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EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Inorganic ions that stabilize enzyme conformation and function.

A

Cofactors

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2
Q

Organic molecules required for proper enzyme function.

A

Coenzymes

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3
Q

Regulate enzymes by binding to an enzyme’s active site (where the substrate binds) preventing substrate binding.

A

Competitive inhibitors

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4
Q

Noncompetitive (allosteric) inhibitors bind to

A

Allosteric sites

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5
Q

______ is the first step in the breakdown of glucose, resulting in the net formation of 2 ATP 2 NADH and 2 pyruvate molecules

A

Glycolysis

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6
Q

Organisms performing ______ _____ use alternative electron transport system carriers for the ultimate transfer of electrons to the final non-oxygen electron acceptors

A

anaerobic respiration

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7
Q

The energy of this proton motive force can be harnessed by allowing hydrogen ions to diffuse back through the membrane by _______ using ____ _____

A

Chemiosmosis
ATP synthase

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8
Q

Noncompetitve (allosteric) inhibitors bind to allosteric sites by inducing a

A

conformational change in the enzyme that prevents it from functioning

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9
Q

As hydrogen ions diffuse through down their electrochemical gradient,
components of ATP synthase spin, making ATP from ADP and P by ______ _____

A

oxidative phosphorylation

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10
Q

______ uses an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor to regenerate NAD from NADH so that glycolysis can continue

A

Fermentation

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11
Q

____ ____ ____ composed of a series of membrane associated protein complexes and associated mobile accessory electron carriers

A

Electron Transport System (ETS)

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12
Q

Energy carriers (electron carriers/ also vitamins)

A

FAD/FADH2
NAD+/NADH

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13
Q

_____ includes chemical reactions that break down complex molecules (catabolism) and those that build complex molecules (anabolism)

A

Metabolism

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14
Q

Reactions that remove electrons from donor molecules, leaving them oxidized are

A

Oxidation reactions

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15
Q

Reactions that add electrons to acceptor molecules leaving them reduced are

A

reduction reactions

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16
Q

Classifications of chemotrophs

A

Chemoautotrophs
Chemoheterotrophs

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17
Q

Classifications of phototrophs

A

Photoautotrophs
Photoheterotrophs

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18
Q

Chemotrophs use ____ as their energy source

A

Chemicals

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19
Q

Phototrophs use ____ as their energy source

A

Light

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20
Q

Carbon source of Chemoautotrophs

A

CO2

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21
Q

Carbon source of Chemoheterotrophs

A

Organic compounds

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22
Q

Carbon source of Photoautotrophs

A

CO2

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23
Q

Carbon source Photoheterotrophs

A

Organic compounds

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24
Q

Examples of Chemoheterotrophs

A

All animals
most fungi
protozoa
bacteria

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25
Q

Examples of Photoautotrophs

A

All plants
algae

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26
Q

Most bacterial cells divide by

A

binary fission

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27
Q

Cells in a closed system follow a pattern of growth with four phases:

A

Lag
Logarithmic
Stationary
Death (decline phase)

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28
Q

____ is no increase in number of living cells

A

Lag

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29
Q

Exponential increase in number of living cells

A

Logarithmic

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30
Q

Plateau in number of living bacterial cells; rate of cell division and death roughly equal

A

stationary

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31
Q

exponential decrease in number of living bacterial cells

A

death (decline phase)

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32
Q

Transcription and Translation are

A

Gene Expression

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33
Q

The DNA replication process is ______________ which results in two DNA molecules each having one parental strand of DNA and one newly synthesized strand

A

Semiconservative

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34
Q

During ______ the ________ strand of DNA is synthesized continuously from a single primer

A

Elongation

Leading

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35
Q

The _____ strand is synthesized discontinuously in short _____ fragments

A

lagging

Okazaki

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36
Q

The linear strand of eukaryotic chromosomes necessitates__________ to protect genes near the end of the the chromosomes

A

Telomeres

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37
Q

_____ extends telomeres preventing their degradation in some cell types

A

Telomerase

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38
Q

RNA polymerase binds to DNA at a sequence called a _______ during the initiation of __________

A

Promoter

transcription

39
Q

Eukaryotic genes that encode polypeptides are composed of coding sequences called ______

40
Q

It is essential that all the intron-encoded RNA sequences are completely and precisely removed from a _______ before _____ _____

A

pre-mRNA

protein synthesis

41
Q

A heritable change in DNA

42
Q

Affects a single base pair

A

Point mutation

43
Q

if the mRNA codon codes for the same amino acid

A

Silent mutation

44
Q

if the mRNA codon codes for a different amino acid

A

Missense mutation

45
Q

if the mRNA codon becomes a stop codon

A

Nonsense mutation

46
Q

______ ____ ___ is an important way for asexually reproducing organisms like prokaryotes to acquire new traits

A

horizontal gene transfer

47
Q

The mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer is typically used by

48
Q

The three different mechanisms of of horizontal gene transfer are

A

Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation

49
Q

Prokaryotic structural genes of related function are often organized into

50
Q

One that is default on and is turned off

A

Repressible operon

51
Q

A _____ binds to a _______ a DNA sequence within the regulatory region
Physically blocks transcription of these operons

A

repressor

operator

52
Q

The trp operon is a classic example of a _____ _____

A

Repressible operon

53
Q

When tryptophan accumulates tryptophan binds to a repressor which then binds to the operator preventing ____ ______

A

further transcription

54
Q

one that is default off and is turned on

A

Inducible operon

55
Q

Cells can be counted by

A

Direct cell count
Direct microscopic cell count
Coulter counter
Pour plate
Serial dilutiions

56
Q

____ ____ ___ counts dead and live cells

A

direct cell count

57
Q

_____ _____ ____ _____ counts dead and live cells on a calibrated slide

A

direct microscopic cell count

58
Q

___ _____ uses electrical resistance in saline solution to count cells, counts dead and alive cells

A

coulter carrier

59
Q

____ ____ (bacteria mixed with the agar then poured into a plate)

A

pour plate

60
Q

_____ _____ (bacteria spread over the agar)
methods; count only live cells

A

spread plate

61
Q

_____ ______ repeated 1 ml in 9ml solutions to achieve 30-300 colony forming units

A

Serial dilutions

62
Q

_____ ____ can be used to estimate culture density by measuring

A

indirect methods

63
Q

_______ of a culture or live cell density by measuring metabolic activity

64
Q

Microorganisms vary in their requirements for

A

Molecular oxygen

65
Q

____ ____ depend on aerobic respiration and use oxygen asa terminal electron acceptor. They cannot grow without oxygen

A

Obligate aerobes

66
Q

______ ______ cannot grow in the presence of oxygen. they depend on fermentation and anaerobic respiration using a final electron acceptor other than oxygen

A

obligate anaerobes

67
Q

______ ______ show better growth in the presence of oxygen but will also grow without

A

Facultative anaerobes

68
Q

______ ____ do not perform aerobic respiration they can grow in the presence of oxygen.
Most of these anaerobes test negative for the enzyme _____

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

Catalase

69
Q

______ need oxygen to grow albeit at a lower concentration than 21% oxygen in air

A

Microaerophiles

70
Q

What are the three different enzymes found found in detoxification of reactive oxygen species

A

peroxidase
superoxide dismutase
catalase

71
Q

X- (2H+) + H2O2 -> oxidized - x +2H2O

A

Peroxidase

72
Q

Destroys super oxide anion (2O2-) usually present in a cell that can tolerate O2

A

Superoxide Dismutase

73
Q

2H2O2 —> 2 H2O + O2

74
Q

Most bacteria in this group and they grow best at neutral pH close to 7.0

A

Neutrophil

75
Q

Grow optimally at pH near 3.0

A

Acidophiles

76
Q

are organisms that grow optimally between pH of 8 and 10.5

A

Alkaliphiles

77
Q

Grow best in the temp range of 0-15 degrees C

A

Psychrophiles

78
Q

Thrive between 4 and 25 degrees C
Affect refrigerated food

A

psychotrophs

79
Q

grow best at moderate temp
Pathogens usually _________

A

Mesophiles

80
Q

______ and _______ are adapted to life at temperatures above 50 degrees C

A

Thermophiles

Hyperthemophiles

81
Q

Require high salt concentration in the medium

A

Halophiles

82
Q

Organisms can grow and multiply in the presence of high salt but do not require it for growth and are an important source of foodborne illnesses because they contaminate foods preserved in salt

A

Halotolerant

83
Q

Require high atmospheric pressure for growth

A

Barophiles

84
Q

In 1928 _______ _______ showed that dead encapsulated bacteria could pass genetic information to live nonencapsulated bacteria and transform them into harmful strains

A

Frederick Griffith

85
Q

_____ ______ are composed of _______ each of which contains a pentose sugar a phosphate group and a ________ base

A

Nucleic acids

Nucleotides

nitrogenous

86
Q

A _______ comprises of the five carbon sugar and nitrogenous base

A

Nucleoside

87
Q

DNA and that the amount of ______ is approximately equal to _______
these relationships were later determined to be due to complementary base pairing

A

Guanine
Cytosine

88
Q

DNA is composed of two complementary strands oriented ______ to each other with the _______ _________ on the exterior of the molecule

A

antiparallel

phosphodiester back bones

89
Q

DNA is used for information storage, this info is transmitted from parent to offspring through

A

vertical gene transfer

90
Q

The entire genetic conent of a cell is its

91
Q

A ________ is the observable characteristics of a cell or organism at a given point in time and results from the complement of genes currently being used

92
Q

________ DNA in eukaryotes includes the chromosomes found within organelles of prokaryotic origin that evolved by endosymbiosis

A

Extrachromosomal

MICRO (7 decks)

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