EXAM 4 Flashcards
1
Q
Physical defenses include
A
Physical barriers
Mechanical defenses
Microbiome
2
Q
Chemical defenses include
A
Chemicals and enzymes in body fluids
Antimicrobial peptides
Plasma protein mediators
Cytokines
3
Q
Cellular defenses include
A
Granulocytes
Agranulocytes
4
Q
_____ ______ ______ provides a first line of defense against infection by nonspecifically blocking entry of microbes and targeting them for destruction or removal from the body
A
Nonspecific innate immunity
5
Q
The physical defenses of innate immunity includ
A
Physical barriers ->
-skin
-Endothelia
Mechanical actions ->
-mucociliary escalator
-flushing of bodily fluids (tears)
6
Q
Chemical mediators are found in body fluids such as
A
Saliva
Mucus
Gastric and intestinal fluids (stomach acid)
Tears
7
Q
Tears and Mucus secrete the enzyme
A
Lysozyme
8
Q
______ _____ are produced in response to the presence of pathogens
A
Antimicrobial peptides
9
Q
_____ are produced by epithelial cells or macrophages and neutrophils and may be secreted or act inside host cells and damage plasma membranes
A
defensins
10
Q
Compliment proteins include
A
Alternative
Classical
Lectin
11
Q
_______ : initiated by the spontaneous activation
A
Alternative complement protein
12
Q
_______: initiated by a specific antibody
A
Classical complement protein
13
Q
______ (an acute phase protein)
A
Lectin complement protein
14
Q
_______ are proteins that facilitate various nonspecific responses by innate immune cells
A
Cytokines
15
Q
Three important classes of cytokines are
A
Interleukins
Chemokines
Interferons
16
Q
__________ ____ and _____: produced and released by cells infected with virus
A
Interferon alpha and beta (type 1)
17
Q
______ __ : important activator of immune cells (works against bacteria)
A
Interferon - y
18
Q
Inflammation eliciting mediators
A
Histamine
Leukotrienes
Prostaglandins
Bradykinin
19
Q
Cytokines play a key role in the inflammatory response, bind to _____ ____ inducing them to release inflammation eliciting mediators.
A
mast cells
20
Q
______ are leukocytes characterized by a lobed nucleus and granules in the cytoplasm
A
Granulocytes
21
Q
______ are the leukocytes found in the largest numbers in the bloodstream and they primarily fight bacterial infections
A
Neutrophils (PMNs)
22
Q
Eosinophils and _______ are involved in allergic reactions
A
Basophils
23
Q
_______ target parasitic infections.
A
Eosinophils
24
Q
____ ____ function similarly to basophils but can be found in tissues outside the bloodstream
A
Mast cells
25
_______ lack visible granules in the cytoplasm categorized as lymphocytes or monocytes
Agranulocytes
26
Monocytes differentiate and become:
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
27
Neutrophils work best against
Bacteria
28
Recognition often takes place by the use of phagocyte receptors that bind molecules commonly found on pathogens, known as
Pathogen associated molecular patterns
PAMPs
29
The receptors that bind PAMPs are called
pattern recognition receptors or PRRs
30
_____ ____ ____ are one type of PRR found of phagocytes
Toll like receptors TLRs
31
Phagocytes degrade pathogens through _______
Phagocytosis
32
_______ involves engulfing the pathogen killing and digesting it within a ______ and then excreting undigested matter
Phagocytosis
Phagolysosome
33
What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation
Erythema
edema
heat
pain
altered function
34
Adaptive immunity is a dual system involving
- _____ _____ (antibodies produced by Bcells)
_ _____ ______ ( T cells directed against intracellular pathogens)
Humoral immunity
Cellular immunity
35
_______ also called _______ are molecules that activate adaptive immunity
antigens
immunogens
36
A single antigen possesses smaller _______ each capable of inducing a specific adaptive immune response
epitopes
37
_______ free epitopes not large enough to be antigenic unless attached to a larger carrier molecule.
Haptens
38
_______ are not known to be associated with any specific pathogens, but they are responsible for some allergic responses
Haptens
39
__________ (________) are Y shaped glycoproteins with two Fab sites for binding antigens and an Fc portion involved in complement activation and opsonization
Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
40
The five classes of antibody are
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
41
Most abundant antibody in human blood
able to cross the placental barrier
IgG
42
-Pentamer
-the first antibody produced and secreted by B cells during the primary and secondary immune responses
- great at agglutination
IgM
43
dimer
found in the mucus secretions
protect the mucous membranes (also in breast milk tears and saliva)
IgA
44
Found on the surface of B cells
IgD
45
Anti-parasitic defenses and allergic reactions
binds to basophils and masts cells
IgE
46
The pentameric structure of IgM makes it the most efficient antibody for
agglutination
47
______ ______ ______ is a collection genes coding for glycoprotein molecules expressed on the surface of all nucleated cells
Major histocompatibility complex
48
_________ molecules are expressed on all nucleated cells and are essential for presentation of normal "self" antigens
MHC 1
49
_________ molecules are expressed only on the surface of ______ (macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells)
MHC 2
Antigen presenting cells
50
Antigen presenting with _______ is essential for the activation of T cells
MHC 2
51
Immature __________ are produced in the red bone marrow and travel to the thymus for maturation
T lymphocytes
52
______ ______ is a three step process of negative and positive selection that determines which T cells will mature and exit the thymus into the peripheral blood stream
Thymic selection
53
Once activated _______ ______ target and kill cells infected with intracellular pathogens
Cytotoxic T cells
54
Killing with _________ requires recognition of specific pathogen epitopes presented on the cell surface using MHC 1 molecules
Cytotoxic T cells
55
_________ are bacterial or viral proteins that cause a nonspecific activation of helper T cells leading to an excessive release of cytokines and a systemic potentially fatal inflammatory response
Superantigens
56
Protein antigens are called _______ antigens because they can only activate B cells with the cooperation of helper T cells
T dependent antigens
57
Other molecule classes do not require T cell cooperation and are called
T independent antigens
58
Defensins are
Epithelial cells
Macrophages
Neutrophils
59
Inflammation eliciting mediators
Histamin
leukotrienes
prostaglandins
Bradykinin
60
______ _______ _______ of B cells involves cross linkage BCR's by repetitive NONPROTEIN antigen epitopes.
T-cell independent activation
61
T cell independent activation is characterized by the production of IgM by ___ ____ and does not produce memory B cells
plasma cells
62
______ ____ ___ of B cells involves processing and presentation of PROTEIN antigens to helper T cells
T cell dependent activation
63
Activation of the B cells by cytokines secreted from activated TH2 Cells and plasma cells that produce different classes of antibodies as a result of _____ _____
_____ _____ are also produced
class switching
Memory B cells
64
: natural exposure ( you get sick) and you make your own antibodies
natural active immunity
65
:natural passage of Ab by IgG before birth or by IgA in breast milk
natural passive immunity
remember PASS
65
transfer of Ab produced by a donor to another person
artificial passive immunity
66
the foundation for vaccination
artificial active immunity
67
Modern vaccination was developed by
Edward Jenner
68
Vaccination were developed by inoculating patients with infectious materials from a ____ ____ lesions to prevent ______
milkmaids cowpox
small pox
69
what are the different classes of vaccines
live attenuated vaccines
inactivated vaccines
subunit vaccines
Toxoid vaccines
conjugate vaccines
70
______ ____ vaccines are weakened strain of a pathogen
live attenuated
71
_______ vaccines contain whole pathogens that have been killed or inactivated
Inactivated
72
_____ vaccines produced either by chemically degrading a pathogen and isolated its key antigens or by producing the antigens through genetic engineering
subunit
73
_______ vaccines contain inactivated bacterial toxins
toxoid
74
______ vaccines a type of subunit vaccine that consists of a protein conjugated to a capsule polysacharide
Conjugate
75
An _____ is an adaptive immune response sometimes life threatening
allergy
76
this allergy requires sensitization of masts cells with _____ involving an initial antibody response and attachment to masts cells
Type 1 anaphylaxis hypersensitivity
77
this allergy may be localized and relatively minor (hives and hay fever) or system wide and dangerous
Type 1 anaphylaxis
78
this allergy result from antibodies (IgG and IgM) binding to cell surface antigens and initiating cytotoxic responses.
Type 2 Cytotoxic hypersensitivities
79
Examples of Type 2 cytotoxic are
Hemolytic transfusion reaction
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
80
this allergy result from formation and accumulation of antibody antigen immune complexes (usually IgG) in tissues stimulating damaging inflammatory responses
Type 3 serum sickness
81
this allergy are not mediated by antibodies but by helper T cell activation of macrophages eosinophils and cytotoxic T cells
Type 4
82
Examples of Type 4 (TH1 mediated) allergy are
contact dermatitis
latex allergy
hapten antigens from poison ivy
83
_____ ____ result from a breakdown in immunological tolerance ( the ability to recognize self)
autoimmune diseases
84
Organ specific autoimmune diseases include
Disorders of thyroid:
Graves disease
hashimoto thyroiditis
type 1 diabetes
85
_____ disease is most common because of hyperthyroidism in US. Antibody STIMULATES the thyroid
graves disease
86
______ _____ most common bc of hyperthyroidism in us
antibody ATTACKS thyroid
HASHIMOTO THYROIDITIS
87
Systemic autoimmune diseases include
multiple sclerosis
myasthenia gravis
psoriasis
rheumatoid arthritis
systemic lupus erythematosus
88
Grafts and transplants can be classified based on the genetic differences between the donors and recepients tissues
name the 4
autografts
isografts
allografts
xenografts
89
_________ disease can occur in bone marrow transplants as the mature T cells in the transplant itself recognize the recepients tissues as foreign
graft vs host disease
90
Primary immunodeficiencies are caused by
genetic abnormalities
91
Primary immunodeficiencies include
Chronic granulomatous disease
x linked agammaglobulinemia
selective IgA deficiency
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
92
________ _______ are acquired through disease diet or environmental exposures
Secondary Immunodeficiencies
93
Causes for secondary immunodeficiencies include
malnutrition
viral infection
diabetes
prolonged infections
chemical or radiation exposure
94
_______ is the whole serum collected from an animal following exposure to an antigen
antiserum
(Think snake)
95
______ _____ is the probability of getting a positive test result when a patient is indeed infected
test sensitivity
96
______ _____ provide higher specificity than polyclonal antisera because they bind to a single epitope and usually have high _______
monoclonal antibodies (mABs)
affinity
97
_Monoclonal antibodies (mABs)
______ are B cells that are fused with myeloma (immortal cancer cells)
Hybridomas
98
______ are currently being used to treat cancer but their exorbitant cost has prevented them from being used more widely to treat infectious diseases
mABs
99
Potential for laboratory and clinical use is driving the development of new cost effective solutions as ______ as opposed to mABs
plantibodies
100
laboratory tests to detect antibodies and antigens OUTSIDE of the body are called _________ assays
in vitro
101
A ____ ____ ___ can be used to visualize lattice formation in solution
precipitin ring test
102
The highest dilution with a _____ ____ is used to determine the titer of the antibodies
visible ring
103
the _____ is the reciprocal of the highest dilution showing a positive result expressed as a whole number and gives a measure of _______ activity
titer
biological
104
________ assay: viral infections can be detected by quantifying virus neutralizing antibodies in a patients serum
Neutralization
105
Different antibody classes in plasma or serum are identified by using
IEP
immunoelectrophoresis
106
Multiple myeloma (abnormal IgM) is diagnosed using
IEP
107
_____ ____ test is used to check for antibodies against pathogens that are difficult to culture
compliment fixation test
