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MICRO > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

This man was the first to develop a lens powerful enough to view microbes

A

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

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2
Q

This man was the first to demonstrate a connection between a single isolated microbe and known human disease

A

Rober Koch

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3
Q

Modern taxonomy relies heavily on

A

Comparing the nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) or proteins from different organisms

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4
Q

_____ ____ created a tree with three domains above the level of kingdom
Which included

A

Carol Woese nnnnnar

Archaea
Bacteria
Eukarya

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5
Q

The genus part of the name is always

A

capitalized

followed by the epithet name (not capitalized)

always italicized

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6
Q

Microorganisms are found in each of the three domains of life:

A

Archaea
Bacteria
Eukarya

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7
Q

Bacteria and Archaea are ______ (their cells lack a nucleus)

A

prokaryotes

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8
Q

Eukaryotes have or do not have a nucleus?

A

DO

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9
Q

Bacteria are prokaryotic because their genetic material DNA is _____ housed within a true nucleus

A

NOT

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10
Q

Common bacteria shapes include:

A

Bacillus
Coccus
Spirillum
Spirochete
Vibrio

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11
Q

______ are also unicellular prokaryotic organisms

A

Archaea

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12
Q

______ are found in nearly every habitat on earth, even extreme environments

A

Archaea

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13
Q

The domain Eukarya contains all eukaryotes, including uni- or multicellular eukaryotes such as :

A

Protists
Fungi
Plants
Animals

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14
Q

Two examples of Protists are

A

Algae and Protozoa

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15
Q

Protists such as ____ can be unicellular or multicellular

A

Algae

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16
Q

______ move with help from hair like structures called cilia and flagella and pseudopods (false feet)

A

Protozoa

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17
Q

Yeasts are multicellular or unicellular fungi?

A

Unicellular

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18
Q

Multicellular parasitic worms called

A

Helminths

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19
Q

______ are acellular microorganisms which means they are not composed of cells.
Either DNA or RNA but never ______

A

Viruses
Both

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20
Q

Refraction occurs when

A

Light waves change speed and direction as they pass from one medium to another

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21
Q

The power of a microscope can be defined in terms of its

A

Magnification and Resolution

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22
Q

A _____ microscope has a much higher resolution than a light microscope since it uses an electron beam with very short wavelength.

A

Electron

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23
Q

__________ was credited with the first observation of microbes

A

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

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24
Q

Was the first to describe cells ( looked at dead cork cells )

A

Robert Hooke

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25
Q

Uses lenses to focus light on specimen to produce and image

A

Light Microscopy

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26
Q

Produce a dark image on a bright background

A

Brightfield

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27
Q

Total magnification =

A

Ocular magnification x Objective magnification

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28
Q

____ scatters the light rays

A

Air

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29
Q

_____ can be used to fill the space between the specimen and an oil immersion lens

A

Oil

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30
Q

Oil has the refractive index very similar to _____ thus increasing the light collected and resolution of the image

A

glass

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31
Q

Shows bright objects on a dark background

A

Darkfield

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32
Q

_______ is useful for viewing live specimens without the use of stains

A

Darkfield

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33
Q

_____ use refraction and interference to create high contrast and high resolution images WO staining

A

Phase contrast

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34
Q

____ _____ ____ use interference patterns to enhance contrast between different features of a specimen using two beams of light

A

DIC
Differential Interference Contrast

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35
Q

Absorb energy from light source then emits this energy as visible light

A

Fluorescence

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36
Q

Microscopy technique that is used to identify certain disease causing microbes by observing whether antibodies bind to them.

A

Immunofluorescence

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37
Q

uses a laser to scan multiple z planes successively

A

Confocal

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38
Q

_______ microscopy focuses electrons on the specimen using magnets.
Uses short wavelength electron beams rather than light.

A

Electron

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39
Q

_____ _____ _____ requires that the beam and specimen be in a vacuum and that the specimen be very thin.

A

Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)

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40
Q

____ ____ ____ form images of surfaces of specimens

A

Scanning electron microscope (SEM)

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41
Q

____ ____ ____ produces images of even greater magnification by measuring feedback from sharp probes that interact with the specimen.

A

Scanning probe microscopy

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42
Q

Two types of microscopes that observe individual atoms on surfaces

A

Scanning tunneling microscope
Atomic force microscope

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43
Q

___ ____ ____ to properly prepare a slide for microscopy.

A

Smear
Heat fix
Stain

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44
Q

___ ____ (acid stains) absorbed by the background not by the negatively charged cell.
Produces a silhouette of the organisms against a _____ background

A

Negative stains

Colorful

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45
Q

___ ____ (basic stains) stick to the cell walls of negatively charged cells

A

Positive cells

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46
Q

Two types of staining:

A

Simple (one stain)
Differential (two stains)

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47
Q

Crystal violet, a primary stain, is applied to a heat fixed smear, giving all of the cells a ______ color

A

Purple

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48
Q

_____ _____ (a substance used to set or stabilize stains or dyes) in this case, it traps the cystal violet in the cell by making the complex clump

A

Gram’s Iodine

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49
Q

___ _____ (ethanol or an aceton solution) Cells with thick peptidoglycan layers ( Gram Positive Bacteria) are less affected and retain the crystal violet dye and remain ______.

A

Decolorizing agent

Purple

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50
Q

The decolorizing agent more easily washes the crystal violet out of cells with thinner peptidoglycan layers in gram negative bacteria leaving them _______

A

colorless

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51
Q

_____ ______ (_____) is added. This stains the decolorized cells pink and is less noticeable in the cells that still contain the crystal violet dye.

A

Secondary Counterstain (safranin)

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52
Q

The purple, crystal violet stained cells are referred to as _________ while the red safranin dyed cells are ________

A

Gram positive

Gram negative

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53
Q

________ bacteria tend to be more resistant to certain antibiotics than _______ bacteria

A

Gram negative

Gram positive

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54
Q

____ ______: a negative staining technique

A

Capsule staining

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55
Q

Acid fast staining ______ ____ is the primary stain
Waxy acid fast cells retain the carbol fuchsin even after a _____ _____ is applied.
____ ___ is then applied which renders non acid fast cells blue

A

Carbol Fuchsin

Decolorizing agent

Secondary counterstain, methylene blue

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56
Q
  1. Uses heat to push the primary stain into the endospore
  2. Washing with water decolorized the cell, but endospore retains green stain.
  3. Cell is then counterstained pink with safranin.
A

Endospore staining

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57
Q

Endospore staining techniques are important for identifying ____ and _____

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

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58
Q

_______ ______: life arose from nonliving matter

A

Spontaneous generation

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59
Q

______ _____ disproved the theory of spontaneous generation with his famous swan neck flask experiment

A

Louis Pasteur

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60
Q

____ _____ proposed that “life only comes from life”

A

Louis Pasteur

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61
Q

Cell theory (cork under a microscope)

A

Robert Hooke

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62
Q

“all cells arise from cells”

A

Rudolf Virchow

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63
Q

_________ theory states that mitochondria and chloroplast have their origins in bacteria.

A

Endosymbiotic

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64
Q

Eukaryotic organelles (mitochondria and chloroplasts) are of prokaryotic origin is the hypothesis created by

A

Lynn Margulis

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65
Q

_______ and _______ are structurally similar to bacterial ribosomes, rather than to the eukaryotic ribosomes of their hosts.

A

Mitochondrial
Chloroplasts

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66
Q

Binary fission of these two organelles strongly resemble binary fission of bacteria as compared with mitosis performed by eukaryotic cells.

A

Mitochondria
Chloroplasts

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67
Q

Germ theory of disease

A

Diseases may result from microbial infection

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68
Q

Founder of the Germ Theory

A

Louis Pasteur

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69
Q

____ ____ began using carbolic acid (phenol) spray during surgery

A

Joseph Lister

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70
Q

______ proposed the cause of a specific disease could be attributed to a specific microbe.

A

Robert Koch

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71
Q

______ _____ occurs because of differences in the concentration of solutes on opposing sides of a semipermeable membrane.

A

Osmotic Pressure

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72
Q

For ______ and _______ their genetic material is contained in a _____ rather than a membrane bound nucleus.

A

Bacteria and Archaea

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73
Q

________ cells lack membrane bound organelles

A

Prokaryotic

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74
Q

Prokaryotic cells may contain extrachromasomal DNA in _______ which often carry genes such as antibiotic resistance.

A

Plasmids

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75
Q

______ ____: site of protein synthesis and have size of _____

A

Prokaryotic ribosomes

70S

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76
Q

Clinically significant Gram-Positive bacteria that can form endospores:

A

Bacillus
Clostridium

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77
Q

Cell envelope =

A

Plasma membrane + cell wall

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78
Q

______ ____ are composed of phospholipids

A

Plasma membranes

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79
Q

Prokaryotic cell walls may be composed of ______ (found only in bacteria)

A

Peptidoglycan

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80
Q

_____________ bacterial cells are characterized by a thick peptidoglycan layer

A

Gram Positive

81
Q

_________ bacterial cells are characterized by a thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer membrane.

A

Gram negative

82
Q

______ contribute to a microbes pathogenicity (ability to cause disease) which makes it more difficult for _______ cells (WBC) to engulf and kill them

A

Capsules

Phagocytic

83
Q

_____ are typically more numerous and shorter

A

Fimbriae

84
Q

____ are larger and less numerous than fimbriae

A

Pili

85
Q

_____ are important in the transfer of genetic material between cells

A

Pili

86
Q

______ flagella that cover the entire surface of a bacterial cell

A

Peritrichous

87
Q

______ one end of the cell (polar)

A

Monotrichous

88
Q

Flagellum or tufts of flagella at each end

A

Ampitrichous

89
Q

Tuft at one end of the cell

A

Lophotrichous

90
Q

______ cells have a nucleus bound by a nuclear membrane

A

Eukaryotic

91
Q

Eukaryotic cells contain _____ ribosomes

A

80S

92
Q

_______ ribosomes in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

A

70S

93
Q

_______ _____ membrane bound organelles involved in transport.

A

Endomembrane system

94
Q

___ ____ ____ : lipid biosynthesis, carbohydrate metabolism, and detoxification.

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

95
Q

____ ____ ____ contains membrane bound 80S ribosomes that synthesis proteins

A

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

96
Q

Endomembrane system includes:

A

Endoplasmic reticulum
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
rough endoplasmic reticulum

97
Q

processes proteins and lipids

A

Golgi apparatus

98
Q

Contain digestive enzymes

A

lysosomes

99
Q

Site of cellular respiration

A

Mitochondria

100
Q

Eukaryotic cell membranes can take material in to the cell via _____ or expel matter from the cell ____

A

Endocytosis
Exocytosis

101
Q

Types of Endocytosis

A

Phagocytosis
Pinocytosis

102
Q

Cell eating

A

Phagocytosis

103
Q

Cell drinking

A

Pinocytosis

104
Q

Fungi, algae, plants and some protists have a

A

Cell wall

105
Q

Types of cell walls

A

Cellulose (fungi and plants)
Chitin (fungi)

106
Q

____ and ____ are unicellular prokaryotic organisms.

A

Archaea and Bacteria

107
Q

_________: the totality of forms of prokaryotes (particularly bacteria) living on the human which varies between regions of the body and changes over time

A

Microbiome

108
Q

_______ : the totality of forms of prokaryotes living in a certain region of the human body
(primarily bacteria)

A

Microbiota

109
Q

Two types of microbiota include

A

Resident and Transient

110
Q

____ microbiota constantly live in or on our bodies

A

Resident

111
Q

_____ microbiota is temporarily found in the human body.

A

Transient

112
Q

_______ colonization during vaginal child birth
Demonstrating a higher incidence of diseases in individuals born by c-section compared to those born vaginally

A

Lactobacillus

113
Q

Gram positive bacteria are classified based on their prevalence of _____ and ____ nucleotides

A

Guanine and cytosine

114
Q

Gram negative bacteria are classified:

A

Spriochetes
Proteobacteria
Atypical
Mycoplasma
SPAM

115
Q

_____ bacteria cannot be stained by the standard gram stain procedure

A

Atypical

116
Q

Proteobacteria are further classified into the classes

A

Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Delta
Epsilon

117
Q

Rickettisia
R.rickettsii: causes

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever spread by ticks

118
Q

Betaproteobacteria include

A

Neisseria
N. gonorrhoeae
N. meningitides
Bordetella pertussis

119
Q

_____ causes the STI gonorrhea

A

N. gonorrhoeae

120
Q

_____ causes bacterial meningitis

A

N. meningitides

121
Q

____ causes pertussis ( whooping cough)

A

Bordetella pertussis

122
Q

_______ are the largest and most diverse group of proteobacteria

A

Gammaproteobacteria

123
Q

_____ often infects wounds and burns

A

Pseudomonas aerugionsa

124
Q

Haemophilus
H. influenzae: (does not cause influenza) Can cause both upper and lower respiratory tract infections including

A

Sinusitis
Bronchitis
Ear infections
Pneumonia

125
Q

Vibrionales include

A

Vibrio cholerae
and
V. vulnificus

126
Q

_____ causes cholera

A

Vibrio cholerae

127
Q

____ causes serious and potentially life- threatening cellulitus

A

V. vulnificus

128
Q

Escherichia coli
Salmonella
Shigella
yersinia pestis
are all types of

A

Enteric Bacteria

129
Q

______ is the most studied bacterium

A

Escherchia coli

130
Q

____ causes typhoid fever

A

Salmonella

131
Q

________ is the most common cause of chronic gastritis and ulcers of stomach and duodenum, also linked to stomach cancer

A

Helicobacter pylori

132
Q

Spiral bacteria with a long narrow body

A

Spirochetes

133
Q

________ contain human pathogens that cause diseases such as syphilis and lyme disease.

A

Spirochetes

134
Q

________ bacteria are a group categorized by their ability to use the energy of sunlight

A

Phototrophic

135
Q

_______ are oxygen producing bacteria thought to have played a critical role in the forming of the earths atmosphere

A

Cyanobacteria

136
Q

_______ ____ causes diphtheria, produces a toxin that forms a pseudomembrane in the patients throat causing swelling, difficulty breathing.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheiae

137
Q

_____ ______ can cause bacterial vaginosis in women

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

138
Q

______: bacilli covered with a mycolic acid coat
This waxy coat protects the bacteria from some antibiotics

A

Mycobacterium

139
Q

_____ cause tuberculosis

A

M. tuberculosis

140
Q

______: leprosy

A

M. leprae

141
Q

___________ generally obligate anaerobes and can form endospors

A

Clostridium spp.

142
Q

________(gas gangrene)

A

C. perfringens

143
Q

_______ (tetanus) produces a neurotoxin that is able to enter neurons, travel regions of the central nervous system where it blocks in inhibition of nerve impulses.

A

C. tetani

144
Q

______ (botulism) produces botulimum neurotoxin the most lethal biological toxin known

Blocks the release of acetylcholine causing flaccid paralysis

A

C. botulimum

145
Q

____ is a common source of hospital acquired infections

A

C.difficile

146
Q

_____ the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis (strep throat)

A

S. pyogenes

147
Q

________ :Cells appear as diplococci and causes pneumonia

A

S. pneumoniae

148
Q

Staphylococcus
S. aureus strains can cause a wide range of infections and diseases
Many of which are highly resistant to antibiotics like

A

MRSA
VRSA

149
Q

_____ are very small and lack cell walls

A

Mycoplasma spp.

150
Q

______ are unicellular, prokaryotic microorganisms
Also differ structurally from bacteria in several significant ways.

A

Archaea

151
Q

Some _____ are extremophiles living in environments

A

Archaea

152
Q

______ archaea prefer a concentration of salt

A

Halophilic

153
Q

______ is the most common human intestinal parasite in the US

A

Giardia

154
Q

______ diarrheal illness that is easily transmitted through contaminated water supplies

A

Giardiasis

155
Q

Protists were informally grouped into

A

“animal like”
“plant like”
“fungus like”

156
Q

Nonphotosynthetic, motile organisms that are always unicellular

A

Protozoans
animal like

157
Q

_____: photosynthetic organisms that can be unicellular or multicellular

A

plant like
algae

158
Q

____ protists such as water molds

A

fungus lke

159
Q

Protozoans that reproduce Asexually

A

Binary fission
Budding
Schizogony

160
Q

Protozoans that reproduce sexually

A

Syngamy
Conjugation

161
Q

_______ brain eating amoeba

A

Naegleria fowleri

162
Q

________: individual amoeboid cells that periodically aggregate into a mobile slug

A

Cellular slime molds

163
Q

_____: exist as large, multinucleate amoeboid cells that form reproductive stalks to produce spores that divide in to gametes

A

Plasmodial slime molds

164
Q

_______: intra- or extracellular parasites

A

Apicomplexans

165
Q

cause of malaria

A

Plasmodium

166
Q

_____ _____ causes intenstinal symptoms and can cause epidemic diarrhea when the cysts contaminate drinking water

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

167
Q

______ _______ transmitted by the tick
causes recurring fever that can be fatal and is becoming a common transfusion transmitted pathogen in the US

A

Theileria (Babesia) microti

168
Q

____ _____:: causes toxoplasmosis and can be transmitted from cat feces
Can be associated with serious birth defects
Pregnant women should be aware of risk if exposed to cat feces

A

Toxoplasma gondii

169
Q

____ ____: widespread pathogen that cuases diarrheal illness spread through cysts feces that contaminate water supplies

A

Giardia lamblia

170
Q

_____ ______ causes the human sexally transmitted disease trichomoniasis.
Often does not cause symptoms in men but men are able to transmit the infection

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

171
Q

_____ _____ which causes African trypanosomiasis (African sleeping sickness)
Colonizes the blood and the brain after being transmitted via the bite of a tsetse fly

A

Trypanosoma Brucei

172
Q

_________ Causes American trypanosmiasis (chagas disease)
transmitted by insects often called kissing bugs

A

T. cruzi

173
Q

_____ common intestinal parasites often tansmitted through undercooked foods

A

Roundworms

174
Q

Two types of helminth parasites are

A

Roundworms
Unsegmented worms

175
Q

______ ______ (pinworm) is the most common nematode infection in the US

A

Enterobius vermicularis

176
Q

_____ and _____ are nematodes found in dogs and cats that can be transmitted to humans

A

Toxocara canis
T. cati

177
Q

_____ ____ the New World or North American hookworm

A

Necator americanus

178
Q

_____ contracted by consuming undercooked meat

A

Trichinella spiralis

179
Q

_____ _____ causes heartworm in dogs and other animals

A

Dirofilaria immitis

180
Q

Species that can cause mycoses

A

Pathogenic

181
Q

_____ are unicellular fungi

A

Yeasts

182
Q

Associated with vaginal yeast infections oral thrush and candidasis of the skin
The most common cause of vaginal and other yeast infections

A

Candida albicans

183
Q

Ringworm is a _____ not a worm

A

Fungus

184
Q

________ are acellular and consist of nucleic acid DNA or RNA but not both surrounded by a protein capsid.

A

Virons

185
Q

______ _______ formed from only a nucleic acid and capsid

A

naked viruses

186
Q

____ _____ nucleic acid packed capsid surrounded by a lipid layer

A

enveloped viruses

187
Q

_____ are obligate intracellular parasites

A

viruses

188
Q

The viruses that infect bacteria are called ______

A

Bacteriophages

189
Q

__________ spikes help the influenza virus attach to host cell

A

hemagglutinin_

190
Q

_________ allow the virus to detach from the cell surface during release of new virions

A

neuraminidase

191
Q

In the life cycle of bacteriophages: _______ leads to the death of the host

A

virulent (have a lytic cycle)

192
Q

In the life cycle of bacteriophages _____ leads to integration of the phage into the host genome

A

Temperate (have a lysogenic cycle)

193
Q

Integrated phage genome is called a

A

prophage

194
Q

Life cycle of viruses with Animal hosts

A

Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Biosynthesis
Maturatioin
Reslease

195
Q

HIV carry a special enzyme called r

A

Reverse transcriptase

196
Q

The integrated viral genome is called a

A

Provirus

197
Q

Animal viruses are detected by:

A

Hemagglutination assay
Hemagglutination inhibition assay

198
Q
A

MICRO (7 decks)

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