurse to assign to a nurse who has floated from the intensive care unit (ICU)?

A) Recent radical mastectomy client requiring chemotherapy administration
B) Modified radical mastectomy client needing discharge teaching
C) Client with a Jackson-Pratt drain who had a mastectomy yesterday
D) Stage III breast cancer client requesting information about radiation and chemotherapy

A

C) Client with a Jackson-Pratt drain who had a mastectomy yesterday

The appropriate client to assign to a nurse who has been floated from the ICU to the medical-surgical unit is the one with a Jackson-Pratt drain who had surgery yesterday. This nurse would be most familiar with postoperative monitoring and care of surgical clients.
The other clients are better served by the nurse who regularly cares for those who have cancer, receive radiation and or chemotherapy, and/or have mastectomy.

83
Q

The community health nurse is providing education to a group of women about risks for breast cancer. Which factor will the nurse include in the education session? (Select all that apply.)

A) High breast density
B) First child at age 25
C) Male with gynecomastia
D) Nulliparity
E) Middle-age woman
A

A) High breast density
D) Nulliparity

Individuals at high increased risk for breast cancer include women with high breast density as well as nulliparous women.
Men are not at high increased risk for breast cancer, although they can develop this condition. Being middle-age and bearing the first child before age 30 does not indicate a high increased risk for breast cancer.

84
Q

The nurse is teaching a client how to perform breast self-examination (BSE). Which of these techniques does the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

A) Perform the self-examination 1 week before a menstrual period.
B) Teach to keep her arm by her side while performing the examination.
C) Remind that a clinical breast examination and mammography are still recommended.
D) Use light, medium, and then firm pressure to feel the tissue.
E) A bra can be left in place during the self-examination.

A

C) Remind that a clinical breast examination and mammography are still recommended.
D) Use light, medium, and then firm pressure to feel the tissue.

The nurse will teach the client that clinical breast examination and mammography are still recommended for detection of breast cancer, versus reliance on self-breast examination. The client will use light, medium, and then firm pressure to feel the breast tissue.
For better visualization, the arm must be placed over the head. The client needs to remove the bra for the examination. The self-examination should be done 1 week after—not before—a menstrual period.