Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A collection of cells and biochemicals that travel in lymphatic vessels

A

Lymphatic system

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2
Q

The lymphatic system is closely associated with the _________ system

A

Cardiovascular

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3
Q

What are the three functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. Transports excess interstitial fluid
  2. Absorbs lipids from the digestive system
  3. Defends the body against diseases
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4
Q

The lymphatic system transports excess ___________ away from the interstitial spaces, and returns it to the bloodstream.

A

Interstitial fluid

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5
Q

The lymphatic system absorbs lipids from the digestive system, and transports them to the __________

A

Bloodstream

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6
Q

The lymphatic system absorbs lipids from the digestive system, and transports them to the bloodstream; accomplished by lymphatic capillaries called ________

A

Lacteals

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7
Q

The term “_________” refers to the fact that many cells of the lymphatic system provide both defense against disease and permanent immunity against future infections.

A

Immune system

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8
Q

Name the (9) lymphatic pathways

A
  1. Lymphatic capillaries in tissues at capillary beds >
  2. Lymphatic vessels >
  3. Lymph nodes >
  4. Larger lymphatic vessels >
  5. Lymphatic trunks >
  6. Lymphatic collecting ducts >
  7. Subclavian veins in thorax >
  8. Superior vena cava >
  9. Right atrium of heart
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9
Q

The lymphatic capillaries are microscopic, ________ tubes

A

Closed-ended

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10
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are found wherever there are _________

A

Capillaries

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11
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are _____- walled

A

Thin

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12
Q

The walls of lymphatic capillaries are formed from what type of tissue?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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13
Q

Once interstitial fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries, the fluid is called what?

A

Lymph

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14
Q

The lymphatic capillaries merge into ______ vessels

A

Lymphatic

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15
Q

The walls of lymphatic vessels are similar to veins, but ______

A

Thinner

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16
Q

Which are thinner? The walls of lymphatic vessels or lymphatic veins?

A

Lymphatic vessels

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17
Q

What are the three layers of lymphatic vessels?

A

Inner layer (endothelial lining)
Middle layer (smooth muscle and elastic fibers)
Outer layer (connective tissue)

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18
Q

How many layers are lymphatic vessels composed of?

A

Three

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19
Q

What type of tissue is the inner layer of a lymphatic vessel made of?

A

Endothelial lining

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20
Q

What type of tissue is the middle layer of a lymphatic vessel made of?

A

Smooth muscle and elastic fibers

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21
Q

What type of tissue is the outer layer of a lymphatic vessel made of?

A

Connective tissue

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22
Q

Lymphatic vessels contain semilunar ______, which allow one-way flow

A

valves

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23
Q

Lymphatic vessels contain semilunar valves, which allow ______ flow

A

One-way

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24
Q

Larger lymphatic vessels lead to ________ and then to larger lymphatic trunks

A

Lymph nodes

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25
Q

Larger lymphatic vessels lead to lymph nodes and then to larger __________

A

Lymphatic trunks

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26
Q

What are the arrows pointing to in this photo?

A

Valve in the lymphatic vessel

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27
Q

What drains lymph from the lymphatic vessels?

A

Lymphatic trunks

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28
Q

Lymphatic trunks are named for the regions they serve: _____, _______, ________, _____________, ________, ________.

A

Lumbar, intestinal, intercostal, bronchomediastinal, subclavian, and jugular

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29
Q

Lymphatic trunks train into what?

A

Lymphatic collecting ducts

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30
Q

How many lymphatic collecting ducts are there for the entire lymphatic system?

A

Two

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31
Q

Which is smaller, the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct?

A

The right lymphatic duct

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32
Q

Where does the right lymphatic duct begin?

A

The RIGHT thorax

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33
Q

Where does the right lymphatic duct empty?

A

Right subclavian vein

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34
Q

The right lymphatic duct drains which portion of the body?

A

The upper left portion

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35
Q

Which is longer and wider, the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct?

A

The thoracic duct

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36
Q

Which lymphatic duct drains everything NOT drained by the other?

A

Thoracic duct (drains everything NOT drained by the right lymphatic duct; majority of the body)

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37
Q

Which lymphatic duct begins as a sac called cisterna chyli?

A

Thoracic duct

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38
Q

The thoracic duct begins as a sac called what?

A

Cisterna chyli

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39
Q

Which lymphatic duct drains into the left subclavian vein?

A

The thoracic duct

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40
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain?

A

The left subclavian vein

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41
Q
A

Bronchomediastinal trunk

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42
Q
A

Intercostal trunk

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43
Q
A

Internal jugular vein

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44
Q
A

Intestinal trunk

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45
Q
A

Jugular trunk

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46
Q
A

Lumbar trunk

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47
Q
A

Lymphatic vessels

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48
Q
A

Right brachiocephalic vein

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49
Q
A

Right lymphatic duct

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50
Q
A

Subclavian trunk

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51
Q
A

Thoracic duct

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52
Q
A

Thoracic duct

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53
Q
A

Axillary lymph nodes

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54
Q
A

Cisterna chyli

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55
Q
A

Left internal jugular vein

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56
Q
A

Left subclavian vein

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57
Q
A

Lymph nodes

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58
Q
A

Lymphatic trunk

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59
Q
A

Lymphatic vessels

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60
Q
A

Lymphatics of mammary gland

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61
Q
A

Right internal jugular vein

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62
Q
A

Right lymphatic duct

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63
Q
A

Right lymphatic duct

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64
Q
A

Right subclavian vein

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65
Q
A

Thoracic duct

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66
Q
A

Thoracic duct

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67
Q

List the order of the lymphatic pathway, starting with the lymphatic capillary?

A

Lymphatic capillary
Afferent lymphatic vessel
Lymph node
Efferent lymphatic vessel
Lymphatic trunk
Collecting duct
Subclavian vein

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68
Q

______ is tissue fluid that has entered a lymphatic capillary

A

Lymph

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69
Q

Lymph is _______ that has entered a lymphatic capillary

A

Tissue fluid

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70
Q

During tissue fluid formation, capillary blood pressure filters water and small molecules from what?

A

Plasma

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71
Q

How is tissue fluid formed?

A

Capillary blood pressure filters water and small molecules from plasma

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72
Q

Tissue fluid has about the same ______ as blood plasma

A

Composition

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73
Q

Tissue fluid contains what?

A

Water, dissolved nutrients, gases, hormones

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74
Q

Tissue fluid does NOT contain what?

A

Large plasma proteins

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75
Q

Tissue fluid does not contain large plasma proteins, which remain in the blood plasma why?

A

In order to maintain osmotic pressure necessary to draw fluid back into blood capillaries.

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76
Q

Tissue fluid = _______ - __________

A

Blood plasma - plasma proteins

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77
Q

Filtration from the plasma normally exceeds _______, leading to the net formation of tissue fluid

A

Reabsorption

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78
Q

Filtration from plasma normally exceeds reabsorption, leading to the net formation of tissue fluid. This increases the tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure within interstitial spaces, forcing fluid into lymphatic capillaries and forming what?

A

Lymph

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79
Q

What typically leads to the net formation of tissue fluid?

A

Filtration from plasma exceeding reabsorption

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80
Q

During lymph formation, Filtration from plasma exceeding reabsorption increases the ________ within interstitial spaces

A

tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure

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81
Q

During the formation of lymph, when the tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure increases within interstitial spaces, it forces fluid into what, forming lymph?

A

Lymphatic capillaries

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82
Q

The process of lymph formation prevents accumulation of excess tissue fluid, or ______

A

Edema

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83
Q

When a woman has axillary lymph nodes removed during breast cancer surgery, lymphatic drainage is obstructed from the upper limb, resulting in _______

A

Edema

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84
Q

Lymph inside lymphatic vessels has _____ hydrostatic pressure, like venous blood

A

Low

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85
Q

_________ influences the movement of lymph through the lymphatic vessels

A

Muscle activity

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86
Q

What are the three types of muscle activity that influences the movement of lymph through the lymphatic vessels?

A

Contraction of skeletal muscles, respiratory process, smooth muscle in the larger lymphatic vessels

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87
Q

Contraction of _______ muscles compresses lymphatic vessels, moving lymph

A

Skeletal

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88
Q

_________ process creates low pressure in thorax, and high pressure in abdomen during respiration; sends lymph from abdomen to thorax.

A

Respiratory

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89
Q

________ in the larger lymphatic vessels contracts to aid in the flow of lymph

A

Smooth muscle

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90
Q

______ in lymphatic vessels prevent backflow

A

Valves

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91
Q

Lymphatic flow is highest during what?

A

Physical exercise

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92
Q

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Absorption of ______ in the small intestine, and delivery to the bloodstream

A

Dietary fats

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93
Q

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Return of ________ filtered by blood capillaries to the bloodstream

A

Small proteins

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94
Q

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Collection of excess ________

A

Interstitial fluid

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95
Q

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Delivery of _________ to the bloodstream

A

Excess fluid

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96
Q

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Delivery of ________ to the lymph nodes

A

Foreign particles

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97
Q

Roles of lymphatic capillaries: Flap-like valves between cells of lymphatic capillaries allow easy entry of?

A

Tissue fluid

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98
Q
A

Arteriole

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99
Q
A

Blood capillary

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100
Q
A

Lymphatic capillary

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101
Q
A

Lymphatic vessel

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102
Q
A

Tissue cells

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103
Q
A

Venule

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104
Q
A

Connective tissue

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105
Q
A

Epithelial cell

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106
Q
A

Filaments anchored to connective tissue

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107
Q
A

Flow of lymph

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108
Q
A

Movement of tissue fluid

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109
Q

Lymphatic tissue contains several cell types, including _______ and ________

A

Lymphocytes; macrophages

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110
Q

What does MALT stand for?

A

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

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111
Q

Unencapsulated lymphatic tissue of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts

A

MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)

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112
Q

Compact masses of lymphatic tissue

A

Lymphatic nodules

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113
Q

Tonsils and appendix are composed of ________

A

Lymphatic nodules

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114
Q

Aggregates of lymphatic nodules found in ileum (distal part of small intestine)

A

Peyer’s patches

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115
Q

_____ organs consist of encapsulated lymphatic tissue

A

Lymphatic

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116
Q

What are the lymphatic organs?

A

Lymph nodes, thymus, and spleen

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117
Q

Lymph nodes are usually _____-shaped.

A

Bean

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118
Q

Lymph nodes are usually less than ____ cm long

A

2.5

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119
Q

Lymph nodes are located along ________

A

Lymphatic vessels

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120
Q

Lymph nodes filter pathogens from ______

A

Lymph

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121
Q

Lymph nodes contain _____ to attack viruses, bacteria, and parasitic cells

A

Lymphocytes

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122
Q

Lymph nodes contain ______ to engulf and destroy foreign substances, damaged cells, and cellular debris

A

Macrophages

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123
Q

Lymph nodes are found in groups or chains along the paths of the larger _______ throughout the body

A

Lymphatic vessels

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124
Q

What are the major locations of lymph nodes ?

A

Cervical region
Axillary region
Supratrochlear region
Inguinal region
Pelvic cavity
Abdominal cavity
thoracic cavity

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125
Q

Lymph nodes are NOT found in which system?

A

Central nervous system

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126
Q
A

Blood vessels

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127
Q
A

Lymph node

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128
Q
A

Lymphatic vessels

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129
Q
A

Muscle

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130
Q
A

Afferent lymphatic vessel

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131
Q
A

Artery

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132
Q
A

Capsule

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133
Q
A

Efferent lymphatic vessel

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134
Q
A

Germinal center (B cells)

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135
Q
A

Hilum

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136
Q
A

Lymph flow

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137
Q
A

Lymph flow

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138
Q
A

Lymphatic nodule

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139
Q
A

Lymphatic sinus

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140
Q
A

Subcapsule (macrophages, B cells)

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141
Q
A

Trabecula

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142
Q
A

Vein

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143
Q

What are the two primary functions of lymph nodes?

A

Filter potentially harmful particles from the lymph; and immune surveillance: monitor body fluids via macrophages and lymphocytes

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144
Q

Lymph nodes are responsible for filtering potentially harmful particles from the _____

A

Lymph

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145
Q

Lymph node are responsible for immune surveillance: monitoring body fluids via ________ and _________

A

Macrophages; lymphocytes

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146
Q

Along with ______, the lymph nodes are centers for lymphocyte production

A

Red bone marrow

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147
Q

Along with red bone marrow, the lymph nodes are centers for ________ production

A

Lymphocyte

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148
Q

________ attack various pathogens in lymph nodes

A

Lymphocytes

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149
Q

Lymphocytes attack various pathogens in _________

A

Lymph nodes

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150
Q

________ engulf and digest foreign substances, damaged cells, and debris.

A

Macrophages

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151
Q

Soft, bilobed gland of the immune system

A

Thymus

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152
Q

How many lobes does the thymus gland have?

A

Two (bilobed)

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153
Q

Where is the thymus located?

A

Mediastinum

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154
Q

The thymus is divided into _______

A

Lobules

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155
Q

The lobules of the thymus contain ________ derived from progenitor cells in red bone marrow.

A

Lymphocytes .

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156
Q

The _________ of the thymus contain lymphocytes derived from progenitor cells in red bone marrow.

A

Lobules

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157
Q

The lobules of the _______ contain lymphocytes derived from progenitor cells in red bone marrow.

A

Thymus

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158
Q

The lobules of the thymus contain lymphocytes derived from _______ cells in red bone marrow.

A

Progenitor

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159
Q

The lobules of the thymus contain lymphocytes derived from progenitor cells in _____________

A

Red bone marrow

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160
Q

Most cells in the thymus are inactive; called __________

A

Thymocytes

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161
Q

Inactive cells in the thymus

A

Thymocytes

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162
Q

In the thymus, some cells mature into functional __________ (T cells), which leave the thymus to provide immunity.

A

T lymphocytes

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163
Q

Hormones produced in thymus; stimulate T cell maturation

A

Thymosins

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164
Q

What hormones stimulate T cell maturation in the thymus?

A

Thymosins

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165
Q

What immune system gland is large in infancy and early childhood, shrinks at puberty, and is small in adults?

A

Thymus gland

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166
Q

In the elderly, lymphatic tissue of the thymus is replaced by what other tissues?

A

Adipose and other connective tissues

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167
Q

Largest lymphatic organ

A

Spleen

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168
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

Upper left part of the abdominal cavity

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169
Q

Which lymphatic organ resembles a large lymph node?

A

Spleen

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170
Q

Which lymphatic organ contains venous sinuses filled with blood?

A

Spleen

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171
Q

The spleen contains venous sinuses filled with what?

A

Blood

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172
Q

What are the two tissue types of the spleen?

A

White pulp (lymphocytes) and red pulp (RBCs, lymphocytes, and macrophages)

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173
Q

White pulp contains:

A

Lymphocytes

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174
Q

Red pulp contains:

A

RBCs, lymphocytes, and macrophages

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175
Q

The ______ filters blood like lymph nodes filter lymph

A

Spleen

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176
Q

What organ breaks down worn-out red blood cells?

A

Spleen

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177
Q

In the spleen, _______ engulf and destroy foreign particles

A

Macrophages

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178
Q

_______ defend the body against infection in the spleen

A

Lymphocytes

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179
Q

Where are lymph nodes located?

A

In groups or chains along the paths of larger lymphatic vessels

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180
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

Filter foreign particles and debris from lymph;
house lymphocytes that destroy foreign
particles in lymph; house macrophages that
engulf and destroy foreign particles and cellular
debris carried in lymph

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181
Q

Where is the thymus located, specifically?

A

In the mediastinum posterior to
the upper portion of the body
of the sternum

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182
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

Houses lymphocytes; differentiates thymocytes
into T lymphocytes

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183
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

In the upper left portion of the
abdominal cavity, inferior to the
diaphragm and posterior and
lateral to the stomach

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184
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

Houses macrophages that remove foreign
particles, damaged red blood cells, and cellular
debris from the blood; contains lymphocytes

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185
Q

Lymphatic system defends body against infection by ?

A

Pathogens

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186
Q

Examples of pathogens?

A

Disease-causing agents, such as bacteria, viruses, complex
microorganisms like protozoa, and spores of multicellular organisms
like fungi

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187
Q

The presence and multiplication of a ______ in the body, if
unchecked may cause an infection

A

Pathogen

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188
Q

The presence and multiplication of a pathogen in the body, if
unchecked may cause an _______

A

Infection

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189
Q

Ability of body to prevent pathogen entry or destroy any
pathogens that enter the body

A

Immunity

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190
Q

What are the two immune mechanisms?

A

Innate (nonspecific) defenses, and adaptive (specific) defenses

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191
Q

What are the general immune defenses of the body referred to as?

A

Innate (nonspecific) defenses

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192
Q

Which immune mechanism protects against many types of pathogens?

A

Innate (nonspecific) defenses

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193
Q

Which immune mechanism is more specific and precise, targeting specific antigens?

A

Adaptive (specific) defenses

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194
Q

Which immune mechanism is carried out by lymphocytes that recognize certain foreign molecules?

A

Adaptive (specific) defenses

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195
Q

True or false: Certain species are resistant to diseases that affect other species

A

True

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196
Q

Certain species of cells lack what for a particular pathogen?

A

Receptors, temperature, or chemical environment

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197
Q

Skin and mucous membranes form what type of barrier?

A

Mechanical

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198
Q

Mechanical barriers prevent the entrance of _______

A

Pathogens

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199
Q

What kind of barrier is considered the first line of defense?

A

Mechanical barriers

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200
Q

All nonspecific defenses are part of the ________ of defense

A

Second line

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201
Q

What are some examples of mechanical barriers?

A
  1. A epidermis sloughs off, removes superficial bacteria
  2. Ciliated epithelium in respiratory tract traps and sweeps away pathogens
  3. Hair traps pathogens
  4. Tears, saliva, and urine wash away microorganisms
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202
Q

What produces local redness, swelling, heat, and pain

A

Inflammation

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203
Q

What is redness due to?

A

Vasodilation

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204
Q

What results from increased capillary permeability and fluid entry into tissue spaces?

A

swelling

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205
Q

What causes swelling?

A

increased capillary permeability and fluid entry
into tissue spaces

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206
Q

_____ is derived from blood arriving from deep areas of body

A

Heat

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207
Q

____ is due to stimulation of pain receptors

A

Pain

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208
Q

A process that walls off infection site, and inhibits spread of infection

A

Inflammation

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209
Q

During inflammation, ______ gather in area, and destroy pathogens by _____

A

WBCs; phagocytosis

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210
Q

During inflammation, _______ (fluids) that contain fibrinogen and other clotting factors may
form fibrin network

A

Exudates

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211
Q

During inflammation, Exudates (fluids) that contain fibrinogen and other clotting factors may
form _____ network

A

Fibrin

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212
Q

During inflammation, Following control of infection, _______ engulf and destroy dead cells

A

Phagocytes

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213
Q

During inflammation, Following control of infection, phagocytes engulf and destroy ________

A

Dead cells

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214
Q

During inflammation, Cells that were lost are replaced by ?

A

Cell division

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215
Q

Blood vessels dilate. Capillary permeability
increases and fluid leaks into tissue
spaces. What is the result?

A

Tissues become red, swollen, warm, and
painful

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216
Q

White blood cells invade the region. What is the response?

A

Pus may form as white blood cells,
bacterial cells, and cellular debris
accumulate.

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217
Q

Tissue fluids containing clotting factors
seep into the area. What is the result?

A

A clot containing threads of fibrin may form

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218
Q

Fibroblasts arrive. What is the result?

A

A connective tissue sac may form around
the injured tissues

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219
Q

Phagocytes are active. What is the result?

A

Bacteria, dead cells, and other debris are
removed

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220
Q

At the end of inflammation, Cells divide. What is the result?

A

Newly formed cells replace injured ones

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221
Q

_____ in body fluids provide a chemical barrier to pathogens

A

Enzymes

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222
Q

What are some examples of enzymes as chemical barriers?

A

Pepsin in gastric juice and lysozyme in tears destroy
microorganisms.

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223
Q

______ block viral replication, act against growth of tumors,
stimulate phagocytosis

A

Interferons

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224
Q

________ are peptides produced by neutrophils and other
granulocytes

A

Defensins

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225
Q

What is the purpose of defensins as chemical barriers?

A

they cripple microbes, by making openings in cell membranes or walls.

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226
Q

_____ are proteins that protect against many bacteria, yeast, and
some viruses

A

Collectins

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227
Q

A group of proteins in plasma and other body fluids
that stimulates inflammation, attracts phagocytes, and enhances
phagocytosis

A

Complement

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228
Q

Small population of lymphocytes

A

Natural killer (NK) cells

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229
Q

_____ cells are very different from B-cells and T-cells that provide
adaptive defenses

A

Natural killer

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230
Q

______ cells defend against viruses and cancer cells by secreting
cytolytic substances called perforins that lyse cell
membrane

A

Naturla killer

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231
Q

How do natural killer cells defend against viruses and cancer?

A

by secreting cytolytic substances called perforins that lyse cell
membrane

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232
Q

What types of cells enhance inflammation?

A

Natural killer (NK) cells

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233
Q

Removes foreign particles from lymph

A

Phagocytosis

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234
Q

_____ in the blood vessels and the tissues of the
spleen, liver, or bone marrow remove particles from blood

A

Phagocytes

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235
Q

Most active phagocytic cells are _____ and
_____

A

Neutrophils; monocytes

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236
Q

Chemicals from damaged tissue attract these phagocytic
cells to the injury; this is called _____

A

Chemotaxis

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237
Q

Monocytes that leave the blood become ______,
which can be free or fixed in tissues

A

Macrophages

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238
Q

________________ (reticuloendothelium)
consists of monocytes and macrophages of the body

A

Mononuclear phagocytic system

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239
Q

Begins when a viral or bacterial infection stimulates
lymphocytes to proliferate, producing cells that secrete a
substance called interleukin-1 (IL-1) which raises
thermoregulatory set point

A

Fever

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240
Q

A fever Begins when a viral or bacterial infection stimulates
lymphocytes to proliferate, producing cells that secrete a
substance called interleukin-1 (IL-1) which _______________

A

Raises thermoregulatory set point

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241
Q

IL-1 is also called _____________ (fire maker from
within)

A

Endogenous pyrogen

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242
Q

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits _________; causes liver and spleen to take up iron, making it
unavailable for bacteria and fungi to use in their normal
metabolism

A

Microbial growth

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243
Q

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits microbial
growth; causes liver and spleen to take up _____, making it
unavailable for bacteria and fungi to use in their normal
metabolism

A

Iron

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244
Q

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits microbial
growth; causes liver and spleen to take up iron, making it
unavailable for bacteria and fungi to use in their normal
______

A

Metabolism

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245
Q

High body temperature also increases ________ activity

A

Phagocytic

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246
Q

A species is resistant to certain diseases to which other species are
susceptible

A

Species resistance

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247
Q

Unbroken skin and mucous membranes prevent the entrance of some
infectious agents. What type of barrier is this?

A

Mechanical barriers

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248
Q

A tissue response to injury that helps prevent the spread of infectious agents
into nearby tissues

A

Inflammation

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249
Q

Enzymes in various body fluids kill pathogens. What type of barrier is this?

A

Chemical barrier

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250
Q

pH extremes and high salt
concentration also harm pathogens. What type of barrier is this?

A

Chemical barrier

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251
Q

Interferons induce production of other
proteins that block reproduction of viruses, stimulate phagocytosis, and
enhance the activity of cells such that they resist infection and the growth of
tumors. What type of barrier is this?

A

Chemical barrier

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252
Q

Defensins damage bacterial cell walls and membranes. What type of barrier is this?

A

Chemical barrier

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253
Q

Collectins
bind to microbes. What type of barrier is this?

A

Chemical barrier

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254
Q

Complement stimulates inflammation, attracts phagocytes,
and enhances phagocytosis. What type of barrier is this?

A

Chemical barrier

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255
Q

Fluids wash away microorganisms before they can firmly
attach to tissues. What type of barrier is this?

A

Mechanical barrier

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256
Q

Distinct type of lymphocyte that secretes perforins that lyse virus-infected
cells and cancer cells

A

Natural killer cells

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257
Q

Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages engulf and destroy foreign
particles and cells

A

Phagocytosis

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258
Q

Elevated body temperature indirectly inhibits microbial growth and increases
phagocytic activity

A

Fever

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259
Q

_______ of defense is resistance to particular pathogens or to
their toxins or metabolic by-products

A

Third line

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260
Q

the ability to distinguish molecules that are part of the
body (“self”) from “non-self” is a characteristic of what type of defenses?

A

Adaptive defenses

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261
Q

Non-self molecules that can evoke an immune
response

A

Antigens

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262
Q

_______ responses are carried out by lymphocytes and
macrophages that can recognize specific antigens

A

Adaptive

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263
Q

Adaptive responses are carried out by _____ and
_____ that can recognize specific antigens

A

Lymphocytes; macrophages

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264
Q

Adaptive responses are carried out by lymphocytes and
macrophages that can recognize specific _____

A

Antigens

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265
Q

What are the two types of adaptive defenses?

A

Cellular immune response (performed by immune cells)
Humoral immune response (performed by antibodies)

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266
Q

Cellular immune response is performed by _______ cells

A

Immune

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267
Q

Humoral immune response is performed by _______

A

Antibodies

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268
Q

What is the first line of defense against pathogens?

A

Mechanical barriers (skin and mucous membranes)

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269
Q

What is the second line of defense, after a pathogen has entered the body?

A

Chemical barriers
Natural killer cells
Inflammation
Phagocytosis
Fever

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270
Q

What is the third line of defense against pathogens?

A

Cellular immune response
Humoral immune response

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271
Q

What enables the cells to
recognize non-self antigens?

A

Receptors on the surface of lymphocytes

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272
Q

Lymphatic system responds to ____________, but not self antigens
(under normal circumstances)

A

Non-self antigens

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273
Q

Antigens may be:

A

Progeins
Polysaccharides
Glycoproteins
Glycolipids

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274
Q

Most effective antigens are ______ and _______ molecules

A

Large; complex

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275
Q

Small molecules that are not antigenic by themselves, but
when they combine with a large molecule in the body, they can evoke an
immune response

A

Haptens

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276
Q

Lymphocytes are produced throughout life, starting during ____ development.

A

Fetal

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277
Q

________ are produced throughout life, starting during fetal development.

A

Lymphocytes

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278
Q

_______ releases unspecialized lymphocyte precursors into blood.

A

Red bone marrow

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279
Q

Red bone marrow releases ___________ into blood.

A

Unspecialized lymphocyte precursors

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280
Q

Red bone marrow releases unspecialized lymphocyte precursors into _____

A

Blood

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281
Q

Half of all unspecialized lymphocyte precursors settle in the _____, specialize, and are then released (become B cells)

A

Thymus

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282
Q

Half of all unspecialized lymphocyte precursors settle in the thymus, specialize, and are then released (become ______)

A

B cells

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283
Q

Other half of cells differentiate in red bone marrow, and are then released
(become _____)

A

B cells

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284
Q

Unspecialized lymphocyte precursors differentiate in…

A

Half in the thymus, half in red bone marrow

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285
Q

What are the two main types of lymphocytes

A

T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes

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286
Q

What does the T in T-cells stand for?

A

Thymus-derived; lymphocytes

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287
Q

What does the B in B-cells stand for?

A

B = bursa of fabricius (in chickens); derived from red bone marrow

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288
Q

Which lymphocytes specialize in the thymus?

A

T lymphocytes

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289
Q

Where do T-lymphocytes specialize?

A

The thymus

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290
Q

Which cells make up 70 to 80% of circulating lymphocytes after specialization?

A

T lymphocytes

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291
Q

Which cells make up 20 to 30% of lymphocytes in blood?

A

B lymphocytes

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292
Q

Which lymphocytes are abundant in lymph nodes, spleen, bone marrow, and intestinal lining?

A

B lymphocytes

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293
Q

What is the origin of undifferentiated T cells?

A

Red bone marrow

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294
Q

What is the origin of undifferentiated B cells?

A

Red bone marrow

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295
Q

Where is the site of differentiation for T cells?

A

Thymus

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296
Q

Where is the site of differentiation for B cells?

A

Red bone marrow

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297
Q

What are the primary locations for T cells?

A

Lymphatic tissues
70 to 80% of the circulating lymphocytes in blood

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298
Q

What are the primary locations for B cells?

A

Lymphatic tissues
20 to 30% of the circulating lymphocytes in blood

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299
Q

What are the primary functions of T cells?

A

Provide cellular immune
response in which T
cells interact directly
with the antigens or
antigen-bearing agents,
to destroy them

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300
Q

What are the primary functions of B cells?

A

Provide humoral immune
response in which B cells
interact indirectly, producing
antibodies that destroy the
antigens or antigen-bearing
agents

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301
Q

A lymphocyte has to be _____ before it can respond to presence of an antigen

A

Activated

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302
Q

__________ requires that antigenic fragments be attached to antigen-
presenting cell (APC, accessory cell)

A

T cell activation

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303
Q

T cell activation requires that antigenic fragments be attached to an ___________

A

Antigen-presenting cell (APC, accessory cell)

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304
Q

APC phagocytizes antigen, digests it, and displays antigenic fragments on its own cell membrane, bound to protein that is part of the _____________ or human leukocyte antigens (HLA)

A

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

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305
Q

When specific T cell encounters an APC displaying antigenic fragments bound to
MHC proteins, it can now recognize antigen as foreign

A

Foreign

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306
Q

When specific T cell encounters an APC displaying antigenic fragments bound to
MHC proteins, it can now recognize antigen as foreign. T cell is now ______

A

Activated

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307
Q

T cells can secrete polypeptides called _______, which enhance some cellular
responses to antigens

A

Cytokines

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308
Q

What are the types of specialized T cells?

A

Helper T cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Memory T cells

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309
Q

Specialized T cells called _________ Activate other cells; stimulates B cells to produce antibodies

A

Helper T cells

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310
Q

Specialized T cells called ___________ Attack virally infected or cancerous cells

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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311
Q

Specialized T cells called __________ provide future immune protection

A

Memory T cells

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312
Q

What are the four types of cytokines?

A

Colony-stimulating factors
Interferons
Interleukins
Tumor necrosis factor

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313
Q

Cytokines that Stimulate bone marrow to produce
lymphocytes

A

Colony-stimulating factors

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314
Q

Cytokines that Block viral replication, stimulate
macrophages to engulf viruses, stimulate
B cells to produce antibodies, attack
cancer cells

A

Interferons

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315
Q

Cytokines that Control lymphocyte differentiation and
proliferation

A

Interleukins

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316
Q

cytokine that Stops tumor growth, releases growth
factors, causes fever that accompanies
bacterial infection, stimulates lymphocyte
differentiation

A

Tumor necrosis factor

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317
Q

B cells can be _______ when an antigen fits the shape of their
receptors, and binds to them

A

Activated

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318
Q

Further B cell activation requires ________ from T cells

A

Cytokines

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319
Q

Once proper cytokines are released from Helper T cells, B cells
respond by _________, enlarging clone of identical cells

A

Proliferating

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320
Q

Some new B cells become ________, which provide
future immunity

A

Memory B cells

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321
Q

Other new B cells differentiate into _______, which produce
and secrete large globular proteins called antibodies or
immunoglobulins

A

Plasma cells

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322
Q

Other new B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which produce
and secrete large globular proteins called ______ or ________

A

Antibodies; immunoglobulins

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323
Q

Since antibodies are carried by the blood (a body fluid) to the
infection site, this type of response is called the humoral immune
response, or the ______________

A

Antibody-mediated immune response

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324
Q

Antibodies are _____ proteins

A

Globular

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325
Q

Antibodies Make up the __________ fraction of plasma proteins

A

Gama globulin

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326
Q

Antibodies are also called

A

Immunoglobulins

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327
Q

Antibodies are ___-shaped proteins, composed of 4 amino acid chains: 2 heavy
and 2 light chains

A

Y

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328
Q

Antibodies are y-shaped proteins, composed of 4 amino acid chains: 2 ____
and 2 ____ chains

A

Heavy; light

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329
Q

Each type of antibody has unique ________ sequence and
conformation, making it specific for its antigen

A

Amino acid

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330
Q

What are the 5 major types of antibodies or immunoglobulins?

A

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE

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331
Q

Which type of antibody makes up 80% of antibodies; act on bacteria, viruses, toxins

A

IgG

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332
Q

Which type of antibody makes up 13% of antibodies; found in exocrine gland secretions

A

IgA

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333
Q

Which type of antibody makes up 6% of antibodies; act on antigens in foods and bacteria

A

IgM

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334
Q

Which type of antibody makes up <1% of antibodies; found on B cell surfaces, common in infants

A

IgD

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335
Q

Which type of antibody makes up <1% of antibodies; found in exocrine gland secretions

A

IgE

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336
Q

Where does IgG occur?

A

Plasma and tissue fluid

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337
Q

What are the major functions of IgG?

A

Defends against bacteria, viruses,
and toxins; activates complement

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338
Q

Which immunoglobulin occurs in plasma and tissue fluid?

A

IgG

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339
Q

Which immunoglobulin Defends against bacteria, viruses,
and toxins; activates complement

A

IgG

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340
Q

Where does IgA occur?

A

Exocrine gland secretions

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341
Q

What are the major functions of IgA?

A

Defends against bacteria and viruses

342
Q

Which immunoglobulin comes from exocrine gland secretions?

A

IgA

343
Q

Which immunoglobulin defends against bacteria and viruses?

A

IgA

344
Q

Where does IgM occur?

A

Plasma

345
Q

What are the major functions of IgM?

A

Reacts with antigens on some red
blood cell membranes following
mismatched blood transfusions;
activates complement

346
Q

Which immunoglobulin occurs in plasma?

A

IgM

347
Q

Which immunoglobulin Reacts with antigens on some red
blood cell membranes following
mismatched blood transfusions;
activates complement

A

IgM

348
Q

Where does IgD occur?

A

Surface of most B lymphocytes

349
Q

What are the major functions of IgD

A

Activates B cell

350
Q

Where does IgE occur?

A

Exocrine gland secretions

351
Q

What are the major functions of IgE?

A

Promotes inflammation and allergic responses

352
Q

What are the three different ways antibodies respond to antigens?

A

Agglutination
Precipitation
Neutralization

353
Q

Clumping of antigens, making phagocytosis easier

A

Agglutination

354
Q

Make antigens insoluble, making phagocytosis easier

A

Precipitation

355
Q

Cover toxic portions of antigens, making them harmless

A

Neutralization

356
Q

More effective against antigens than direct attack

A

Activation of complement

357
Q

Activation of ______Occurs with certain IgG and IgM antibodies

A

Complement

358
Q

What are the four actions of activated complement proteins?

A

Opsonization
Chemotaxis
Lysis
Neutralization

359
Q

When activated complement proteins Coat antigen-antibody complexes, it is called

A

Opsonization

360
Q

When activated complement proteins attract macrophages and neutrophils, it is called

A

Chemotaxis

361
Q

When activated complement proteins rupture cell membranes of pathogens, it is called

A

Lysis

362
Q

When activated complement proteins change the structure of viruses so they are harmless, it is called what?

A

Neutralization

363
Q

Inflammatory chemicals cause what?

A

Edema; vasodilation

364
Q

stimulation of local change and inflammation occur to help prevent the spread of ?

A

Infection

365
Q

A direct attack by antibodies produces what type of effect?

A

Agglutination
Precipitation
Neutralization

366
Q

What is it called when antigens clump?

A

Agglutintaion

367
Q

What is it called when antigens become insoluble?

A

Precipitation

368
Q

What is it called when antigens lose toxic properties?

A

Neutralization

369
Q

Activation of complement (antibodies combined with antigens) produces what type of effect?

A

Opsonization
Chemotaxis
Agglutination
Lysis
Neutralization

370
Q

What is it called when antibodies alter antigen cell membranes so cells are more susceptible to phagocytosis?

A

Opsonization

371
Q

What is it called when antibodies attract macrophages and neutrophils into the region?

A

Chemotaxis

372
Q

What is it called when antibodies clump antigen-bearing cells?

A

Agglutination

373
Q

What is it called when antibodies allow rapid movement of water and ions into the foreign cell, causing osmotic rupture of the foreign cell?

A

Lysis

374
Q

What is it called when antibodies alter the molecular structure of viruses, making them harmless?

A

Neutralization

375
Q

What are localized changes by antibodies?

A

Inflammation

376
Q

A localized change called ________ helps prevent the spread of antigens

A

Inflammation

377
Q

__________ makes use of immune system components
to fight disease (the humoral immune response by antibodies
and the cellular immune response by cytokines).

A

Immunotherapy

378
Q

Immunotherapy makes use of ____________________
to fight disease (the humoral immune response by antibodies
and the cellular immune response by cytokines).

A

immune system components

379
Q

A specific B cell, which produces a single type of antibody (__________),
can be fused with a cancerous cell to produce a cell that produces 1 type of
antibody, and keeps dividing

A

Monoclonal

380
Q

Antibodies Used in research, agriculture, pregnancy tests, detecting new or
reoccurring cancers, delivering medications specifically to tumors

A

Monoclonal antibodies

381
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies used in research?

A

They can be fused with a cancerous cell to produce a cell that produces 1 type of antibody and keeps dividing

382
Q

______ can now be produced in large quantities, due to recombinant DNA and
monoclonal antibody techniques

A

Cytokines

383
Q

Cytokines can now be produced in large quantities, due to recombinant DNA and
____________________

A

Monoclonal antibody techniques

384
Q

A type of antibody used to treat leukemia, multiple sclerosis, hepatitis, genital warts,
melanoma, kidney cancer

A

Cytokines

385
Q

______ immune response: Produced by first encounter with antigen

A

Primary

386
Q

During primary immune response, __ and __ cells specific for the antigen become activated

A

B; T

387
Q

During ___________ immune response, B and T cells specific for the antigen become activated

A

Primary

388
Q

During ______ immune response, Plasma cells releases IgM, and then IgG antibodies

A

Primary

389
Q

During primary immune response, Plasma cells releases ____, and then ____ antibodies

A

IgM; IgG

390
Q

During _____ immune response, First antibodies appear in 5 to 10 days, and remain for several weeks

A

Primary

391
Q

During primary immune response, First antibodies appear in _____ days, and remain for several weeks

A

5 to 10

392
Q

During primary immune response, _____ cells are also produced

A

Memory B

393
Q

Response to subsequent exposure to same antigen corresponds to which immune response?

A

Secondary

394
Q

Which immune response Produces high concentration of antibodies in 1 to 2 days

A

Secondary

395
Q

Which immune response is Accomplished by Memory B cells and Memory T cells

A

Secondary

396
Q

After which immune response to
Antibodies remain for months or years

A

Secondary

397
Q

After which immune response do memory B cells live for many years

A

Secondary

398
Q

What are the two classifications of immunity based on how it is acquired

A

Naturally or artificially

399
Q

what type of immunity is Obtained by a natural process, such as getting and recovering from the disease, or given from mother to fetus or infant

A

Natural

400
Q

What type of immunity is Obtained by an injection, instead of a natural process

A

Artificial

401
Q

What are the two classifications of immunity based on whether it is temporary or permanent

A

Passive or active immunity

402
Q

Temporary immunity obtained via antibodies; no antigen exposure; no immune response is evoked in person’s immune system

A

Passive immunity

403
Q

Permanent immunity obtained via antigen contact; immune response is evoked, and memory B cells are produced

A

Active immunity

404
Q

What is the difference between passive or active immunity?

A

Passive immunity is acquired from antibodies and not exposure to the antigen. i.e., a vaccine. Active immunity is acquired from exposure to the antigen itself.

405
Q

What is the mechanism by which naturally acquired active immunity occurs?

A

Exposure to live pathogens

406
Q

What is the method by which artificially acquired active immunity occurs?

A

Exposure to a vaccine containing weakened or dead pathogens or their components

407
Q

Method by which naturally acquired passive immunity occurs?

A

Antibodies passed to fetus from pregnant woman with active immunity or to newborn
through colostrum or breast milk from a woman with active immunity

408
Q

Method by which artificially acquired passive immunity occurs?

A

Injection of antiserum containing specific antibodies or antitoxin

409
Q

What is the result of naturally acquired active immunity?

A

Stimulation of an immune
response with symptoms of a
disease

410
Q

What is the result of artificially acquired active immunity?

A

Stimulation of an immune
response without symptoms of
a disease

411
Q

What is the result of naturally acquired passive immunity?

A

Short-term immunity for
newborn without stimulating an
immune response

412
Q

What is the result of artificially acquired passive immunity?

A

Short-term immunity without
stimulating an immune
response

413
Q

Exaggerated immune response to non-harmful antigen

A

Hypersensitivity

414
Q

With ______, the person is pre-sensitized to a certain antigen

A

hypersensitivity

415
Q

Some ______ can affect almost anyone (exaggerated immune response

A

Hypersensitivities

416
Q

Some ________ can affect only people with inherited ability to have an exaggerated immune response

A

hypersensitivities

417
Q

What are the four types of sensitivities?

A
  • Immediate reaction
  • Antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction
  • Immune-complex reaction
  • delayed-reaction hypersensitivity
418
Q

Which type of sensitivity is an allergy?

A

Type I (immediate-reaction)

419
Q

During type I (immediate-reaction) sensitivity, a person produces many IgE antibodies against a specific ________

A

Allergen

420
Q

What type of hypersensitivity Occurs minutes after contact with allergen; histamine is released

A

Type 1 (immediate reaction)

421
Q

What type of hypersensitivity has symptoms that include hives, hay fever, asthma, eczema, gastric disturbances,
and anaphylactic shock (a life-threatening severe form)

A

Type 1 (immediate reaction)

422
Q

During which hypersensitivity reaction does the Antigen bind to specific cell; causes phagocytosis, and complement lyses antigen

A

Type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction)

423
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is a transfusion reaction?

A

Type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction)

424
Q

During which hypersensitivity reaction do Antigen-antibody complexes form and deposit in certain tissues

A

Type III (immune-complex) reaction

425
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction Damages tissue via phagocytosis and complement-binding

A

Type III (immune-complex reaction)

426
Q

In which hypersensitivity reaction can Antibody complexes not be cleared from the body

A

Type III (immune-complex) reaction

427
Q

What is an example of a type III hypersensitivity?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

428
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction may affect anyone?

A

Type IV (delayed reaction)

429
Q

Which hypersensitivity results from repeated exposure of skin to allergen

A

Type IV (delayed-reaction)

430
Q

with which hypersensitivity reaction does the Allergen activate T cells in skin, which release chemicals that cause
eruptions and inflammation

A

Type IV (delayed-reaction)

431
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction takes about 48 hours to occur?

A

Type IV (delayed reaction)

432
Q

What is the general response of a type I (immediate-reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Overproduction of IgE antibodies

433
Q

What is the general response of a type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis of antigen

434
Q

What is the general response of a type III (immune complex reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Phagocytosis and lysis cannot clear antigen-antibody complexes

435
Q

What is the general response of a type IV (delayed-reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

T cells and macrophages release chemical factors into the skin

436
Q

What is an example of a type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Hay fever

437
Q

What is an example of type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Mismatched blood transfusion

438
Q

What is an example of type III (immune complex reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Autoimmunity

439
Q

What is an example of type IV (delayed-reaction) hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Dermatitis

440
Q

What are the tissues and organs that can be transplanted?

A

Bone, cornea, kidney, liver, pancreas, heart, bone marrow, skin, lungs

441
Q

When the donor’s tissues are recognized as foreign, there is a _________ reaction;
recipient’s immune system will try to destroy foreign tissue

A

tissue rejection

442
Q

Damage to recipient’s tissues by molecules in immunologically
active transplanted tissue, such as bone marrow

A

Graft-versus-host disease

443
Q

______ reaction resembles the cellular immune response against antigens

A

Rejection

444
Q

Important to match ___ antigens between donor and recipient

A

MHC

445
Q

the greater the ________
difference, the stronger and faster the rejection reaction will occur

A

antigenic

446
Q

___________ drugs are used to prevent rejection

A

Immunosuppressive

447
Q

Well-matched transplants may not require life-long immunosuppressive drugs, if ________________ from donor are given along with transplant

A

Bone marrow stem cells

448
Q

What are the different types of grafts?

A

Autografts
Isografts
Allografts
Xenografts

449
Q

What is an autograft?

A

A transplant from self

450
Q

What is an isograft?

A

a transplant from an identical twin

451
Q

Which types of grafts would not cause a rejection reaction?

A

Autografts and isografts

452
Q

What is an allograft?

A

A transplant from a person other than an identical twin

453
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

A transplant from a different species

454
Q

Which types of grafts would tend to cause a rejection reaction?

A

Allografts and xenografts

455
Q

Who would the donor be for an isograft?

A

Identical twin

456
Q

Who would the donor be for an autograft?

A

Self

457
Q

Who would the donor be for an allograft?

A

Same species

458
Q

Who would be the donor for a xenograft?

A

Different species

459
Q

What is an example of an isograft?

A

Bone marrow transplant from a
healthy twin to a twin who has
leukemia

460
Q

What is an example of an autograft?

A

Skin graft from one part of the body to replace burned skin

461
Q

What is an example of an allograft?

A

Kidney transplant from a relative or closely matched donor

462
Q

What is an example of a xenograft?

A

Heart valves from a pig

463
Q

An attack by the immune system against own tissues

A

Autoimmunity

464
Q

The immune system fails to distinguish “self” from “non-
self,” and the body produces antibodies called
_________

A

Autoantibodies

465
Q

In autoimmunity, _________ cells also attack the body’s tissues and organs

A

Cytotoxic T

466
Q

Various autoimmune disorders affect different types of _____

A

Cells

467
Q

True or false? There are several theories concerning the cause(s) of
autoimmune disorders, but no single cause has been
established

A

True

468
Q

What are the different autoimmune disorders?

A

Glomerulonephritis
Graves’ disease
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
hemolytic anemia
Multiple Sclerosis
Myasthenia gravis
Pernicious anemia
Rheumatic fever
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Ulcerative colitis

469
Q

Symptoms of glomerulonephritis

A

Lower back pain

470
Q

Symptoms of graves’ disease

A

Restlessness, weight loss, irritability, increased heart rate and blood pressure

471
Q

Symptoms of type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

Thirst, hunger, weakness, emaciation

472
Q

Symptoms of hemolytic anemia

A

Fatigue and weakness

473
Q

Symptoms of multiple sclerosis

A

Weakness, incoordination, speech disturbances, visual complaints

474
Q

Symptoms of myasthenia gravis

A

muscle weakness

475
Q

Symptoms of pernicious anemia

A

Fatigue and weakness

476
Q

Symptoms of rheumatic fever

A

Weakness, shortness of breath

477
Q

Symptoms of theumatoid arthritis

A

Joint pain and deformity

478
Q

Symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Red rash on face, prolonged fever, weakness, kidney damage, joint pain

479
Q

Symptoms of ulcerative colitis

A

Lower abdominal pain

480
Q

People with glomerulonephritis have what type of autoimmune antibodies?

A

Kidney cell antigens that resemble streptococcal bacteria antigens

481
Q

People with graves’ disease have what type of autoimmune antibodies?

A

Thyroid gland antigens near thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor, causing overactivity

482
Q

People with type 1 diabetes mellitus have antibodies against?

A

Pancreatic beta cells

483
Q

People with hemolyic anemia have antibodies against?

A

Red blood cells

484
Q

People with multiple sclerosis have antibodies against?

A

Myelin in peripheral nerves and in the white mattre of the central nervous system

485
Q

People with Myasthenia gravis have antibodies against?

A

Receptors for neurotransmitters on skeletal muscle

486
Q

People with pernicious anemia have antibodies against?

A

binding site for vitamin B on cells lining stomach

487
Q

People with Rheumatic fever have antibodies against?

A

Heart valve cell antigens that resemble streptococcal bacteria antigens

488
Q

People with Rheumatoid arthritis have antibodies against?

A

Cells lining joints

489
Q

People with systemic lupus erythematosus have antibodies against?

A

Connective tissue

490
Q

People with ulcerative colitis have antibodies against!

A

Colon cells

491
Q

A virus that breaks down the immune system

A

HIV

492
Q

What does HIV stand for?

A

Human Immunodeficiency virus

493
Q

HIV May stay silent for years, and then progress to _____; then opportunistic infections begin

A

AIDS

494
Q

HIV attacks ________ and then _______

A

Macrophages; helper T cells

495
Q

When _________ numbers decline, B cells cannot produce antibodies,
due to lack of cytokine activation

A

Helper T cell

496
Q

When Helper T cell numbers decline, ______ cannot produce antibodies,
due to lack of cytokine activation

A

B cells

497
Q

In HIV, when Helper T cell numbers decline, B cells cannot produce antibodies, due to lack of ____ activation

A

cytokine

498
Q

Later, HIV variants affect _________ cells too

A

Cytotoxic

499
Q

An AIDS infected person Person dies from loss of immune response against ______, ______

A

Pathogens, cancers

500
Q

How is AIDS transmitted?

A

Sexual contact, contaminated needles, birth or milk from infected mother, receiving infected blood or tissues from donor

501
Q

Immune system function declines early in life, as the thymus gland
____ (only 25% as powerful as it once was)

A

Shrinks

502
Q

Strength of immune response ________ in elderly people

A

Decreases

503
Q

As you age, you develop a Higher risk of infection, cancer, diseases like pneumonia as a person
_____

A

Ages

504
Q

As you age, T cell numbers decrease very slightly, and B cell numbers do not
change, but ______ level declines in both types of lymphocytes

A

Activity

505
Q

As you age, ____ numbers decrease very slightly, and B cell numbers do not
change, but activity level declines in both types of lymphocytes

A

T cell

506
Q

As you age, T cell numbers decrease very slightly, and ____ numbers do not
change, but activity level declines in both types of lymphocytes

A

B cell

507
Q

As you age, _______ response to antigens becomes slower

A

Antibody

508
Q

Which types of antibodies INCREASE as you age?

A

IgA and IgG

509
Q

Which types of antibodies DECREASE as you age?

A

IgM and IgE

510
Q

As you age, vaccines may require an extra ____

A

Dose

511
Q

As you age, More _______ may be produced, increasing chance of
developing an autoimmune disease

A

Autoantibodies

512
Q

Elderly may not be candidates for certain medical treatments that
suppresses _______, such as chemotherapy

A

Immunity

513
Q

The respiratory system is Specialized to bring ____ into body, and expel _________

A

Oxygen; carbon dioxide

514
Q

The _____ consists of passages that filter, moisten, and warm incoming air and transport it into the body, into the lungs, and to the many microscopic air sacs where
gases are exchanged

A

Respiratory system

515
Q

The respiratory system produces ____ sounds

A

vocal

516
Q

The _____ system helps with a sense of smell

A

Respiratory

517
Q

The respiratory system helps regulate _____

A

Blood pH

518
Q

Process of exchanging gases between the atmosphere and body cells

A

Respiration

519
Q

Refers to the way an organism acquires energy; oxygen required to produce energy

A

Respiration

520
Q

What is required to produce energy during respiration?

A

Oxygen

521
Q

Respiration consists of what events?

A

External, internal and cellular respiration.

522
Q

Ventilation or breathing; allows gas exchange in lungs

A

External respiration

523
Q

Gas transport in blood and exchange with body cells

A

Internal respiration

524
Q

Process of ATP production in mitochondria, which uses oxygen
to harness energy and gives off carbon dioxide

A

Cellular respiration

525
Q

What are the organs of the respiratory system? Upper and lower tract.

A

Nose
nasal cavity
sinuses
pharynx
larynx
trachea
bronchial tree
lungs

526
Q

What are the organs of the UPPER respiratory tract

A

Nose
Nasal cavity
Sinuses
Pharynx
Larynx

527
Q

What are the organs of the LOWER respiratory tract?

A

Trachea
Bronchial Tree
Lungs

528
Q

_______ provide openings for air to enter and leave nasal cavity

A

Nostrils (external nares)

529
Q

Nasal openings are protected from particles by internal ______

A

Hairs

530
Q

Hollow space behind the nose

A

Nasal cavity

531
Q

The nasal cavity Separated into left and right portions by the _______

A

Nasal septum

532
Q

_____________ curl in from lateral walls of the nasal cavity

A

Nasal conchae (turbinate bones)

533
Q

Conchae separate nasal cavity into passageways called _________

A

Meatuses

534
Q

Upper portion of nasal cavity contains ____________ for sense of smell

A

Olfactory receptors

535
Q

The nasal cavity is Lined with what kind of tissue?

A

Mucous membrane (pseudostratified ciliated epithelium)

536
Q

In the nasal cavity, Goblet cells produce _____, which traps dust and pathogens

A

Mucus

537
Q

What type of cells produce mucus?

A

Goblet cells

538
Q

In the nasal cavity, ______ sweep mucus toward pharynx (“mucociliary escalator”), where it is swallowed

A

Cilia

539
Q

In the nasal cavity, Cilia sweep mucus toward _____ (“mucociliary escalator”), where it is swallowed

A

Pharynx

540
Q

What is the action of cilia sweeping mucus towards the pharynx sometimes called?

A

Mucociliary escalator

541
Q

Pathogens and particles from the nasal cavity are destroyed in the ______; prevents infection

A

Stomach

542
Q

The nasal cavity Functions in conduction of ___; warms, moistens, and filters incoming

A

Air

543
Q

______ support the mucus membrane that lines the nasal cavity, and help increase the mucous membrane’s surface area

A

Nasal conchae

544
Q

Air-filled spaces in the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and
sphenoid bones of the skull

A

Sinuses

545
Q

Where are the sinuses of the respiratory system located?

A

Maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid

546
Q

Sinuses open into the?

A

Nasal cavity

547
Q

The mucous membrane lining is continuous with the lining of the?

A

Nasal cavity

548
Q

What helps to reduce the weight of the skull?

A

Sinuses

549
Q

What helps to resonate the voice?

A

Sinuses

550
Q

Sinusitis, due to infection or allergic reaction, may result in blockage of sinus drainage, causing sinus pressure and headache

A

Sinusitis

551
Q

Respiratory system damage from ________ is slow, progressive, and
sometimes deadly

A

Smoking

552
Q

Smoking slows and eventually paralyzes ____, and dirt and pathogens
can no longer be removed from the respiratory system

A

Cilia

553
Q

______ occurs when cilia no longer function, excess mucus
is produced, and mucus must be coughed up

A

Smoker’s cough

554
Q

Once cilia no longer function due to smoking, pathogens can now access respiratory surfaces, causing more
______

A

Infections

555
Q

Coughing leads to?

A

Chronis bronchitis

556
Q

Bronchial thickening results in difficulty with?

A

Expiration

557
Q

Smoking leads to alveolar walls being destroyed, leading to _______

A

Emphysema

558
Q

Once ciliated cells are destroyed from smoking, _______ cells may start dividing, and replacing ciliated cells

A

Abnormal

559
Q

_______ develops in 20% of smokers

A

Lung cancer

560
Q

____ endangers nonsmokers

A

ETS (environmental tobacco smoke)

561
Q

Space posterior to the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and larynx

A

Pharynx

562
Q

Passageway for food and air (shared by digestive and respiratory systems)

A

Pharynx

563
Q

Which upper respiratory tract organ ____ aids in sound production

A

Pharynx

564
Q

What are the three portions of the pharynx?

A

Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx

565
Q

Superior to soft palate; air passage;
contains openings to auditory tubes

A

Nasopharynx

566
Q

Posterior to mouth, inferior to nasopharynx; passageway for food and air

A

Oropharynx

567
Q

Inferior to oropharynx; continuous with
larynx and esophagus

A

Laryngopharynx

568
Q

An enlargement in the airway superior to trachea, and anterior and
slightly inferior to laryngopharynx

A

Larynx

569
Q

Moves air in and out of trachea

A

Larynx

570
Q

What are the houses of vocal cords composed of?

A

a framework of muscles and cartilages bound by elastic tissue

571
Q

What are the 3 large single cartilages of the vocal cord houses?

A

Thyroid (adam’s apple)
Cricoid
Epiglottic

572
Q

What are the 3 pairs of small artilages of the vocal cord houses?

A

Arytenoid
Corniculate
Cuneiform

573
Q

Largest vocal cord cartilage, thyroid gland covers lower part

A

Thyroid (Adam’s apple)

574
Q

Cartilage below thyroid cartilage

A

Cricoid

575
Q

Central portion of flap-like epiglottis

A

Epiglottic

576
Q

Regulates vocal cord tension or spech and close larynx for swallowing

A

Small cartilages

577
Q

The larynx contains 2 pairs of horizontal ______ composed of muscle and connective tissue

A

Vocal folds

578
Q

False vocal cords:

A

Upper (vestibular) folds
No sound production

579
Q

Which vocal cords are the upper (vestibular) folds

A

False vocal cords

580
Q

Which vocal cords do not produce sounds?

A

False vocal cords

581
Q

Which vocal cords help close the airway during swallowing?

A

False vocal cords

582
Q

Which vocal cords are the lower folds?

A

True vocal cords

583
Q

Which vocal cords produce vocal sounds?

A

True vocal cords

584
Q

Which vocal cords create sound as air is forced between them, vibrating them?

A

True vocal cords

585
Q

Which vocal cords have an opening between them called the glottis?

A

True vocal cords

586
Q

The true vocal cords have an opening between them called the ______

A

Glottis

587
Q

Flexible cylindrical tube, 2.5 cm in diameter, 12.5 cm in length

A

Trachea

588
Q

Extends downward anterior to the esophagus

A

Trachea

589
Q

The trachea is also called the _____

A

Windpipe

590
Q

As the trachea enters the thoracic cavity, it splits into left and right _________ at the carina.

A

Primary bronchi

591
Q

As the trachea enters the thoracic cavity, it splits into left and right primary bronchi at the ______

A

Carina

592
Q

What is the trachea lined with?

A

Ciliated mucous membrane with goblet cells

593
Q

Ciliated mucous membrane is also called?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

594
Q

The wall of the trachea has 20 C-shaped rings of ___________ to prevent collapse of trachea

A

Hyaline cartilage

595
Q

A procedure that cuts an opening in the
trachea, to insert a tube for air exchange; done, for example, if an object is lodged in the larynx or trachea

A

Tracheostomy

596
Q

The _______ consists of branched airways leading from the trachea to the microscopic air sacs in the lungs

A

Bronchial tree

597
Q

The bronchial tree consists of branched airways leading from the _______ to the ____________ in the lungs

A

Trachea; microscopic air sacs

598
Q

Starting with the trachea, branching airways resemble an upside-down ____

A

Tree

599
Q

Branch from trachea, each leads to
a lung

A

Right and left main (primary) bronchi

600
Q

Right and left main (primary) bronchi:

A

Branch from trachea, each leads to a lung

601
Q

Branch from main bronchi; 2 on left, 3 on right

A

Lobar (secondary) bronchi

602
Q

Lobar (secondary) bronchi:

A

Branch from main bronchi; 2 on left, 3 on right

603
Q

Each enters a segment; 8 on left, 10 on right

A

Segmental (tertiary) bronchi

604
Q

Segmental (tertiary) bronchi:

A

Each enters a segment; 8 on left, 10 on right

605
Q

Each enters a lobule

A

Intralobular bronchioles

606
Q

Intralobular bronchioles:

A

Each enters a lobule

607
Q

40 to 80 in each lobule

A

Terminal bronchioles

608
Q

Terminal bronchioles:

A

40 to 80 in each lobule

609
Q

First structures to conduct gas exchange; alveoli
bud from sides of their walls

A

Respiratory bronchioles:

610
Q

Respiratory bronchioles:

A

First structures to conduct gas exchange; alveoli
bud from sides of their walls

611
Q

Branches of respiratory bronchioles

A

Alveolar ducts

612
Q

Outpouchings of alveolar ducts

A

alveolar sacs

613
Q

Microscopic air sacs that perform gas exchange; open into sacs

A

Alveoli

614
Q

Structure of ________ is similar to trachea, but they contain
cartilaginous plates instead of C-shaped rings

A

Main bronchi

615
Q

Structure of main bronchi is similar to trachea, but they contain
________ instead of C-shaped rings

A

Cartilaginous plates

616
Q

As bronchi continue to branch, they become _____, and amount of
cartilage decreases

A

Narrower

617
Q

As bronchi continue to branch, they become narrower, and amount of
______ decreases

A

Cartilage

618
Q

Cartilage disappears in the bronchioles; allows changes in diameter
(________ and __________)

A

Bronchodilation; bronchoconstriction

619
Q

_________ becomes more prominent, then begins to diminish from
bronchioles to alveolar ducts, where it disappears

A

Smooth muscle

620
Q

Smooth muscle becomes more prominent, then begins to diminish from
bronchioles to _______, where it disappears

A

Alveolar ducts

621
Q

As respiratory tubes become thinner, type of ______ changes

A

Epithelium

622
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the larger tubes of the respiratory system?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

623
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the respiratory bronchioles?

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

624
Q

What type of epithelum is found in the alveoli?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

625
Q

Why are the alveoli made of simple squamous epithelium?

A

The alveoli are the sites of gas exchange in the lungs. They use this type of tissue because it is thin and allows gas exchange to take place

626
Q

Branches of bronchial tree are air passages, _________, but not performing gas exchange

A

Transporting air

627
Q

What provides surface area for gas exchange?

A

Alveoli

628
Q

Only structure that contain ______ can perform gas exchange

A

Alveoli

629
Q

During gas exchange, ____ diffuses through alveolar and
capillary walls to enter the blood

A

O2

630
Q

____ diffuses from the blood to alveoli

A

CO2

631
Q

Soft, spongy, cone-shaped organs in the thoracic cavity

A

Lungs

632
Q

The ____ are separated from each other by heart and mediastinum

A

Lungs

633
Q

The right lung has how many lobes?

A

Three

634
Q

The left lung has how many lobes?

A

Two

635
Q

Region on medial surface of each lung through which
bronchus and large blood vessels enter

A

Hilum

636
Q

Double-layered serous membrane surrounding lungs

A

Pleura

637
Q

Inner layer of serous membrane; attached
to surface of lung

A

Pleura

638
Q

Outer layer of serous membrane; lines
thoracic cavity

A

Parietal pleura

639
Q

Potential space between visceral and
parietal pleura

A

Pleural cavity

640
Q

A naturally occurring mineral, formerly used in buildings because it resists burning; airborne fibers can lead to scarring of lungs, shortness of breath, lung cancer, mesothelioma (cancer of the
pleura)

A

Asbestos

641
Q

An element used in some industrial
applications; in some people, exposure to dust or vapor evokes
immune response that scars lungs and impairs breathing

A

Berylliosis

642
Q

Results from long-term exposure to
dust of organic origin; acute form causes fever and breathing
impairment; chronic form changes lungs over time

A

Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis

643
Q

Microfine airborne pollutants can pass through protective mechanisms, and reach alveoli; may worsen asthma, irritate eyes and lungs, increase risk of heart disease and lung cancer

A

Air pollution

644
Q

What are some known lung irritants?

A

Asbestos, berylliosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, air pollution

645
Q

Movement of air from outside
of the body into the bronchial tree and the alveoli

A

Breathing (or ventilation)

646
Q

Actions responsible for these air movements are
______ (inhalation), and ______ (exhalation)

A

Inspiration; expiration

647
Q

One inspiration + the following expiration = a __________

A

Respiratory cycle

648
Q

Force that moves air into the lungs

A

Atmostpheric pressure

649
Q

What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?

A

760 mm Hg

650
Q

When respiratory muscles are at rest, atmospheric pressure and
alveolar pressure are ____

A

Equal

651
Q

Boyle’s law:

A

Pressure and volume of gases are inversely proportional.

652
Q

If pressure inside the alveoli (intra-alveolar pressure) decreases,
_______ pushes air into the airways

A

Atmospheric pressure

653
Q

If pressure inside the alveoli (intra-alveolar pressure) decreases,
atmospheric pressure pushes air into the airways. This occurs during normal, resting inspiration (called “_____”), as
the phrenic nerves stimulate the diaphragm to contract downward

A

Upnea

654
Q

If pressure inside the alveoli (intra-alveolar pressure) decreases,
atmospheric pressure pushes air into the airways. This occurs during normal, resting inspiration (called “eupnea”), as
the ________ stimulate the diaphragm to contract downward

A

Phrenic nerves

655
Q

Volume of thoracic cavity increases, which decreases the
pressure from 760 mm Hg to 758 mm Hg (______)

A

Boyle’s law

656
Q

During normal, resting inspiration, the ________ and __________ muscles enlarge the size
of the thoracic cavity

A

Diaphragm; external intercostal

657
Q

Lung expansion is aided by surface tension in the ______ cavity

A

Pleural

658
Q

_________ reduces surface tension in the alveoli, to help lung
expansion

A

Surfactant

659
Q

Maximal (forced, deep) inspiration

A

Hyperpnea

660
Q

______ Requires contraction of several other muscles, to enlarge
thoracic cavity even more

A

Hyperpnea

661
Q

Which muscles are used during hyperpnea?

A

Pectoralis minors, sternocleidomastoids, scalenes

662
Q

During eupnea, _______ of lung tissues and abdominal organs occurs, as
tissues return to their original shape at the end of inspiration

A

Elastic recoil

663
Q

During eupnea, _______ develops on the moist surfaces of the alveolar
linings shrinks alveoli

A

Surface tension

664
Q

Elastic recoil and surface tension both increase intra-alveolar pressure about 1 mm Hg
above ________________, forcing air out of the lungs

A

Atmospheric pressure

665
Q

_____ is a passive breathing process that does NOT involve muscle contraction

A

Eupnea

666
Q

Hyperpnea is due to contraction of _________ and abdominal muscles

A

Internal intercostal

667
Q

What muscles are involved in hyperpnea?

A

Rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis

668
Q

During hyperpnea, increased abdominal pressure orces _______ into a higher position, which pushes more air out of lungs

A

Diaphragm

669
Q

Various volumes of air that can be moved into
or out of lungs

A

Respiratory volumes

670
Q

Different ________________ in breathing move different volumes of air
in and out of the lungs

A

Degrees of effort

671
Q

Measurement of air volumes

A

Spirometry

672
Q

Which respiratory volumes can be measured with a spirometer?

A

Tidal volume (TV)
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

673
Q

Which respiratory volumes cannot be measured with a spirometer?

A

Residual volume (RV)

674
Q

__________ can be calculated by combining 2 or more
respiratory volumes

A

Respiratory capacities

675
Q

_____ capacity (VC) varies with age, gender, body size

A

Vital

676
Q

_______ is used to judge progression of respiratory illnesses,
such as emphysema, pneumonia, bronchial asthma, lung cancer

A

Spirometry

677
Q

What is the volume in mL for tidal volume (TV)?

A

500 mL

678
Q

What is the volume in mL for inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

A

3,000 mL

679
Q

What is the volume in mL for expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

A

1,100 mL

680
Q

What is the volume in mL for residual volume (RV)?

A

1,200 mL

681
Q

What is the volume in mL for vital capacity?

A

4,600 mL

682
Q

What is the volume in mL for inspiratory capacity (IC)?

A

3,500 mL

683
Q

What is the volume in mL for functional residual capacity (FRC)?

A

2,300 mL

684
Q

What is the volume in mL for total lung capacity?

A

5,800 mL

685
Q

Volume of air moved in or out of the lungs during a respiratory cycle

A

Tidal volume (TV)

686
Q

Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled at the end of a resting
inspiration

A

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

687
Q

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled at the end of a resting
expiration

A

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

688
Q

Volume of air that remains in the lungs even after a maximal expiratory
effort

A

Residual volume (RV)

689
Q

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after taking the deepest
breath possible: VC = T V + I RV + E RV

A

Vital capacity (VC)

690
Q

Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled following exhalation of resting
tidal volume: I C = TV + lRV

A

Inspiratory capacity (IC)

691
Q

Volume of air that remains in the lungs following exhalation of resting tidal
volume: F RC = ERV + RV

A

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

692
Q

Total volume of air that the lungs can hold: T LC = V C + RV

A

Total lung capacity (TLC)

693
Q

How do you calculate vital capacity (VC)

A

VC = Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume + Expiratory reserve volume

694
Q

How do you calculate inspiratory capacity (IC)?

A

IC = Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume

695
Q

How do you calculate functional residual capacity (FRC)?

A

FRC = Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

696
Q

How do you calculate total lung capacity?

A

TLC = Vital capacity + Residual volume

697
Q

Some air entering respiratory tract during breathing does not reach
functional alveoli; these are called?

A

Dead spaces

698
Q

Air in respiratory tract that remains in
conduction structures, and does not reach alveoli

A

Anatomic dead space

699
Q

Air in respiratory tract that reaches
nonfunctional alveoli, such as alveoli associated with capillaries
with poor blood flow; this occurs occasionally

A

Alveolar dead space

700
Q

Total of anatomical and alveolar
dead space

A

Physiologic dead space

701
Q

Volume of new atmospheric air moved into respiratory passages each
minute

A

Minute ventilation

702
Q

How do you calculate minute ventilation?

A

MC = tidal volume (TV) x breathing/respiratory rate (RR)

703
Q

Since some new air in each breath remains in the ___________, another figure can be calculated, to represent actual amount of
inhaled air that reaches the alveoli each minute

A

Physiologic dead space

704
Q

Since some new air in each breath remains in the physiologic dead
space, another figure can be calculated, to represent actual amount of inhaled air that reaches the alveoli each minute. This is called?

A

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

705
Q

How do you calculate the alveolar ventilaton rate (AVR)?

A

AVR = Tidal volume (TV) - physiologic dead space (PDS), then multilied by breathing rate

706
Q

What is the formula for the alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?

A

AVR = RR x (TV - PDS)

707
Q

the volume of air that reaches the alveoli each minute

A

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

708
Q

an important value, since it impacts the concentrations of
O2 and CO2 in the alveoli

A

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

709
Q

Air movements other than breathing are called
_______ movements

A

Nonrespiratory

710
Q

What types of nonrespiratory movements clear the air passages?

A

Coughing, sneezing

711
Q

What types of nonrespiratoyr movements express emotions?

A

Laughing and crying

712
Q

Allergic reaction to foreign antigens in airway, such as inhaled pollen

A

Bronchial asthma

713
Q

During bronchial asthma, In smaller airways, mucus and secretions from allergic response
accumulate, since not many cells are ______

A

Ciliated

714
Q

During bonhial asthma, Allergens and secretions irritate smooth muscle, leading to
______ and ______

A

bronchoconstriction;wheezing

715
Q

Progressive, degenerative disease in which alveolar walls are destroyed

A

Emphysema

716
Q

With emphysema, Clusters of alveoli merge into larger ones, decreasing surface area for _______

A

Gas exchange

717
Q

In patients with emphysema, Alveolar walls lose _____, and _______ diminish

A

Elasticity; capillaries

718
Q

People with ________Require a lot of muscular effort to breathe

A

Emphysema

719
Q

Emphysema is a type of _____ (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), along with chronic bronchitis

A

COPD

720
Q

Normal breathing is a rhythmic, involuntary act that continues even when a person is _______

A

Unconscious

721
Q

Groups of ______ in the brainstem control breathing

A

Neurons

722
Q

Neurons in thebrainstem that control breathing Initiate impulses that travel on _____ and _____ nerves, causing
inspiration and expiration

A

Cranial; spinal

723
Q

What are the two groups of neurons contained within the medullary respiratory center?

A

Ventral and dorsal respiratory groups

724
Q

Which respiratory group sets the basic rhytm of breathing?

A

Ventral respiratory group

725
Q

Which respiratory group modifies the activity of the ventral group?

A

Dorsal respiratory group

726
Q

Which respiratory group helps set the rhythm of breathing by limiting duration of each inspiration?

A

Pontine respiratory groups

727
Q

In any mixture of gases, each gas
contributes a portion of the total pressure

A

Dalton’s law of partial pressure

728
Q

The concept that theAmount of pressure each gas contributes to the total pressure

A

Partial pressure

729
Q

________ are a method of referring to the relative
amounts of gases in a mixture, instead of using concentrations

A

Partial pressures

730
Q

Factors that affect the rate and depth of breathing?

A
  • Partial pressure of O2
  • Partial pressure of CO2
  • H+ concentration in body fluids
  • Degree of stretch of lung tissue
  • Emotional state
  • Level of physical activity
  • Receptors include mechanoreceptors and central and peripheral chemoreceptors
731
Q

What are the main controlling factors that affect the rate and depth of breathing?

A

PCO2 and H+ ion concentration

732
Q

Where are the central chemoreceptors located?

A

In the ventral part of the medulla oblongata

733
Q

Central chemoreceptors mainly monitor ___ in thebrain

A

pH

734
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors mainly sense changes in blood ____

A

Po2

735
Q

Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?

A

Carotid and aortic bodies

736
Q

Decreased Po2 causes an increase in breathing rate and tidal volume,
leading to an increase in __________

A

Alveolar ventilation

737
Q

Usually does not cause a major response, until Po2 decreases to about
50% of normal value

A

Periperal chemoreceptors

738
Q

Reflex which helps regulate depth of breathing

A

Inflation (Hering-Breuer) reflex

739
Q

As lung tissues stretch during inspiration, ____ receptors are
stimulated

A

Stretch

740
Q

During the inflation reflex, Sensory impulses travel over the ____ nerve to respiratory areas

A

Vagus

741
Q

Prevents overinflation of the lungs during forced breathing

A

Inflation (hering-breuer) reflex

742
Q

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by the stretching of tissues?

A

Stretch receptors in visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli

743
Q

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by low plasma PO2?

A

Chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies

744
Q

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by high plasma PCO2?

A

Chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center

745
Q

Which breathing receptors are stimulated by high cerebrospinal fluid hydrogen ion concentration?

A

Chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center

746
Q

What factor stimulates stretch receptors in visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli?

A

Stretching of tissues

747
Q

What factor stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies?

A

Low plasma PO2

748
Q

What factors stimulate chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center?

A

High plasma PCO2

749
Q

What factors stimulate chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center?

A

High cerebrospinal fluid hyrogen ion concentration

750
Q

The stretching of tissues stimulates stretch receptors in the visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli. What is the response?

A

Inhibits inspiration

751
Q

Low plasma PO2 stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies, what is the response?

A

Increased alveolar ventilation

752
Q

High plasma PCO2 stimulates chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center, what is the response?

A

Increased alveolar ventilation

753
Q

High cerebrospinal fluid hydrogen ion concentration stimulates chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center. What is the response?

A

Increases alveolar ventilation

754
Q

the body reacts to the stretching of tissues by inhibiting inspiration. hat is the effect?

A

Prevents overinflation of lungs during forceful breathing.

755
Q

The body reacts to low plasma PO2 by increasing aveolar ventilation. What is the effect?

A

Increased plasma PO2

756
Q

The body reacts to high plasma PCO2 by increasing alveolar ventilation. What is the effect?

A

Decreased plasma PCO2

757
Q

The body reacts to high cerebrospinal fluid hydroen on concentration by increasing alveolar ventilation. What is the effect?

A

Decreased plasma PCO2

758
Q

How does the body prevent overinflation of the lungs duringforceful breathing?

A

The stretching of tissues stimulates stretch receptors in visceral pleura, bronchioles, and alveoli which inhibits inspiration and prevents overinflation of lungs during forceful breathing.

759
Q

How does the body increase plasma PO2?

A

Low plasma PO2 stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies, which increases alveolar ventilation and increases the plasma PO2.

760
Q

How does the body decrease plasma PCO2?

A

High plasma PCO2 stimulates chemosensitive areas of the respiratory center, which increases alveolar ventilation and decreases plasma PCO2.

761
Q

Exercise can greatly increase amount of __ used each minute, and the amount of ___ produced

A

O2; CO2

762
Q

During exercise, increased breathing rate would be expected to result
from a decrease in blood ___ and an increase in blood ___

A

O2; CO2

763
Q

Although breathing rate does increase during exercise, _____ levels of O2 and CO2 do not change significantly

A

Blood

764
Q

During exercise, the breathing rate increases due to: ________ signals respiratory centers to increase breathing rate, when
it signals muscles to contract

A

Cerebral cortex

765
Q

During exercise, the breathing rate increases due to: Proprioceptors stimulated by muscular movements stimulate the respiratory
centers to increase breathing rate; called the _______

A

Joint reflex

766
Q

Exercise increases demands on both ________ and ________
systems; both systems must keep up with demands

A

Respiratory; cardiovascular

767
Q

If shortness of breath occurs during exercise, it is typically due to the cardiovascular
system not moving enough _____ between lungs and body cells

A

Blood

768
Q

_____ organs of the respiratory system transport air into and
out of lungs

A

Tubular

769
Q

Sites of the vital process of gas exchange between the air
and the blood

A

Alveoli

770
Q

Alveoli are sites of the vital process of _________ between the air and the blood

A

Gas exchange

771
Q

Microscopic air sacs at ends of alveolar ducts

A

Alveoli

772
Q

________ may permit air to pass from one alveolus to
another, providing alternate air pathways

A

Alveolar pores

773
Q

_____________ help to clean alveoli

A

Alveolar macrophages

774
Q

Most of the wall of an alveolus consists of a layer of ____
cells (type I pneumocytes), _____________ epithelium

A

Type 1; simple squamous

775
Q

What type of cells are the walls of alveoli mostly made of?

A

Type I cells (Type I pneumocytes)

776
Q

What type of epithelium are most of the wall of an alveolus made of?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

777
Q

Part of the wall of an alveolus is made up of what type of cells?

A

Type II cells; pneumocytes

778
Q

Part of the wall of an alveolus is made up of type II cells
(type II pneumocytes) that secrete _________

A

Pulmonary surfactant

779
Q

Gas exchange between alveolar air and the blood occurs
through the respiratory membrane

A

Respiratory membrane

780
Q

What are the three structures of the respiratory membrane?

A

Alveolar wall
blood capillary wall
fused basement membranes

781
Q

What type of tissue is the alveolar wall and blood capillary wall of the respiratory membrane made out of?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

782
Q

Cell membranes are permeable to _____

A

Gases

783
Q

Molecules diffuse from regions of ____ concentration toward regions of
____ concentration

A

Higher; lower

784
Q

To determine direction of diffusion of a substance, it is important to know
the ________________

A

Concentration gradient

785
Q

In the process of respiration, gases diffuse from areas of _____ partial
pressure to areas of _____ partial pressure

A

Higher; lower

786
Q

The respiratory membrane is ___ and gas exchange across it is ___

A

Thin; rapid

787
Q

_____ diffusion occurs with greater surface area, shorter
distance, greater gas solubility, and a steeper partial pressure gradient

A

Increased

788
Q

______ diffusion occurs due to decreased surface area, harm to
respiratory membrane

A

Decreased

789
Q

Driving force for diffusion of O2 and CO2 across the respiratory
membrane is the difference in __________ of the gases
between the alveolus and the capillary

A

Partial pressures

790
Q

At high altitude, air is still 21% O2, but Po2 decreases because the
________________ is lower

A

Atmospheric pressure

791
Q

In high altitude, Oxygen diffuses more ____ into blood, and ______
saturation declines

A

Slowly; hemoglobin

792
Q

In high altitudes, People experience various degrees of ______ sickness

A

Altitude

793
Q

Body attempts to obtain more oxygen, by increasing heart and
breathing rate, and increased production of red blood cells and
hemoglobin. This is a result of what?

A

High altitude

794
Q

What does HAPE stand for?

A

High-altitude pulmonary edema

795
Q

What IS HAPE?

A

Severe form of altitude sickness

796
Q

Sudden severe headache, nausea, vomiting, rapid heart and breathing rate,
cyanosis are all symptoms of?

A

HAPE

797
Q

What are four disorders that impair gas exchange?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Tuberculosis
  • Atelactasis (lung collapse)
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome
798
Q

Infection of the lungs, in which alveoli swell due to edema

A

Pneumonia

799
Q

in ______, Alveoli become abnormally permeable; fluids and WBCs enter alveoli.This decreases available surface area for gas exchange.

A

Pneumonia

800
Q

Bacterial lung infection, in which dense connective tissue “tubercles” form around
infection sites, to wall off infection, and stop the spreading

A

Tuberculosis

801
Q

In patients with ______, lung tissue is destroyed, and respiratory membrane thickens as tubercles form,
reducing surface area for gas exchange

A

Tuberculosis

802
Q

In ______, Blood vessels collapse along with the lung. In case of obstruction, alveoli beyond obstruction collapse. Usually, the functional regions carry on enough gas exchange for cells.

A

Atelectasis (lung collapse)

803
Q

Form of atelectasis, in which alveoli collapse. Blood vessels and airways narrow, and O2 delivery is severely impaired.

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

804
Q

What transports O2 and CO2 between the lungs and the
body cells?

A

Blood

805
Q

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma
or chemically combine with other substances

A

Gases

806
Q

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma
or chemically combine with other substances

A

Gases

807
Q

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma
or chemically combine with other substances

A

Gases

808
Q

As ______ enter the blood, they dissolve in the plasma
or chemically combine with other substances

A

Gases

809
Q

98% to 99% of O2
diffuses into alveolar capillaries, enters red blood cells, and binds to
_____

A

Hemoglobin

810
Q

O2 loosely binds to Fe in heme unit of each of 4 polypeptide chains in hemoglobin,
forming _________ (1 hemoglobin can bind to 4 O2)

A

Oxyhemoglobin

811
Q

Chemical bonds between O2 and hemoglobin are relatively ______

A

Unstable

812
Q

The other 1% to 2% of O2 dissolves in the _______

A

Blood plasma

813
Q

What are the factors which increase the release of O2 from hemoglobin?

A
  • Decrease in PO2
  • Increase in PCO2
  • Increase in acidity
  • Increase in temperature
814
Q

Released O2 moves from _____ into _____

A

Blood; tissues

815
Q

About 75% of the O2 remains bound to hemoglobin in _____ blood, ensuring that respiratory system can adjust CO2 levels and pH as necessary

A

Venous

816
Q

______ differences cause oxygen to diffuse from
an alveolus into the blood

A

Partial pressure

817
Q

Blood is ______-rich, 100% saturated, in pulmonary
capillaries

A

Oxygen

818
Q

Oxygen is transported through the blood, bound to _______

A

Hemoglobin

819
Q

Differences in ___ cause O2 to diffuse from the blood into the fluid around the cells

A

PO2

820
Q

After dropping off O2 to tissues, hemoglobin is still about 75% saturated in venous blood; this is called _________
blood

A

Oxygen-poor

821
Q

As the ____ increases, so does the amount of O2 released from oxyhemoglobin

A

PCO2

822
Q

As ____ decreases (as acidity increases),
the amount of O2 released from oxyhemoglobin increases

A

Blood pH

823
Q

As blood ______ increases,
amount of oxygen released from oxyhemoglobin increases

A

Temperature

824
Q

Cellular metabolism generates ____

A

CO2

825
Q

Why does CO2 diffuse into capillaries instead of tissues?

A

Because tissues have a higher Pco2 than the capillaries

826
Q

What are the three ways CO2 is transported to the lungs?

A

Dissolves in plasma (7%)
Carbaminohemoglobin (23%)
As part of a bicarbonate ion (70%)

827
Q

How is the majority of CO2 transported to the lungs?

A

As part of bicarbonate ion (70%)

828
Q

Upon reaching the lungs, bicarbonate ions diffuse back into the ____s, and the reaction runs in reverse.

A

RBC

829
Q

CO2 diffuses from blood
into alveoli, from which it is exhaled from the _____

A

Lungs

830
Q

As we age, ______ epithelial cells become fewer in number

A

Ciliated

831
Q

As we age, cilia become less ____

A

Active

832
Q

As we age, mucus ______

A

Thickens

833
Q

As we age, swallowing, gagging, and coughing reflexes ____

A

Slow

834
Q

As we age, Macrophages in the lungs lose _______

A

Efficiency

835
Q

As we age, we develop An increased susceptibility to respiratory _______

A

Infections

836
Q

As we age, _________ may require more effort, as costal cartilage stiffens, and
postural changes change shape of thoracic cavity

A

Breathing

837
Q

As we age, Connective tissue replaces muscle in bronchioles, hindering ________

A

Dilation

838
Q

As we age, Bronchial walls ____ and do not open as much

A

Thin

839
Q

As we age, alveolar walls thin, and alveoli merge, decreasing __________ area

A

Gas exchange

840
Q

List the correct order for air flow, with the more proximal airway at the top of the list and the most distal airway at the bottom

A
  1. Main brnochus
  2. Lobar bronchus
  3. Segmental bronchus
  4. Intralobular bronchiole
  5. Terminal bronchiole
  6. Respiratory bronchiole
841
Q

What is the role of the dorsal respiratory group in the control of respiration?

A

Stimulateste expiratory muscles

842
Q

Which respiratory control center influences the rhythm of breathing by limiting inspiration?

A

Pontine respiratory group

843
Q

Where does internal respiration occur?

A

at the capillary networks of the body tissues

844
Q

The respiratory system provides ______ for aerobic reactions and eliminates ______ at the appropriate rate to maintain the pH of the internal environment.

A

oxygen; carbon dioxide

845
Q

List four characteristics of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG).

A

stimulates the diaphragm

modifies function of ventral respiratory group

located in the medulla oblongata

integrates sensory information about the respiratory system

846
Q

List two characteristics of the pontine respiratory group.

A

located in the pons

influences the basic rhythm of breathing by limiting inspiration

847
Q

The exchange of gases (O2 and CO2) that occurs in the tissues between capillary blood and the tissue fluid is called ______.

A

internal respiration

848
Q

We breathe in order to take in ______ and release ______.

A

oxygen; carbon dioxide

849
Q

As air passes over the mucous membrane lining the nasal cavity,
________ radiates from the blood and warms the air. Evaporation of
_______ from the mucus membrane moistens the air.

A

Heat/water

850
Q

What is the role of the dorsal respiratory group in the control of respiration?

A

stimulates inspiratory muscles