A&P Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

Cort- means?

A

Bark, rind: adrenal cortex–outer portion of an adrenal gland.

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2
Q

-crin means?

A

To secrete: endocrine–internal secretion

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3
Q

diure- means?

A

To pass urine: diuretic–substance that promotes urine production

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4
Q

endo- means?

A

Inside: endocrine gland–gland that internally secretes into a body fluid.

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5
Q

exo- means?

A

outside: exocrine gland–gland that secretes to the outside through a duct

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6
Q

horm- means?

A

Impetus, impulse: hormone–substance that a cell secretes that affects another cell.

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7
Q

hyper- means?

A

Above: hyperthyroidism–condition resulting from an above-normal secretion of thyroid hormone

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8
Q

hypo- means?

A

Above: hypothyroidism–condition resulting from a below-normal secretion of thyroid hormone.

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9
Q

lact- means?

A

Milk: prolactin–hormone that promotes milk production

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10
Q

med- means?

A

Middle: adrenal medulla–inner portion of an adrenal gland

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11
Q

para- means?

A

beside: parathyroid glands–set of glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland.

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12
Q

toc- means?

A

Birth: oxytocin–hormone that stimulates the uterine muscles to contract during childbirth.

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13
Q

-tropic means?

A

Influencing: adrenocorticotropic hormone–a hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates the adrenal cortex.

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14
Q

Vas- means?

A

Vessel: vasopressin–hormone that helps maintain blood pressure by constricting blood vessels.

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15
Q

Regulating the functions of the human body is achieved by the partnering of the nervous system and the ____________ to coordinate and execute communication throughout the body.

A

Endocrine

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16
Q

Which is more specific in terms of which cells are affected, a neurotransmitter or a hormone? What do postsynaptic cells and target cells have in common that allow them to respond to secreted chemicals?

A

They are equally specific because only cells with receptors, either for the neurotransmitter or the hormone, will respond.

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17
Q

What are the components of the endocrine system?

A

The endocrine system consists of organs and glands that produce hormones.

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18
Q

Are the components of the endocrine system anatomically connected to each other?

A

No

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19
Q

What are the major glands of the endocrine system?

A

Hypothalamus
Pituitary Gland
Thyroid Gland
Parathyroid Gland
Adrenal Glands
Pancreas
Pineal Gland
Thymus
Reproductive glands (testes and ovaries)

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20
Q

In the endocrine system, what organs also contain cells which produce hormones?

A

The liver, heart, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract.

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21
Q

What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular hormone?

A

Target cells contain protein or glycoprotein receptors that are specific for particular hormones. The receptors contain unique binding sites for the particular hormone.

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22
Q

Target cells contain _________ or _________ receptors that are specific for particular hormones.

A

Protein; glycoprotein

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23
Q

How do paracrine and autocrine secretions function differently than traditionally defined hormones?

A

Hormones are released into the interstitial fluid, diffuse into the blood, and are transported to their target cells elsewhere in the body. Paracrine and autocrine substances can be called “local hormones;” they do not enter the bloodstream; instead they act as local messengers. Paracrine substances act on cells in the vicinity of the cells that produce them. Autocrine substances act on the cells that produce them.

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24
Q

Explain how the nervous and endocrine systems are alike and how they differ.

A

The systems are alike in that they both regulate many bodily processes, and communicate via chemical messengers. However, the nervous system works more quickly than the endocrine system, and its effects are more short-lived. The endocrine system takes longer to begin acting, and its effects last longer. The nervous system communicates through neurons secreting neurotransmitters into synapses. The endocrine system consists of glandular epithelial cells, which secrete hormones into the body fluids; the hormones then circulate through the blood to find their target cells.

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25
Q

State some general functions of hormones.

A

Hormones regulate metabolic activities, water and electrolyte balance, growth, the response to stress, and various aspects of the physiology of many blood cells.

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26
Q

How are hormones chemically classified?

A

In general, hormones can be grouped as either steroids or non-steroids.

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27
Q

From what specific compound are prostaglandins synthesized?

A

Prostaglandins are produced from a fatty acid called arachidonic acid, which is found in cell membranes.

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28
Q

How does a steroid hormone act on its target cells?

A

A steroid hormone penetrates the cell membrane, and binds to a particular receptor protein inside the cell. The hormone-receptor complex binds to a specific region of a DNA molecule, and activates gene transcription in the nucleus, which results in the production of a certain protein. The new protein accomplishes the function of the hormone, by acting either as an enzyme, a transport protein, or a hormone receptor.

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29
Q

How does a nonsteroid hormone act on its target cells?

A

A nonsteroid hormone binds to a cell membrane receptor, since it cannot penetrate the membrane. In many cases, the hormone receptor complex activates a G protein in the membrane. The G protein activates adenylate cyclase, which converts ATP to cAMP. cAMP, acting as a second messenger, stimulates protein kinases, which then add phosphate groups derived from ATP to another substrate molecules. These phosphorylated substrates are now activated, and ready to perform the hormone’s action, by inducing a variety of cellular processes.

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30
Q

What is a second messenger?

A

A second messenger is a chemical that stimulates cellular changes in response to the binding of a nonsteroid hormone to its receptor. cAMP is an example of a second messenger. These messengers are necessary, because nonsteroid hormones cannot penetrate the cell membrane; they carry out the effects of the hormone.

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31
Q

What are prostaglandins?

A

Prostaglandins are a group of lipids produced from a fatty acid, called arachidonic acid, found in cell membranes. They are produced by many types of cells. They are potent, produced in small quantities, used in local areas (which makes them paracrine substances), and then quickly inactivated.

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32
Q

Describe one function of prostaglandins.

A

Some prostaglandins regulate cellular responses to hormones by activating or inactivating adenylate cyclase in cell membranes. This regulates the production of cAMP.

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33
Q

List the effects of prostaglandins.

A

Various prostaglandins cause relaxation of airway and blood vessel smooth muscle, contraction of uterine smooth muscle, secretion of hormones from the adrenal cortex, and inhibition of hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach. They also affect blood pressure, sodium and water movement in the kidneys, male and female reproductive processes, and inflammation.

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34
Q

How does the nervous system help regulate hormonal secretions?

A

The hypothalamus (in the brain) regulates anterior pituitary hormone secretion by sending releasing or release-inhibiting hormones directly to the glandular cells of the anterior pituitary. It also sends nerve impulses to the posterior pituitary gland, to regulate the secretion of ADH and oxytocin. The nervous system also activates some endocrine glands directly via nerve impulses; for example, sympathetic impulses from the brain regulate the secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla.

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35
Q

How does a negative feedback system control hormonal secretion?

A

Negative feedback mechanisms maintain blood levels of hormones appropriate for maintaining homeostasis, by sensing the level of the hormone in the blood or by sensing an effect the hormone has on the internal environment. When the level of a particular hormone gets too high, a negative feedback mechanism can slow down or stop the synthesis of that hormone. If the level is too low, negative feedback will not occur, and the hormone will begin to produce again.

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36
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

At the base of the brain. It is attached to the hypothalamus by the pituitary stalk, or infundibulum. It occupies the sella turcica, a depression in the sphenoid bone.

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37
Q

List the hormones that the anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary gland secrete.

A

Then anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes growth hormone (GH), prolactin (PRL), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH). The posterior lobe secretes 2 hormones that are synthesized in the hypothalamus; these are antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin (OT).

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38
Q

Explain how the hypothalamus controls the actions of the posterior and anterior lobes of the pituitary gland

A

The hypothalamus controls anterior pituitary activity by secreting and releasing and release-inhibiting hormones into the hypophyseal portal veins. These veins branch to form a network of capillaries that runs between these glands. The hypothalamic hormones act on their target cells in the anterior pituitary gland, to stimulate or inhibit release of their hormones. The hormones released by the posterior pituitary gland are produced by the hypothalamus, and stored in the posterior pituitary. The hypothalamus controls posterior pituitary secretion by sending nerve impulses down the pituitary stalk to the storage site.

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39
Q

How does growth hormone affect the cellular metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?

A

Growth hormone (GH) stimulates amino acid uptake by cells, which provides amino acids for protein synthesis; this is vital in the growth process. It also increases fat catabolism for energy, and decreases the use of glucose by most cells. GH causes the liver to release glucose into the blood, which provides glucose for neurons.

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40
Q

What are the functions of prolactin?

A

In females, prolactin (PRL) causes development of the mammary glands and maintains milk production after childbirth. In males, no normal function has been determined.

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41
Q

How is TSH secretion regulated?

A

Secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is regulated by two methods. TSH secretion is increased by the release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. TSH secretion is also regulated by negative feedback; when the level of thyroid hormones (TH) reaches a certain level, TSH secretion is inhibited.

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42
Q

What is the function of ACTH?

A

ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) controls the slynthesis and release of cortisol, adrenal androgens, and other related hormones from the adrenal cortex.

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43
Q

What is a gonadotropin?

A

A substance that affects the gonads (testes or ovaries). The two gonadotropins secreted by the anterior pituitary gland are follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

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44
Q

Describe the functions of FSH and LH in a female and in a male.

A

LH stimulates the secretion of sex hormones from the gonads in both males and females, and is essential for the release of the oocyte from the ovaries (ovulation). FSH stimulates secretion of sex hormones in females and contributes to the development of the gametes (sperm and oocytes) in both sexes.

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45
Q

What is the function of ADH?

A

It acts on the kidneys to promote water retention by decreasing urine volume. This ensures that the concentration of body fluids remains in the homeostatic level. ADH also increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessels; this explains why ADH is also called vasopressin.

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46
Q

How is the secretion of ADH controlled?

A

Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus monitor changes in the osmotic pressure in the body fluids. When the osmoreceptors sense increased osmotic pressure, due to water loss or dehydration, ADH is released from the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored. ADH causes the kidneys to excrete less water in the urine, and retain water in the body fluids. In cases of dilution of the body fluids due to drinking too much water, ADH secretion would be inhibited. Blood volume also influences the secretion of ADH. When blood volume is high, stretching of blood vessel walls is detected by volume receptors, which alert the hypothalamus; this results in ADH secretion being inhibited. If blood volume is too low, fewer impulses are sent to the hypothalamus, resulting in an increase in ADH secretion.

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47
Q

What effects does oxytocin produce in females?

A

In females, oxytocin has a weak antidiuretic effect. It also causes uterine smooth muscle contractions during childbirth and contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breasts for milk ejection during nursing. Oxytocin also plays a role in bonding between a mother and baby, and between sex partners.

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48
Q

The endocrine system, along with the __________, regulates functions of the body.

A

Nervous system

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49
Q

The endocrine system, along with the nervous system, regulates functions of the body to maintain ___________

A

Homeostasis

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50
Q

The endocrine system, along with the nervous system, regulates functions of the body to maintain homeostasis, and coordinates __________

A

Communication

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51
Q

What is the only organ system in the body where the organs are not anatomically connected?

A

The endocrine system

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52
Q

Name the major endocrine glands.

A

Pituitary gland
Thyroid gland
Parathyroid gland
Adrenal glands
Pancreas
Pineal gland
Thymus
Ovaries and Testes (reproductive glands)

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53
Q
A

Adrenal Gland

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54
Q
A

Hypothalamus

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55
Q
A

Ovaries

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56
Q
A

Pancreas

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57
Q
A

Parathyroid Glands

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58
Q
A

Pineal Gland

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59
Q
A

Pituitary Gland

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60
Q
A

Testes Gland

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61
Q
A

Thymus

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62
Q
A

Thyroid Gland

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63
Q

The two types of glands:

A

Endocrine and Exocrine

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64
Q

Endocrine glands are _________; they secrete hormones directly into the body fluids.

A

Ductless

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65
Q

What does “endocrine” mean?

A

Internal secretion

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66
Q

Hormones act only on _________ that contain receptors for them

A

Target cells

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67
Q

If a cell does not have _______ for the hormone, the cells is NOT affected by the hormone.

A

Receptors

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68
Q

________ glands are glands that secrete into ducts or tubes that lead to a body surface.

A

Exocrine

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69
Q

Exocrine glands secrete ________

A

Externally

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70
Q

_________ glands deliver products directly to a specific site; action does not depend on receptors.

A

Exocrine

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71
Q

What type of gland delivers products directly to a specific site?

A

Exocrine glands

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72
Q

What kind of gland’s action does not depend on receptors?

A

Exocrine glands

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73
Q

What kind of gland secretes hormones directly into the body fluids?

A

Endocrine glands

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74
Q

What is the main difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the body fluids. Exocrine glands secrete into ducts or tubes that lead to a body surface.

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75
Q

Besides endocrine and exocrine glands, other cells secrete ___________ internally, called “local hormones.”

A

chemical messengers

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76
Q

What are the chemical messengers called which are secreted by cells but are not actually hormones?

A

Local hormones

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77
Q

What are the two types of local hormones?

A

Paracrine and autocrine secretions

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78
Q

What is the difference between paracrine and autocrine secretions?

A

Paracrine secretions affect nearby cells. Autocrine secretions affect only the cells that secrete them.

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79
Q

Both the nervous and endocrine systems function in ___________

A

Communication

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80
Q

Both the nervous and endocrine systems communicate via:

A

Chemicals that bind to receptor molecules

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81
Q

What do the nervous and endocrine systems have in common?

A

They both function in communication via chemicals that bind to receptor molecules

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82
Q

The nervous system releases _________ into synapses

A

Neurotransmitters

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83
Q

The nervous system releases neurotransmitters into __________

A

Synapses

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84
Q

The ________ system releases neurotransmitters into synapses

A

Nervous

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85
Q

The ___________ system secretes hormones into bloodstream

A

Endocrine

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86
Q

The endocrine system secretes ________ into the bloodstream

A

Hormones

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87
Q

Where does the endocrine system secrete hormones into?

A

The bloodstream

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88
Q

Which responds faster? The nervous or endocrine system?

A

The nervous system

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89
Q

Which system’s effects can last longer? The endocrine or nervous system?

A

The endocrine system

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90
Q

While the Nervous system responds ________, the endocrine system’s effects can ___________.

A

Faster; last longer

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91
Q

What are the cells of the nervous system?

A

Neurons

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92
Q

What are the cells of the endocrine system?

A

Glandular epithelium

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93
Q

What are the chemical signals of the nervous system?

A

Neurotransmitters

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94
Q

What are the chemical signals of the endocrine system?

A

Hormones

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95
Q

What is the specificity of action for the nervous system?

A

Receptors on the postsynaptic cell

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96
Q

What is the specificity of action for the endocrine system?

A

Receptors on target cells

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97
Q

What is the speed of onset for the nervous system?

A

1 second

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98
Q

What is the speed of onset for the endocrine system?

A

Seconds to hours

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99
Q

What is the duration of action for the nervous system?

A

Very brief unless neuronal activity continues

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100
Q

What is the duration of action for the endocrine system?

A

May be brief or may last for days even if secretion ceases

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101
Q

When a neuron conducts an impulse, the neurotransmitter is released into the:

A

Synaptic cleft

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102
Q

When a neuron conducts an impulse, what type of cell responds?

A

Post-synaptic cell

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103
Q

When glandular cells secrete hormones into the bloodstream, what type of cells respond?

A

Target cells

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104
Q

All of the hormones MADE and RELEASED from the hypothalamus are either __________ or _________ hormones

A

Releasing; inhibiting

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105
Q

All hormones made and released from the hypothalamus control the production and release of hormones from the ___________ gland.

A

Anterior pituitary

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106
Q

Where do the hormones come from that control the production and release of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Hypothalamus

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107
Q

What do the hormones released from the hypothalamus control?

A

The production and release of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland

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108
Q

What are the two hormones made by the hypothalamus?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and Oxytocin

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109
Q

What are the two hormones that are made by the hypothalamus, but RELEASED by the posterior pituitary gland

A

Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

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110
Q

What gland releases ADH and oxytocin?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

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111
Q

Which gland releases hormones that travel to the peripheral endocrine glands?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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112
Q

What are the peripheral endocrine glands?

A

Thyroid, pancreas, etc.

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113
Q

Why does the anterior pituitary gland release hormones to travel to the peripheral endocrine glands?

A

To stimulate or inhibit the release of specific hormones such as epinephrine, testosterone, estrogen, thyroxine, etc.

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114
Q

What are the hormones from which the hypothalamus is the source?

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Somatostatin
Growth-hormone releasing hormone
Prolactin releasing-hormone
Prolactin-releasing factor
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

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115
Q

What is CRH?

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone

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116
Q

What is GnRH

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

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117
Q

What is SS?

A

Somatostatin

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118
Q

What is GHRH

A

Growth hormone-releasing hormone

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119
Q

What is PIH?

A

Prolactin-release-inhibiting hormone

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120
Q

What is PRF?

A

Prolactin-releasing factor

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121
Q

What is TRH?

A

Thyrotropin-releasing hormoen

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122
Q

What is GnRH also known as?

A

LHRH - Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone

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123
Q

What is SS (somatostatin) also known as?

A

Growth hormone release-inhibiting hormone (GHRIH)

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124
Q

What are the hormones sourced from the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Growth hormone
Luteinizing hormone
Prolactin
Thyroid-stimulating hormone

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125
Q

What is ACTH?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

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126
Q

What is FSH?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone

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127
Q

What is GH?

A

Growth hormone

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128
Q

What is LH?

A

Luteinizing hormone

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129
Q

What is PRL?

A

Prolactin

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130
Q

What is TSH?

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

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131
Q

What is the synonym for corticotropin?

A

ACTH, adrenocorticotropic hormone

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132
Q

What is the synonym for follitropin?

A

FSH, follicle-stimulating hormone

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133
Q

What is the synonym for somatotropin (STH)?

A

GH, growth hormone

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134
Q

What is the synonym for lutropin, interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)?

A

LH, luteinizing hormone

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135
Q

What is the synonym for thyrotropin?

A

TSH, thyroid-stimulating hormone

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136
Q

What is the source of CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone)

A

Hypothalamus

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137
Q

What is the source of GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone)

A

Hypothalamus

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138
Q

What is the source of SS (somatostatin)

A

Hypothalamus

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139
Q

What is the source of GHRH (growth hormone-releasing hormone)

A

Hypothalamus

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140
Q

What is the source of PIH (prolactin-release-inhibiting hormone)

A

Hypothalamus

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141
Q

What is the source of PRF (thyrotropin-releasing hormone)

A

Hypothalamus

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142
Q

What is the source of TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone)

A

Hypothalamus

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143
Q

What is the source of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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144
Q

What is the source of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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145
Q

What is the source of GH (growth hormone)

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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146
Q

What is the source of LH (luteinizing hormone)

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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147
Q

What is the source of PRL (prolactin)

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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148
Q

What is the source of TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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149
Q

What are the hormones released by the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

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150
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are MADE in the _________, but RELEASED in the:

A

hypothalamus; posterior pituitary gland

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151
Q

What is the synonym for vasopressin?

A

ADH, antidiuretic hormone

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152
Q

What are the three hormones made in the thyroid gland?

A

Calcitonin, thyroxine, and triiodothyronine

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153
Q

What is the abbreviation for thyroxine?

A

T4

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154
Q

What is the abbreviation for triiodothyronine?

A

T3

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155
Q

What is the synonym for triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Tetraiodothyronine

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156
Q

What is the hormone made by the parathyroid gland?

A

Parathyroid hormone

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157
Q

What is the abbreviation for parathyroid hormone?

A

PTH

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158
Q

What is the synonym for PTH (parathyroid hormone)

A

Parathormone

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159
Q

What hormones are made by the adrenal medulla?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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160
Q

What is the abbreviation for epinephrine?

A

EPI

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161
Q

What is the abbreviation for norepinephrine?

A

NE

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162
Q

What is the synonym for epinephrine?

A

Adrenalin

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163
Q

What is the synonym for norepinephrine?

A

Noradrenalin

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164
Q

What are the hormones made by the adrenal cortex?

A

Aldosterone
Cortisol

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165
Q

What is the synonym for cortisol?

A

Hyrdocortisone

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166
Q

What are the hormones made by the pancreas?

A

Glucagon
Insulin
Somatostatin

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167
Q

What is the abbreviation for somatostatin?

A

SS

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168
Q

Hormones are released into:

A

extracellular fluid

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169
Q

Hormones diffuse into:

A

Blood

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170
Q

Hormones are released into __ and then diffuse into __

A

Extracellular fluid; blood

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171
Q

The method of hormone transport through blood depends on whether the hormone is ______ or ______

A

Lipid-soluble; water-soluble

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172
Q

______ are very powerful substances in low concentrations

A

Hormones

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173
Q

Hormones are ______ compounds

A

Organic

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174
Q

What are the two general types of hormones?

A

Steroid or steroid-like

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175
Q

Describe steroids?

A

Lipids containing complex rings of carbon and hydrogen atoms

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176
Q

All steroid hormones are produced from what?

A

Cholesterol

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177
Q

What are a few examples of steroid hormones?

A

Sex hormones (testosterone and estrogen) and adrenal cortex hormones (cortisol and aldosterone)

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178
Q

What are the four types of nonsteroid hormones (chemically)

A

Amines
Proteins
Peptides
Glycoproteins

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179
Q

_______ are derived from tyrosine

A

Amines

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180
Q

_______ are composed of long chains of amino acids

A

Proteins

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181
Q

____ are short chains of amino acids

A

Peptides

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182
Q

______ are carbohydrates joined to proteins

A

Glycoproteins

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183
Q

A hormone derived from tyrosine is an

A

Amine

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184
Q

A hormone composed of long chains of amino acids is

A

Proteins

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185
Q

A hormone composed of short chains of amino acids is a

A

Peptide

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186
Q

A hormone composed of carbohydrates joined to proteins is

A

Glycoproteins

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187
Q

What are some examples of nonsteroid hormones?

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, thyroxine (amines), growth hormone (proteins), ADH, oxytocin (peptides), or TSH (glycoproteins)

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188
Q

Are steroid or steroid-like hormones composed of lipids or amino acids/peptides?

A

Lipids

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189
Q

Are non-steroid hormones composed of lipids or amino acids/peptides?

A

Amino acids/peptides

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190
Q

A hormone made out of 9 amino acids is a

A

peptide

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191
Q

A hormone composed of 30 amino acids is a

A

Protein

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192
Q

A hormone made from the amino acid tyrosine is called a

A

Amine

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193
Q

Amines are formed from?

A

Amino acids

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194
Q

peptides are formed from

A

Amino acids

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195
Q

proteins are formed from

A

Amino acids

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196
Q

Glycoproteins are formed from

A

Protein and carbohydrate

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197
Q

Steroids are formed from

A

Cholesteral

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198
Q

What are examples of amine hormones?

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

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199
Q

What are some examples of peptide hormones?

A

ADH, OT, TRH, SS, GnRH

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200
Q

What are some examples of protein hormones?

A

PTH, GH, PR

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201
Q

What are some examples of glycoprotein hormones?

A

FSH, LH, TSH

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202
Q

What are some examples of steroid hormones?

A

Estrogens, testosterone, aldosterone, cortisol

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203
Q

Only 4 hormones are _______, all the rest are protein based

A

Steroids

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204
Q

How will the structure (protein based or steroid/lipid based) affect how the hormone crosses the plasma membrane?

A

Amino acid derived hormones and polypeptide hormones are not lipid-derived (lipid-soluble) and therefore cannot diffuse through the plasma membrane of cells, so they bind to receptors on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Steroid/lipid-based hormones CAN diffuse through the plasma membrane.

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205
Q

Do cortisol, norepinephrine, parathyroid hormone, oxytocin, and prostaglandin all have the same structure?

A

No; they are all shaped differently according to their function and purpose.

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206
Q

Are cortisol, norepinephrine, parathyroid hormone, oxytocin, and prostaglandin all based on the same organic molecule?

A

No. They are formed from different organic molecules.

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207
Q

When it comes to hormones, does structure = function?

A

YES. It is similar to a “lock and key” system; certain structures will only “lock” into certain receptors.

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208
Q

How does the structure of each hormone affect their ability to cross the plasma membrane?

A

Hormones that are not lipid-derived will NOT pass through the lipid-soluble bilayer of the plasma membrane; they bind to receptors on the outer layer of the cell instead.

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209
Q

Hormones may alter ______ activity

A

Enzyme

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210
Q

Hormones may change the rate of ________ of a substance.

A

Membrane transport

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211
Q

Hormones may alter _______ activity

A

Enzyme

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212
Q

Hormones deliver messages by binding to their______ on/in target cell

A

Receptors

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213
Q

Hormones are powerful in ______ quantities

A

Small

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214
Q

Hormones can cause changes in target cells even in extremely _____ concentrations

A

Low

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215
Q

The number of ________ determines the strength of hormone response

A

Receptors

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216
Q

The number of receptors can be _______ to alter the response

A

Changed

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217
Q

The increase in number of receptors on target cells, in response to a decrease in hormone level

A

Upregulation

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218
Q

The decrease in number of receptors on target cells, due to an increase in hormone level

A

Downregulation

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219
Q

Steroid hormones have poor ______-solubility

A

Water

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220
Q

What are steroid hormones transported by?

A

Carrier hormones

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221
Q

What type of hormones are transported through blood bound to plasma proteins (carrier proteins)

A

Steroid hormones

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222
Q

_______ hormones can diffuse through the lipid bilayer of cell membranes and bind directly to receptors in the nucleus.

A

Steroid

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223
Q

What type of hormones can diffuse through the lipid bilayer of cell membranes and bind directly to receptors in the nucleus?

A

Steroid

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224
Q

What type of hormones cause transcription of particular genes in DNA?

A

Steroid hormones

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225
Q

Steroid hormones cause _______ of particular genes in DNA

A

Transcription

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226
Q

What leads to the action of steroid hormones?

A

Protein synthesis (translation)

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227
Q

What is the first step in the sequence of steroid hormone action?

A

Endocrine gland secretes the steroid hormone

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228
Q

What is the second step in the sequence of steroid hormone action?

A

Blood carries the hormone molecules (often weakly bound to transport protein) throughout the body.

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229
Q

What is the third step in the sequence of steroid hormone action?

A

Unbound steroid hormones diffuse through the target cell membranes and enter the cytoplasm or nucleus.

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230
Q

What is the fourth step in the sequence of steroid hormone action?

A

Hormone combines with a receptor molecule in the cytoplasm or nucleus

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231
Q

What is the fifth step in the sequence of steroid hormone action?

A

Steroid hormone-receptor complex binds to DNA in the nucleus and promotes transcription of messenger RNA.

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232
Q

What is the sixth step in the sequence of steroid hormone action?

A

Messenger RNA enters the cytoplasm and directs protein synthesis

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233
Q

What is the last (seventh) step in the sequence of steroid hormone action?

A

Newly synthesized proteins produce the steroid hormone’s specific effects

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234
Q

What type of hormone CANNOT penetrate the lipid bilayer of cell membranes?

A

Nonsteroid hormones

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235
Q

What type of hormones bind to receptors on the target cell plasma membrane?

A

Nonsteroid hormones

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236
Q

What type of hormone is considered a “first messenger”?

A

Nonsteroid hormones

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237
Q

The chemical that induces changes leading to hormone’s effect is considered a what?

A

Second messenger

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238
Q

What is cAMP?

A

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

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239
Q

Many hormones us what as a second messenger?

A

cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate)

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240
Q

The entire process of chemical communication, from outside cells to inside, is called what?

A

Signal transduction

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241
Q

What is the first step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Endocrine gland secretes nonsteroid hormone

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242
Q

What is the second step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Blood carries the hormone molecules throughout the body

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243
Q

What is the third step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Hormone combines with receptor site on membrane of its target cell, activating G protein

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244
Q

What is the fourth step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Adenylate cyclase molecules are activated in target cell’s membrane

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245
Q

What is the fifth step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Adenylate cyclase converts ATP into cyclic AMP

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246
Q

What is the sixth step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Cyclic AMP activates protein kinases

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247
Q

What is the seventh step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Protein kinases activate protein substrates in the cell that change metabolic processes

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248
Q

What is the last step in the sequence of actions of nonsteroid hormones using cAMP?

A

Cellular changes produce the hormone’s effects

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249
Q

Why are hormones generally abused by athletes to improve performance?

A

To increase muscular strength

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250
Q

What are some of the harmful effects that come from abusing steroids to improve athletic performance?

A

Decreased natural testosterone production
Stunted growth
Breast development in males
Male sexual characteristics in females
Damage to kidneys, liver, or heart
Increase in LDL cholesterol
Psychiatric problems

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251
Q

What is HGH specifically used for when abused by athletes?

A

To enlarge muscles

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252
Q

What and why is the hormone commonly used instead of, or along with, steroids when it comes to athletic abuse of hormones?

A

HGH (human growth hormone); to enlarge muscles

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253
Q

What steroid is often abused to increase the number of red blood cells and oxygen delivery to muscles?

A

Erythropoietin

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254
Q

What is the steroid used to treat certain forms of anemia, bus using it to improve athletic performance is not advised because it can lead to heart attack and death

A

Erythropoietin

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255
Q

Hormone secretion is precisely regulated and is primarily controlled by what type of feedback mechanisms?

A

Negative feedback

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256
Q

How long do the effects of hormone secretion generally last?

A

Can be short-lived ( a few minutes) or may last for days.

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257
Q

Some _______ are excreted in the urine after exerting their effects

A

Hormones

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258
Q

Hormones can be broken down by ______, mainly from the liver, to stop their effects

A

enzymes

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259
Q

What is the most common type of homeostatic mechanism?

A

Negative feedback

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260
Q

What type of feedback prevents sudden, severe changes in the body?

A

Negative feedback

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261
Q

What are some examples of negative feedback in the body?

A

Control of: body temperature, blood pressure, glucose level in blood.

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262
Q

Rising/increasing level of a hormone leads to a decrease in hormone secretion describes….

A

Negative feedback

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263
Q

What is the main control of hormone secretion?

A

Negative feedback

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264
Q

Control mechanism in which rising level of a hormone leads to an increase in secretion; used in small number of cases of hormone control, mainly in reproductive system

A

Positive feedback

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265
Q

What gland lies at the base of the brain?

A

Pituitary gland

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266
Q

The pituitary gland is located where?

A

Sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

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267
Q

The pituitary gland is controlled by what?

A

The brain

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268
Q

The pituitary gland is considered part of what system?

A

The nervous system

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269
Q

The pituitary gland is attached to the what?

A

Hypothalamus

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270
Q

What is the pituitary gland connected to the hypothalamus by?

A

The pituitary stalk

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271
Q

What is another name for the pituitary stalk that connects the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus

A

Infundibulum

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272
Q

What are the two distinct portions of the pituitary gland?

A

Anterior and posterior lobe

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273
Q

What is the name for the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

Adenohypophysis

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274
Q

What is the name for the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

Neurohypophysis

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275
Q

In the _______ gland, secretion from 2 lobes is controlled by different methods by the hypothalamus

A

Pituitary

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276
Q

What is the small intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland called?

A

Pars intermedia

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277
Q

What part of the pituitary gland produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

The small intermediate lobe (pars intermedia)

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278
Q

What type of hormone does the small intermediate lobe (pars intermedia) of the pituitary gland produce?

A

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

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279
Q

What hormone starts melanin production?

A

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

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280
Q

The hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland by what two types of regulation?

A

Anterior lobe and posterior lobe regulation

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281
Q

How is the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland controlled by the hypothalamus?

A

Hypothalamic releasing hormone (or release-inhibiting hormones) are transported to the anterior lobe through the hypophyseal portal veins

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282
Q

The hypophyseal portal veins are an example of what type of system?

A

Portal system

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283
Q

What type of hormones are transported to the anterior lobe through the hypophyseal portal veins?

A

Hypothalamic releasing hormones

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284
Q

What is another name for hypothalamic releasing hormones?

A

Release-inhibiting hormones)

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285
Q

How is the posterior lobe of the hypothalamus regulated?

A

Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus travel along axons to posterior lobe through the infundibulum

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286
Q

_________ from the hypothalamus travel along axons to posterior lobe of the pituitary gland through the infundibulum

A

Nerve impulses

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287
Q

Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus travel along axons to the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland through the ___________-

A

Infundibulum

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288
Q

The hypothalamus, which is an endocrine gland, controls hormone secretion from peripheral endocrine glands via what?

A

3-step pathways

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289
Q

What are the three 3-step pathways used by the hypothalamus to control hormone secretion from peripheral endocrine glands?

A

Releasing (or release-inhibiting) hormone, anterior pituitary hormone, and peripheral endocrine gland

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290
Q

What from the hypothalamus acts on specific hormone-secreting cells in the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Releasing (or release-inhibiting) hormone

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291
Q

What acts on cells in a peripheral endocrine gland to stimulate its secretion?

A

Anterior pituitary hormoen

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292
Q

What secretes its hormone, which exerts effects on target cells?

A

Peripheral endocrine gland

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293
Q

What are the major anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Growth hormone (GH)
Prolactin (PRL)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)

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294
Q

Hormone which Stimulates cells to enlarge and divide rapidly, increases amino acid uptake and protein synthesis, decreases rate of carbohydrate
usage, increases rate of fat usage

A

Growth hormone (somatotropin)

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295
Q

Hormone which Promotes milk production in females, uncertain function in males

A

Prolactin

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296
Q

Hormone which Stimulates secretion of thyroid hormones (T3 and
T4) from thyroid gland

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

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297
Q

Hormone which Stimulates secretion of cortisol and other
glucocorticoids from adrenal cortex

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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298
Q

Hormone which Causes growth and development of ovarian
follicles in females, sperm production in males

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

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299
Q

Hormone which Causes ovulation in females, sex hormone production in
both genders

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

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300
Q

What is hypopituitary dwarfism caused by?

A

deficiency of human growth hormone (HGH) during childhood

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301
Q

Characteristics of hypopituitary dwarfism?

A

Short stature, but body proportions and mental development are normal

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302
Q

In hypopituitary dwarfism, HGH treatment must start before bones completely _______ to be effective

A

ossify

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303
Q

What is caused by oversecretion of GH during childhood?

A

Gigantism

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304
Q

Characteristics of gigantism

A

Height may exceed 8 feet, may have other metabolic problems

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305
Q

Gigantism is often caused by what?

A

Pituitary tumor

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306
Q

What is caused by oversecretion of GH during adulthood, after epiphyseal
ossification

A

Acromegaly

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307
Q

Characteristics of acromegaly

A

No increase in height, but bones thicken

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308
Q

Acromegaly causes enlargement of…

A

Tongue, nose, hands, feet, jaw, heart, thyroid gland

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309
Q

_________ lobe of pituitary gland consists of nerve fibers from hypothalamus and
neuroglia, unlike glandular epithelium of anterior lobe

A

Posterior

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310
Q

Posterior lobe of _______ gland consists of nerve fibers from hypothalamus and
neuroglia, unlike glandular epithelium of anterior lobe

A

Pituitary

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311
Q

Posterior lobe of pituitary gland consists of _______ from hypothalamus and
neuroglia, unlike glandular epithelium of anterior lobe

A

Nerve fibers

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312
Q

Posterior lobe of pituitary gland consists of nerve fibers from _________ and
neuroglia, unlike glandular epithelium of anterior lobe

A

Hypothalamus

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313
Q

Posterior lobe of pituitary gland consists of nerve fibers from hypothalamus and
________, unlike glandular epithelium of anterior lobe

A

Neuroglia

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314
Q

What are the two hormones made in the hypothalamus?

A

ADH and oxytocin

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315
Q

How are ADH and oxytocin transported to the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Via the pituitary stalk (infundibulum)

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316
Q

Which posterior pituitary hormone Decreases urine production by reducing volume of H2O the kidneys excrete

A

ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

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317
Q

Which posterior pituitary hormone causes vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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318
Q

Which posterior pituitary hormone causes muscle contraction in the uterine wall during childbirth?

A

Oxytocin

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319
Q

Which posterior pituitary hormone causes milk ejection during lactation?

A

Oxytocin

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320
Q

Which posterior pituitary hormone has no proven function in males, but may help with sperm movement or sexual response?

A

Oxytocin

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321
Q

Hormone which Stimulates increase in size and rate of
division of body cells; enhances
movement of amino acids through
membranes; promotes growth of long
bones

A

Growth hormone (GH)

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322
Q

hormone which Sustains milk production after birth;
amplifies the effect of LH in males

A

Prolactin (PRL)

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323
Q

Which hormone Controls secretion of hormones from the
thyroid gland

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

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324
Q

Which hormone Controls secretion of certain hormones
from the adrenal cortex

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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325
Q

Which hormone Promotes development of egg-
containing follicles in ovaries; stimulates
follicular cells to secrete estrogen; in
males, stimulates production of sperm
cells

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

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326
Q

Which hormone Promotes secretion of male and female
sex hormones; releases egg cell in
females

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

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327
Q

What is the source of control for growth hormone (GH)

A

Secretion inhibited by somatostatin (SS)
and stimulated by growth hormone-
releasing hormone (GHRH) from the
hypothalamus

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328
Q

What is the source of control for prolactin (PRL)?

A

Secretion inhibited by prolactin inhibiting
hormone (PIH) from the hypothalamus

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329
Q

What is the source of control for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
from the hypothalamus

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330
Q

What is the source of control for adrenocorcitotropic hormone (ACTH)?

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
from the hypothalamus

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331
Q

What is the source of control for follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(GnRH) from the hypothalamus

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332
Q

What is the source of control for luteinizing hormone (LH)?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(GnRH) from the hypothalamus

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333
Q

What hormone Causes kidneys to reduce water
excretion; may help maintain blood
pressure

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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334
Q

What hormone Contracts smooth muscle in the uterine
wall; forces liquid from the milk glands
into the milk ducts, ejects milk

A

Oxytocin

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335
Q

What is the source of control for antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

Hypothalamus in response to changes
in body fluid concentration and blood
volume

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336
Q

What is the source of control for oxytocin (OT)?

A

Hypothalamus in response to stretching
uterine and vaginal walls and
stimulation of breasts

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337
Q

The thyroid gland consists of how many lobes?

A

Two lateral lobes

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338
Q

The two lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by an

A

Isthmus

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339
Q

The ______ gland lies just below the larynx, anterior and lateral to the trachea

A

Thyroid gland

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340
Q

Where is the thyroid gland located?

A

Anterior and lateral to the trachea?

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341
Q

The thyroid has a special ability to remove what from blood?

A

Iodine

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342
Q

What 3 hormones does the thyroid produce?

A

T4 (thyroxine)
T3 (triiodothyronine)
Calcitonin

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343
Q

Thyroid is composed of round secretory units called what?

A

Follicles

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344
Q

Each follicle in the thyroid is surrounded by a single layer of what type of cells?

A

Follicular

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345
Q

What fills the follicle cavities of the thyroid gland?

A

Viscous colloid

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346
Q

What type of cells lie outside the follicles of the thyroid gland?

A

Extrafollicular (C) cells

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347
Q

What cells in the thyroid produce calcitonin?

A

Extrafollicular (C) cells

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348
Q

What hormone Increases rate of energy
release from
carbohydrates; increases
rate of protein synthesis;
accelerates growth;
necessary for normal
nervous system
maturation

A

Thyroxine (T4)

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349
Q

What hormone Increases rate of energy
release from
carbohydrates; increases
rate of protein synthesis;
accelerates growth;
necessary for normal
nervous system
maturation, but is much more potent

A

Triiodothyronine (T3)

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350
Q

What hormone Lowers blood calcium and
phosphate ion
concentrations by
inhibiting release of
calcium and phosphate
ions from bones and by
increasing the rate at
which calcium and
phosphate ions are
deposited in bones;
increases excretion of
calcium by the kidneys

A

Calcitonin

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351
Q

What is the source of control for thyroxine (T4)?

A

TSH from the anterior pituitary gland

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352
Q

What is the source of control for calcitonin?

A

Elevated blood calcium ion concentration, digestive hormones

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353
Q

What are the two hyperthyroid conditions?

A

Hyperthyroidism, and graves disease

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354
Q

What hyperthyroid condition results in High metabolic rate, sensitivity to heat, restlessness,
hyperactivity, weight loss, protruding eyes, goiter

A

Hyperthyroidism

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355
Q

What hyperthyroidism condition results in Autoantibodies (against self) bind TSH receptors on thyroid
cell membranes, mimicking action of TSH, overstimulating
gland (hyperthyroidism); exopthalmia (protrusion of the eyes)
and goiter

A

Graves disease

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356
Q

What are the four hypothyroid conditions?

A

Hashimoto disease, hypothyroidism (infantile), hypothyroidism (adult), and simple goiter

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357
Q

What hypothyroid disease results in Autoantibodies (against self) destroy thyroid cells, resulting in
hypothyroidism

A

Hashimoto disease

358
Q

What hypothyroid disease results in Stunted growth, abnormal bone formation, intellectual
disability, sluggishness

A

Hypothyroidism (infantile)

359
Q

What hypothyroidism disease results in Low metabolic rate, sensitivity to cold, sluggishness, poor
appetite, swollen tissues, mental dullness

A

Hypothyroidism (adult)

360
Q

What hypothyroid disease results in Deficiency of thyroid hormones due to iodine deficiency;
because no thyroid hormones inhibit pituitary release of TSH,
thyroid is overstimulated and enlarges but functions below
normal (hypothyroidism)

A

Simple goiter

361
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A

Posterior surface of the thyroid gland

362
Q

What is the one hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands?

A

Parathyroid hormone

363
Q

Parathyroid hormone is also called what?

A

Parathormone

364
Q

PTH is what?

A

Parathyroid hormone

365
Q

PTH regulates what concentrations in the blood?

A

Ca+2 and PO4 -2

366
Q

PTH increases blood level of what?

A

Calcium

367
Q

PTH DECREASES what?

A

Phosphate

368
Q

PTH acts on the ______, ______, and ______ to exert effects

A

Bones, kidneys, intestines

369
Q

PTH acts on bones to stimulate what?

A

Bone resorption

370
Q

PTH indirectly stimulates _________ by stimulating a step in vitamin D metabolism.

A

Calcium absorption

371
Q

PTH stimulates calcium absorption by stimulating a step in ___________

A

Vitamin D metabolism

372
Q

PTH acts on ________ to cause final step in production of active vitamin D.

A

Kidneys

373
Q

PTH acts on kidneys to cause final step in production of what?

A

Active vitamin D

374
Q

What is vitamin D also called?

A

Calcitriol, or Dihydroxycholecalciferol

375
Q

PTH acts on the ________ to conserve calcium and excrete phosphate in urine

A

Kidneys

376
Q

PTH acts on kidneys to conserve ______ and excrete _______ in urine

A

Calcium; phosphate

377
Q

What are two disorders of the parathyroid gland?

A

Hyperparathyroidism and hypoparathyroidism

378
Q

What condition results in Fatigue, muscular weakness, painful joints, altered mental
functions, depression, weight
loss, bone weakening.
Increased PTH secretion
overstimulates osteoclasts.

A

Hyperparathyroidism

379
Q

What condition results in Muscle cramps and seizures. Decreased PTH secretion
reduces osteoclast activity,
diminishing blood calcium ion
concentration

A

Hypoparathyroidism

380
Q

What is the cause of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Tumor

381
Q

What is the cause of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Inadvertent surgical removal; injury

382
Q

What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism?

A

Remove tumor, correct bone deformities

383
Q

What is the treatment for hypoparathyroidism?

A

Calcium salt injections, massive doses of vitamin D

384
Q

The adrenal glands are also called what?

A

Suprarenal glands

385
Q

The _______ glands are closely associated with the kidneys; sit like a cap on each kidney

A

Adrenal

386
Q

_______ hormones play roles in maintaining blood sodium levels and responding to stress, and include certain sex hormones.

A

Adrenal

387
Q

What are the two portions of the adrenal gland?

A

Cortex and medulla

388
Q

The _______ is the outer portion of the adrenal gland

A

Adrenal cortex

389
Q

The __________ of the adrenal gland secretes steroid hormones: aldosterone, cortisol, sex hormones

A

Adrenal cortex

390
Q

The adrenal cortex secretes what type of hormones?

A

Steroid hormones

391
Q

The central portion of the adrenal gland is the

A

Adrenal medulla

392
Q

The adrenal medulla secretes what type of hormones?

A

Amine

393
Q

The __________ of the adrenal gland secretes what type of hormones?

A

Amine hormones: 80% epinephrine, 20% norepinephrine

394
Q

What are the three zones of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis

395
Q

What is the outer zone of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona glomerulosa

396
Q

What does the outer zone (zona glomerulosa) of the adrenal cortex produce?

A

Aldosterone and other mineralocorticoids

397
Q

What is the middle zone of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona fasciculata

398
Q

What does the middle zone (zona fasciculata) of the adrenal cortex produce?

A

Cortisol and other glucocorticoids

399
Q

What is the inner zone of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona reticularis

400
Q

What does the inner zone (zona reticularis) of the adrenal cortex produce?

A

Male sex hormones called androgens

401
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on the heart?

A

Heart rate increases
Force of contraction increases

402
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the heart?

A

Heart rate increases
Force of contraction increases

403
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on the blood vessels?

A

Vasodilation, especially important in
skeletal muscle at onset of fight or
flight

404
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the blood vessels?

A

Vasoconstriction in skin and viscera
shifts blood flow to other areas, such
as exercising skeletal muscle

405
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on systemic blood pressure?

A

Some increase due to increased
cardiac output

406
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on systemic blood pressure?

A

Some increase due to increased
cardiac output and vasoconstriction
(offset in some areas, such as
exercising skeletal muscle, by local
vasodilation due to other factors)

407
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on the airways?

A

Dilation

408
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the airways?

A

Some dilation

409
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on the reticular formation of the brainstem?

A

Activated

410
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the reticular formation of the brainstem?

A

Little effect

411
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on the liver?

A

Promotes breakdown of glycogen to glucose, increasing blood sugar level

412
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the liver?

A

Little effect on blood glucose level?

413
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on the metabolic rate?

A

Increases

414
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the metabolic rate

A

Increasesx

415
Q

What is the action of aldosterone?

A

Helps regulate the concentration
of extracellular electrolytes by
conserving sodium ions and
excreting potassium ions

416
Q

What is the action of cortisol?

A

Decreases protein synthesis,
increases fatty acid release, and
stimulates glucose synthesis from
noncarbohydrates

417
Q

What is the action of adrenal androgens?

A

Supplement sex hormones from
the gonads; may be converted
into estrogens

418
Q

What are the factors regulating secretion of aldosterone?

A

Plasma potassium and sodium
ion concentrations and renin-
angiotensin system

419
Q

What are the factors regulating cortisol?

A

CRH from the hypothalamus
and adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH) from the
anterior pituitary gland

420
Q

What are the factors regulating secretion of adrenal androgens?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH) from the anterior
pituitary plus unknown factors

421
Q

________ promotes excretion of K+ ions by the kidney

A

Aldosterone

422
Q

_______ promotes conservation of Na+ by the kidney

A

Aldosterone

423
Q

With aldosterone, H2O is retained along with Na+ by ______

A

Osmosis

424
Q

What is the system that helps maintain normal blood pressure?

A

Renin-angiotensin system

425
Q

__________, the product of the renin-angiotensin system, increases blood pressure and promotes secretion of aldosterone

A

Angiotensin II

426
Q

What are the two disorders of the adrenal cortex?

A

Addison Disease and cushing syndrome

427
Q

What adrenal cortex disorder is due to insufficient hormone secretion from the adrenal cortex?

A

Addison Disease

428
Q

What disorder of the adrenal cortex results in electrolyte and glucose imbalances, dehydration, low blood pressure, fatigue, nausea, and increased skin pigmentation?

A

Addison Disease

429
Q

________, a disorder of the adrenal cortex, Can be fatal, due to severe electrolyte imbalance

A

Addison disease

430
Q

What disorder of the adrenal cortex is Due to hypersecretion of cortisol, because of adrenal tumor, or
excess secretion of ACTH by anterior pituitary

A

Cushing syndrom

431
Q

What disorder of the adrenal cortex results in muscle wasting, loss of bone, elevated blood glucose, Na+
retention, H2O retention by osmosis, increased blood pressure, puffy
skin, abnormal deposition of adipose tissue in face and back

A

Cushing syndrome

432
Q

The elongated, flattened organ, posterior to the stomach

A

Pancreas

433
Q

In the pancreas, the _______ transports digestive juice to the duodenum

A

Pancreatic duct

434
Q

The pancreas contains two major types of _________ tissue

A

Secretory

435
Q

The _______ is both an endocrine and and exocrine gland

A

Pancreas

436
Q

The ________ function of the pancreas secretes hormones into body fluids

A

Endocrine

437
Q

The ________ function of the pancreas secretes digestive juices through pancreatic duct

A

Exocrine

438
Q

What are the three hormones secreted from the endocrine cells (pancreatic islets or islets of langerhans)

A

Glucagon, insulin, and somatostatin

439
Q

In the pancreas, ______ is secreted by the alpha cells; increases blood glucose

A

Glucagon

440
Q

In the pancreas, _____ is secreted by beta cells; decreases blood glucose

A

Insulin

441
Q

In the pancreas, _______ is secreted by delta cells; inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon.

A

Somatostatin

442
Q

What is the action of Glucagon?

A

Stimulates the liver to break down glycogen and
convert noncarbohydrates into glucose; stimulates
breakdown of fats

443
Q

What is the source of control of glucagon?

A

Blood glucose concentration

444
Q

What is the action of Insulin?

A

Promotes formation of glycogen from glucose, inhibits
conversion of noncarbohydrates into glucose, and
enhances movement of glucose through adipose and
muscle cell membranes, decreasing blood glucose
concentration; promotes transport of amino acids into
cells; enhances synthesis of proteins and fats

445
Q

What is the source of control for insulin?

A

Blood glucose concentration

446
Q

What is the action of somatostatin?

A

Helps regulate carbohydrates

447
Q

What is the source of control for somatostatin?

A

Not determined

448
Q

Metabolic disease resulting from lack of insulin or inability of cells to
recognize insulin

A

Diabetes Mellitus

449
Q

In _________, Elevated blood glucose can damage eyes, heart, kidney, nerves

A

Diabetes Mellitus

450
Q

__________ Results in disturbances in carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism

A

Diabetes Mellitus

451
Q

In _________, Insulin normally promotes glucose uptake by adipose and muscle cells

A

Diabetes mellitus

452
Q

In __________, carbohydrates cannot enter cells in normal
quantities

A

Diabetes Mellitus

453
Q

Diabetes Mellitus results in ___________, or high blood glucose

A

Hyperglycemia

454
Q

Diabetes mellitus is also known as what

A

Type 1 and type 2 diabetes

455
Q

In ___________, Cells turn to other sources of energy, which promotes tissue wasting

A

Diabetes mellitus

456
Q

In _____________, Weight declines, hunger increases, fatigue increases, wounds do not
heal well, growth stops in children

A

Diabetes mellitus

457
Q

In ____________, Glucose spills into urine (glycosuria), and H2O follows by osmosis,
leading to dehydration and thirst

A

Diabetes mellitus

458
Q

__________ is also called juvenile or insulin-dependent; usually begins before age of 20

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

459
Q

________ diabetes mellitus results in Autoimmune disease; immune system destroys beta cells of
pancreas

A

Type 1

460
Q

_________ diabetes mellitus results in a lack of insulin production

A

Type 1

461
Q

5 to 10% of diabetes cases are?

A

Type 1

462
Q

_________ diabetes mellitus is also called maturity-onset or non-insulin-dependent

A

Type 2

463
Q

90 to 95% of diabetes mellitus cases are type ___

A

2

464
Q

In type ___ diabetes mellitus, Insulin is produced, but body cells are unable to recognize it

A

2

465
Q

Type 2 diabetes is _______ than type 1.

A

Milder

466
Q

Type __ diabetes Complications include coronary artery disease, nerve or retinal
damage

A

2

467
Q

Treating type __ diabetes mellitus requires administration of insulin

A

1

468
Q

Where is insulin obtained from for diabetes patients?

A

Pigs and cattle

469
Q

Human insulin can be synthesized using ____________ technology

A

Recombinant DNA

470
Q

How is human insulin synthesized?

A

It is produced by genetically altered bacteria

471
Q

a ___________________ is being developed for type 1 diabetes.

A

Transdermal delivery system (skin patch)

472
Q

What type of transplantation is being used in some countries to treat type 1 diabetes?

A

Pancreatic islet transplantation

473
Q

What is typically used to treat type 2 diabetes?

A

Low carbohydrate, high protein diet, and regular exercise

474
Q

Low carbohydrate, high protein diet is used to treat what type of diabetes?

A

Type 2

475
Q

Regular exercise is used to treat what type of diabetes?

A

Type 2

476
Q

What type of medication is used to treat type 2 diabetes?

A

Medications that increase glucose production

477
Q

What type of surgery is typically used to treat type 2 diabetes?

A

Gastric bypass surgery

478
Q

What gland is Found in brain, between cerebral hemispheres

A

Pineal gland

479
Q

What gland Secretes melatonin, which regulates circadian rhythms (day/night
cycles)

A

Pineal gland

480
Q

What gland is found in the mediastinum, between the lungs?

A

Thymus gland

481
Q

What gland Secretes thymosins, which promote development of T-lymphocytes

A

Thymus gland

482
Q

What gland plays an important role in immunity?

A

Thymus gland

483
Q

What kind of gland has to do with: Ovaries produce estrogens and progesterone, testes produce testosterone, and placenta produces estrogens, progesterone, and a gonadotropin

A

Reproductive organs

484
Q

Which glands produce hormones to regulate digestion?

A

Digestive glands

485
Q

What gland Produces natriuretic peptides, to stimulate Na+ secretion in urine

A

Heart

486
Q

What gland Produces erythropoietin, to stimulate red blood cell formation

A

Kidney

487
Q

Survival depends on maintaining what?

A

Homeostasis

488
Q

Factors that change the internal or external environment of the body are potentially what?

A

Life-threatening

489
Q

Certain potentially dangerous factors can trigger a loss of what?

A

Homeostasis

490
Q

When sensory receptors detect changes, they send nerve impulses to the what?

A

Hypothalamus

491
Q

The hypothalamus activates sympathetic nervous system and increases secretion of what type of hormone?

A

Adrenal hormones

492
Q

Factor capable of initiating a response from the hypothalamus is called a what?

A

Stressor

493
Q

________ is the condition produced in response to stressors

A

Stress

494
Q

What are the two types of stress?

A

Psychological and physical

495
Q

________ stress: danger, personal loss, anger, fear, guilt

A

Psychological

496
Q

________ stress: temperature extremes, infection, injury, O2 deficiency

A

Physical

497
Q

What controls the response to stress?

A

Hypothalamus

498
Q

What is the response of the hypothalamus to stress called?

A

General adaptation syndrome (GAS)

499
Q

What are the three stages of general stress syndrome?

A

Alarm stage
Resistance Stage
Exhaustion Stage

500
Q

What is the first characteristic of the alarm stage of GAS?

A

Fight or flight response

501
Q

The body’s fight or flight response is __________, does not last long

A

Immediate

502
Q

During the alarm stage of GAS, the ___________ nervous system impulses increase blood glucose and fatty
acids, heart and breathing rate, and blood pressure, dilate air passages,
shunt blood to skeletal muscles, increases epinephrine secretion

A

Sympathetic

503
Q

What intensifies and prolongs sympathetic nervous system responses during GAS?

A

Epinephrine

504
Q

How long does the resistance stage of GAS usually last?

A

Slower, longer-lasting

505
Q

During the resistance stage of GAS, the CRH-ACTH-Cortisol pathway ______________-

A

Increases cortisol secretion

506
Q

During the resistance stage of GAS, increased cortisol spares what for the brain?

A

Glucose

507
Q

During the _________ stage of GAS, Cortisol, Glucagon, and GH mobilize energy sources for other tissues and
organs

A

Resistance

508
Q

During the resistance stage of GAS, ADH and Renin can cause ______ retention

A

Water

509
Q

The Exhaustion stage (final stage) of GAS begins after ______ of being in the resistance phase.

A

Months

510
Q

In the exhaustion stage of GAS, wasting occurs due to the _________________

A

Depletion of nutrients in the body

511
Q

During the exhaustion stage of GAS, an ______ imbalance is seen

A

Electrolyte

512
Q

During the exhaustion stage of GAS, the ___________ is suppressed

A

Immune system

513
Q

What causes the effects of the exhaustion stage (final stage) of GAS?

A

Long-term oversecretion of cortisol

514
Q

The exhaustion stage (final stage) of GAS can result in what?

A

Death.

515
Q

With age, the _________ glands decrease in size.

A

Endocrine

516
Q

With age, ____________ and ___________ strength decreases as GH levels decline

A

Muscular; skeletal

517
Q

With age, ________ levels increase due to slower elimination by liver and kidneys

A

ADH

518
Q

With age, __________ levels decrease, increasing risk of steoporosis

A

Calcitonin

519
Q

With age, _________ level changes contribute to risk of osteoporosis, especially in females.

A

PTH

520
Q

With age, _________ resistance may develop

A

Insulin

521
Q

With age, changes in _________ secretion affect the body clock

A

Melatonin

522
Q

With age, __________ production declines, increasing risk of infections.

A

Thymosin

523
Q

What is the only type of connective tissue with a liquid matrix (plasma)?

A

Blood

524
Q

Blood _______ vital substances

A

Transports

525
Q

Blood ________ processes for homeostasis

A

Regulates

526
Q

Blood _________ the body (part of immunity)

A

Protects

527
Q

Blood maintains _____________ (viscosity, pH, electrolyte composition

A

interstitial fluid

528
Q

Blood distributes what?

A

Heat

529
Q

Blood is about what percent of body weight?

A

8%

530
Q

Adult blood volume is about how many liters in a female?

A

4 to 5

531
Q

Adult blood volume is how many liters in a male?

A

5 to 6 liters

532
Q

Blood cells form mostly in what?

A

Red bone marrow

533
Q

Blood cells are called what?

A

Formed elements

534
Q

What are the three formed elements?

A

Red blood cells (RBCs)
White blood cells (WBCs)
Platelets (cell fragments important for blood clotting)

535
Q

Formed elements make up what percentage of blood?

A

45%

536
Q

Plasma makes up what percentage of blood?

A

55%

537
Q

Platelets make up what percentage of formed elements?

A

4.8%

538
Q

Red blood cells make up what percentage of formed elements?

A

95.1%

539
Q

White blood cells make up what percentage of formed elements?

A

0.1%

540
Q

_________ in lab is used to detect blood abnormalities
In a centrifuged blood sample

A

Blood draw

541
Q

What are the components of a centrifuged blood sample?

A

Plasma, RBCs, WBCs and platelets

542
Q

________ is a Clear, straw-colored fluid matrix of blood

A

Plasma

543
Q

Where is plasma found in a centrifuge tube?

A

the top

544
Q

Where are RBCs found in a centrifuge tube?

A

Bottom

545
Q

What is the percentage of RBCs called?

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

546
Q

What makes up less than 1% of blood volume?

A

WBCs

547
Q

Where are white blood cells and platelets found in a centrifuge tube?

A

“buffy coat” in the middle

548
Q

A set of specific safety measures taken by healthcare workers to
prevent transmission of bloodborne infectious pathogens in the
workplace

A

Universal precautions

549
Q

Mainly used for HIV, Hepatitis B virus, and added hepatitis C virus
later, but applies to others too

A

Universal precautions

550
Q

_________ means that it is assumed that any patient may have been
exposed to bloodborne pathogens

A

Universal

551
Q

Estimated that 4 to 7% of new cases of infectious disease are
transmitted by what?

A

Unsafe injections

552
Q

What are the specific recommendations to prevent infection?

A

PPE, use of fume hoods and sharps containers, and safe workplace practices such as hand-washing

553
Q

What is the origin of formed elements called?

A

Hematopoiesis

554
Q

Blood cells originate in?

A

Red marrow

555
Q

What type of cells do blood cells originate from?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

556
Q

What is another name for hematopoietic stem cells

A

Hemocytoblasts

557
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells give rise to what?

A

More stem cells and more specialized or differentiated cells in response to hematopoietic growth factors

558
Q

What are two types of stem cells hematopoietic stem cells give rise to?

A

Lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells

559
Q

What type of stem cells give rise to lymphocytes?

A

Lymphoid stem cells

560
Q

What type of stem cells give rise to all other types of formed elements: Red blood
cells, other types of white blood cells, and platelets

A

Myeloid stem cells

561
Q

RBCs are also called?

A

Erythrocytes

562
Q

What shape are RBCs

A

Biconcave disc shape

563
Q

RBCs consist of one-third _________, which transports oxygen

A

hemoglobin

564
Q

What transports oxygen?

A

Hemoglobin

565
Q

_____________ means with O2

A

Oxyhemoglobin

566
Q

____________ means without O2

A

Deoxyhemoglobin

567
Q

RBCs lack what?

A

Nuclei and mitochondria

568
Q

RBCs cannot ______ (no nucleus)

A

Divide

569
Q

RBCs produce ATP through what? (no mitochondria)

A

Glycolysis

570
Q

__________= number of RBCs in a cubic
millimeter 3
(mm ) or microliter (μL) of blood

A

Red blood cell count

571
Q

______ counts are useful in diagnosis of diseases and evaluation of their
progress

A

RBC

572
Q

Changes in RBC counts reflect changes in _________________

A

Blood’s oxygen-carrying capacity

573
Q

___________ causes kidneys and liver to release EPO (erythropoietin), a
hormone which stimulates RBC production

A

Low blood O2

574
Q

Low blood O2 causes kidneys and liver to release _____________, a
hormone which stimulates RBC production

A

EPO (erythropoietin)

575
Q

Erythropoiesis is Regulated by a ________ feedback mechanism

A

Negative

576
Q

Cancer, dehydration, blood loss, chronic lung disease and high altitude can
all bypass negative feedback and result in too much ______

A

EPO

577
Q

Excess EPO can result in ____________, a condition called
polycythemia.

A

Too many RBCs

578
Q

Excess EPO can result in too many red blood cells, a condition called
what?

A

Polycythemia

579
Q

What is the average life span of RBCs?

A

120 days

580
Q

_____________ and _____________: Required for DNA synthesis; necessary
for the growth and division of all cells

A

Vitamin B12; folic acid

581
Q

___________ (secreted by the stomach lining) is required for the body
to ABSORB Vitamin B12

A

Intrinsic factor

582
Q

Too little intrinsic factor = low Vitamin B12 levels = condition called
________________-

A

Pernicious anemia

583
Q

What is required for hemaglobin synthesis?

A

Iron

584
Q

Condition in which the O2-carrying capacity of the blood is
reduced, due to deficiency of RBCs or hemoglobin

A

Anemia

585
Q

______________ requires
intrinsic factor for
absorption via small
intestine

A

Vitamin B12

586
Q

What is the source of vitamin B12?

A

Absorbed from small intestine

587
Q

What is the function of vitamin B12?

A

DNA synthesis

588
Q

What is the source of iron?

A

Absorbed from small
intestine; conserved
during red blood cell
destruction and made
available for reuse

589
Q

What is the function of iron?

A

Hemoglobin synthesis

590
Q

What is the source of folic acid?

A

Absorbed from small intestine

591
Q

What is the function of Folic acid

A

DNA synthesis

592
Q

Caused by a single DNA base mutation, which codes for hemoglobin

A

Sickle cell disease

593
Q

Results in abnormal hemoglobin structure

A

Sickle cell disease

594
Q

in ____________, RBCs are sticky, deform into sickle shapes, and block narrow blood vessels,
stopping blood flow to local areas

A

Sickle cell disease

595
Q

In _____________, Oxygen deficiency leads to more sickling, more blockages, severe pain

A

Sickle cell disease

596
Q

In ______________, RBCs die quickly, resulting in anemia, which causes extreme fatigue

A

Sickle cell disease

597
Q

Children diagnosed with __________ at birth receive antibiotics to protect infection in spleen

A

Sickle cell disease

598
Q

In _____________, Hydroxyurea is given to cause production of fetal hemoglobin, which is more
efficient at binding oxygen; slows down sickling

A

Sickle cell disease

599
Q

In __________, Transplant of bone marrow or umbilical cord stem cells can cure disease, but
has slight risk of death

A

Sickle cell disease

600
Q

In ____________, Experiments to correct the mutation in the genome and infuse new stem cells
into bone marrow show promise

A

Sickle cell disease

601
Q

Worn out or damaged RBCs are removed by _______ or _________

A

Spleen; liver

602
Q

Ruptured RBCs are ____________ by macrophages

A

Phagocytized

603
Q

______ separates into 4 subunits: globin chains with heme groups

A

Hemoglobin

604
Q

Hemoglobin separates into 4 subunits: __________

A

Globin chains with heme groups

605
Q

Globin chains are broken down into protein monomers (________) that are
recycled to make new proteins.

A

Amino acids

606
Q

____ break down into iron and biliverdin (a green pigment)

A

Heme groups

607
Q

Heme groups break down into ____ and ____ (a green pigment)

A

iron; biliverdin

608
Q

____ is transported to red bone marrow by the protein transferrin and used to
make new hemoglobin (recycled)

A

Iron

609
Q

Iron is transported to red bone marrow by the protein ____ and used to
make new hemoglobin (recycled)

A

Transferrin

610
Q

80% of the iron ends up stored in liver cells bound to the protein _____

A

Ferritin

611
Q

____ is converted into bilirubin (a yellow pigment)

A

Biliverden

612
Q

Biliverdin is converted into ____ (a yellow pigment)

A

Bilirubin

613
Q

Biliverdin and bilirubin are excreted in ____and broken down into stercobilin
(excreted in feces) and urobilin (sent to the kidneys and excreted in urine) in
the small intestine.

A

Bile

614
Q

Biliverdin and bilirubin are excreted in bile and broken down into ____
(excreted in feces) and urobilin (sent to the kidneys and excreted in urine) in
the small intestine.

A

Stercobilin

615
Q

Biliverdin and bilirubin are excreted in bile and broken down into stercobilin
(excreted in feces) and ____ (sent to the kidneys and excreted in urine) in
the small intestine.

A

Urobilin

616
Q

____ protect against disease

A

WBCs

617
Q

____ have limited life spans, so they must always be replaced

A

Leukocytes

618
Q

WBCs are Produced in red bone marrow, under control of hormones:
____ and colony-stimulating factors

A

Interleukins

619
Q

WBCs are Produced in red bone marrow, under control of hormones:
interleukins and ____

A

Colony-stimulating factors

620
Q

What are the two categories of WBCs?

A

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

621
Q

____, which have granular cytoplasm, and short life span

A

Granulocytes

622
Q

____, which do not have noticeable granules

A

Agranulocytes

623
Q

What are the three types of granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

624
Q

What are the two types of agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

625
Q

WBCs can squeeze between the cells of a capillary wall
and leave blood vessel, then migrate toward infection site

A

Diapedesis

626
Q

proteins that direct leukocytes to injury
sites

A

Cellular adhesion molecules

627
Q

____: Engulfing and digestion of pathogens; neutrophils and
monocytes are most mobile and active phagocytes

A

Phagocytosis

628
Q

Reaction that restricts spread of infection;
promoted by basophils, by secretion of heparin and histamine;
involves swelling and increased capillary permeability

A

Inflammatory response

629
Q

Attraction of WBCs to an infection site, by
chemicals released by damaged cells

A

Positive chemotaxis

630
Q

Granulocytes with small, light purple granules in acid-base stain

A

Neutrophils

631
Q

WBC with a lobed nucleus

A

Neutrophils

632
Q

Neutrophils are also called what?

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)

633
Q

First WBC to arrive at an infection site?

A

Neutrophils

634
Q

______ are strong phagocytes (WBCs)

A

Neutrophils

635
Q

_______ are 54% to 70% of leukocytes; elevated in bacterial infections

A

Neutrophils

636
Q

__________ are Granulocytes with coarse granules that stain deep red in acid stain

A

Eosinophils

637
Q

_______ have a biolobed nucleus

A

Eosinophils

638
Q

This WBC helps control inflammation and allergic reactions

A

Eosinophils

639
Q

_______ Defend against parasitic worm infestations

A

Eosinophils

640
Q

_____ are 1% to 3% of leukocytes

A

Eosinophils

641
Q

____ are Elevated in parasitic worm infestations and allergic reactions

A

Eosinophils

642
Q
A

Neutrophil

643
Q
A

Eosinophil

644
Q

Granulocytes with large granules that stain deep blue in basic stain

A

Basophils

645
Q

Release histamine to stimulate inflammation

A

Basophils

646
Q

Release heparin to stop blood from clotting

A

Basophils

647
Q

Less than 1% of leukocytes

A

Basophils

648
Q

Largest of WBCs

A

Monocytes

649
Q

WBC: Spherical, kidney-shaped, oval, or lobed nuclei

A

Monocyte

650
Q

WBC: agranulocytes

A

Monocytes

651
Q

Leave bloodstream to become macrophages

A

Monocytes

652
Q

3% to 9% of leukocytes

A

Monocytes

653
Q

WBCs that live for weeks to months

A

Monocytes

654
Q
A

Basophil

655
Q
A

Monocyte

656
Q

Slightly larger than RBCs; smallest WBCs

A

Lymphocytes

657
Q

WBC w/ Large spherical (round) nucleus surrounded by thin rim of cytoplasm

A

Lymphocytes

658
Q

Lymphocytes are granulocytes or agranulocytes?

A

Agranulocytes

659
Q

Two major types of lymphocytes?

A

T cells and B cells

660
Q

__ cells and __ cells are major types; both important in
specific/acquired immunity

A

T; B

661
Q

__ cells directly attack pathogens, tumor cells

A

T

662
Q

__ cells produce antibodies

A

B

663
Q

25% to 33% of leukocytes

A

Lymphocytes

664
Q

WBCs that May live for years

A

Lymphocytes

665
Q
A

Lymphocyte

666
Q

What is a high WBC count?

A

More than 10,500/microliter

667
Q

Leukocytosis results in _____ blood count

A

High

668
Q

A high WBC count is a result of?

A

Acute infections, vigorous exercise, great loss of body fluids

669
Q

Characteristic of leukocytosis?

A

High WBC count

670
Q

Leukopenia is characterized by a _____ WBC count

A

Low

671
Q

What is a low WBC count?

A

less than 3,500

672
Q

______ is a result of Typhoid fever, flu, measles, mumps, chicken pox, AIDS, polio, anemia

A

Leukopenia

673
Q

____ increase during bacterial infections

A

Neutrophils

674
Q

____ (a type of lymphocyte) decrease in HIV infection

A

Helper T cells

675
Q

A patient with elevated ____ could have Hairy cell leukemia, whooping cough,
mononucleosis

A

Lymphocytes

676
Q

A patient with elevated ____ could have a Tapeworm infestation, hookworm
infestation, allergic reactions

A

Eosinophils

677
Q

A patient with elevated ____ could have typhoid fever, malaria, tuberculosis

A

Monocytes

678
Q

A patient with elevated ____ could have a bacterial infection

A

Neutrophils

679
Q

A patient with too few _______ could have AIDS

A

Helper T cells (lymphocytes)

680
Q

A cancer of white blood cells

A

Leukemia

681
Q

Leukemia is classified by speed of onset: ____ or ____

A

Acute; chronic

682
Q

Symptoms appear suddenly & progresses rapidly

A

Acute

683
Q

Begins more slowly, may be undetected for months or years

A

Chronic

684
Q

Leukemia is also classified by type: _____ or _____

A

Lymphoid; myeloid

685
Q

Cancer of lymphocytes produced in lymph nodes

A

Lymphoid leukemia

686
Q

Cancer of granulocytes produced in red bone marrow

A

Myeloid leukemia

687
Q

Symptoms: Excess number of WBCs, fatigue, headache, nosebleeds,
fever, respiratory infections, bone pain, increased blood clotting time
causing bruising and bleeding

A

Leukemia

688
Q

Treatments for leukemia include:

A

Traditional cancer treatments (chemotherapy), drugs that
target enzymes specific to cancer cells, bone marrow or stem cell
transplants, refining diagnosis.

689
Q

Platelets are Cytoplasmic fragments of ____ (a type of stem cells in red
bone marrow)

A

Megakaryocytes

690
Q

Platelets are Produced by hemocytoblasts in response to the hormone,
____

A

Thrombopoietin

691
Q

____ → megakaryocyte → thrombocytes

A

Hemocytoblast

692
Q

Hemocytoblast → ____ → thrombocytes

A

Megakaryocyte

693
Q

Hemocytoblast → megakaryocyte → ____

A

Thrombocytes

694
Q

____ Lack a nucleus, and are less than half the size of a RBC

A

Platelets

695
Q

What is the platelet count in blood?

A

150,000 to 400,000/ microliter of blood

696
Q

____: Platelet count is too high

A

Thrombocytosis

697
Q

_____: platelet count below normal

A

Thrombocytopenia

698
Q

Platelets help in ____(stoppage of bleeding) in damaged blood vessels,
by sticking to broken surfaces

A

Hemostasis

699
Q

Platelets Release ____, which causes smooth muscles in walls of broken
blood vessels to contract

A

Seratonin

700
Q

In blood, ____ is Clear, straw-colored

A

Plasma

701
Q

Liquid portion of blood

A

Plasma

702
Q

_____ is 55% of blood volume

A

Plasma

703
Q

____ in blood is 92% water

A

Plasma

704
Q

______ in blood contains organic and inorganic chemicals

A

Plasma

705
Q

____ in blood Transports nutrients, gases, hormones, and vitamins

A

Plasma

706
Q

____ in blood Helps regulate fluid and electrolyte balance and maintain pH

A

Plasma

707
Q

Most abundant dissolved substances (solutes) in plasma

A

Plasma proteins

708
Q

______ are not typically used as an energy source in blood

A

Plasma proteins

709
Q

What organ makes 4/5 plasma proteins?

A

The liver

710
Q

What are the most important blood gases?

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

711
Q

What are the four plasma nutrients?

A

Amino acids
Simple sugars
Nucleotides
Lipids

712
Q

What are the three type of plasma nutrients lipids?

A

Fats (triglycerides)
Phospholipids
Cholesterol

713
Q

What are NPNs?

A

Nonprotein nitrogenous substances

714
Q

NPNs (nonprotein nitrogenous substances are Molecules that contain nitrogen, but are not ____

A

proteins

715
Q

NPNs (nonprotein nitrogenous substances are Molecules that contain ____, but are not proteins

A

Nitrogen

716
Q

In plasma, NPNs (nonprotein nitrogenous substances) include:

A

Urea
Uric acid
Amino acids
Creatine
Creatinine
BUN

717
Q

product of protein catabolism; about 50% of NPNs

A

Urea

718
Q

Urea: product of ____; about 50% of NPNs

A

Protein catabolism

719
Q

product of nucleic acid catabolism

A

Uric acid

720
Q

Uric acid: product of ____

A

Nucleic acid catabolism

721
Q

product of protein digestion

A

Amino acids

722
Q

Amino acids: product of ____

A

Protein digestion

723
Q

stores energy in phosphate bonds; regenerates ATP in
muscles

A

Creatine

724
Q

product of creatine metabolism

A

Creatinine

725
Q

blood urea nitrogen; indicates health of kidney (high level
indicates that kidney is not excreting urea in normal quantity, due
to some type of impaired renal function)

A

BUN

726
Q

Plasma contains ions called _____, since they ionize in water, and
can conduct electricity

A

Electrolytes

727
Q

are absorbed from the intestine or released as by-products of
cellular metabolism

A

Plasma electrolytes

728
Q

What are some electrolytes found in blood plasma?

A

Sodium
Potassium
Calcium
Magnesium
Chloride
Bicarbonate
Phosphate
Sulfate

729
Q

______ and ____ are the most abundant electrolytes

A

Sodium; chloride

730
Q

Stoppage of bleeding.

A

Hemostasis

731
Q

Three actions that limit or prevent blood loss in order that
they occur:

A

Blood vessel (vascular) spasm
Platelet plug formation
Blood coagulation

732
Q

Hemostasis mechanisms are most effective in _____ blood vessel injuries

A

Small

733
Q

A ________ is Stimulated by cutting or breaking a small blood vessel

A

Vascular spasm

734
Q

During a ____, Smooth muscle in blood vessel contracts rapidly

A

Vascular spasm

735
Q

A ____ Slows blood loss very quickly, and ends of vessel may close
completely

A

Vascular spasm

736
Q

A vascular spasm Response lasts a few minutes, but effect continues for __ minutes

A

30

737
Q

The long-lasting effect of a vascular spasm allows time for a _______ to form and for blood to coagulate.

A

Platelet plug

738
Q

During a ____, Serotonin released from platelets causes vasoconstriction which
further helps to reduce blood loss

A

Vascular spasm

739
Q

______ are Triggered by exposure of platelets to collagen

A

Platelet plugs

740
Q

Platelets adhere (stick) to rough surface to form a plug

A

Platelet plug

741
Q

Most effective hemostatic mechanism, occurs within 5 to 15 minutes

A

Blood coagulation

742
Q

Blood coagulations Form ____ in a series of reactions, in which each step activates next
one; this is called a cascade

A

Blood clots

743
Q

Blood coagulation is Initiated by 2 different methods: ____ or ____ clotting mechanism

A

Extrinsic; intrinsic

744
Q

Many chemicals used in coagulation are called ____

A

Clotting factors

745
Q

Vitamin ___ necessary for functioning of some of the clotting factors

A

K

746
Q

In blood coagulation, the Major event is conversion of soluble ____ to insoluble threads of fibrin,
which traps blood cells

A

Fibrinogen

747
Q

In blood coagulation, the Major event is conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble threads of ____,
which traps blood cells

A

Fibrin

748
Q

Triggered by blood coming in contact with tissues outside
of blood vessels or damaged wall of blood vessel

A

Extrinsic clotting mechanism

749
Q

During the extrinsic clotting mechanism ____ converts fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin threads

A

Thrombin

750
Q

During the extrinsic clotting mechanism, Thrombin converts ____ into insoluble fibrin
threads

A

Fibrinogen

751
Q

During the extrinsic clotting mechanism Thrombin converts fibrinogen into insoluble ____
threads

A

Fibrin

752
Q

Fibrin threads stick to damaged blood vessel surfaces, and
trap blood cells and platelets; this mass is a ____

A

Blood clot

753
Q

The extrinsic clotting mechanism is an example of a ____ feedback mechanism; once clotting begins, it promotes additional clotting

A

Positive

754
Q

The _____ clotting mechanism Can start without tissue damage

A

Intrinsic

755
Q

The ____ clotting mechanism Activated when blood comes in contact with foreign
surface, such as collagen, in connective tissue, instead of
endothelium of blood vessel wall

A

Intrinsic

756
Q

The intrinsic clotting mechanism is triggered by ______ (found inside blood)

A

Hageman factor XII

757
Q

Intrinsic clotting mechanism: Starting with formation of ____, this cascade proceeds and ends same way as extrinsic mechanism, with formation of a fibrin mesh and a blood clot

A

Factor X

758
Q

Intrinsic clotting mechanism: Starting with formation of Factor X, this cascade proceeds
and ends same way as extrinsic mechanism, with
formation of a ____ and a blood clot

A

Fibrin mesh

759
Q

Intrinsic clotting method: Starting with formation of Factor X, this cascade proceeds
and ends same way as extrinsic mechanism, with
formation of a fibrin mesh and a ____

A

Blood clot

760
Q

Where are 9/12 of the clotting factors made?

A

The Liver

761
Q

What mineral is required for blood clotting?

A

Calcium

762
Q

What vitamin is required for blood clotting?

A

Vitamin K

763
Q

After a blood clot forms, it retracts and pulls the edges of a
broken blood vessel together while squeezing ____ from
the clot

A

Serum

764
Q

plasma minus fibrinogen and most clotting
factors

A

Serum

765
Q

____ stimulates smooth muscle
cells and fibroblasts to repair damaged blood vessel walls

A

Platelet-derived growth factor

766
Q

____ digests fibrin threads, and dissolves the blood
clot

A

Plasmin

767
Q

An abnormal blood clot that forms in a blood
vessel

A

Thrombus

768
Q

A blood clot moving through the blood vessels

A

Embolus

769
Q

Blood clot in a vessel supplying a vital organ
(brain, heart)

A

Thrombosis

770
Q

Death of tissues which have blocked blood
vessels due to blood clot formation

A

Infarction

771
Q

Blood clot that travels, and then blocks a
blood vessel in an organ (such as pulmonary embolism in
lungs)

A

Embolism

772
Q

Accumulation of fat in arterial linings
can sometimes cause abnormal clot formation; a common
form of thrombosis

A

Atherosclerosis

773
Q

Clot formation due to pooling of stagnant blood, mainly in femoral or
popliteal veins, or deep veins of pelvis

A

Deep vein thrombosis

774
Q

Serious complication of DVT is a ____, in which
blood clot travels through circulation, and lodges in a pulmonary blood
vessel, resulting in loss of function in affected portion of the lung

A

Pulmonary embolism

775
Q

Occurs with prolonged period of immobility, such as airplane flight

A

Deep vein thrombosis

776
Q

Symptoms of ____: deep muscle pain, cramping, redness, swelling,
and dilation of surface veins (phlebitis)

A

Deep vein thrombosis

777
Q

In ____, Clot may break off hours or days after formation

A

Deep vein thrombosis

778
Q

Preventive measures for _____: Anticoagulant medications, compression
stockings, and exercise during travel

A

Deep vein thrombosis

779
Q

In 1910, identification of the ____
explained the observed blood type incompatibilities

A

ABO blood antigen gene

780
Q

Blood types are distinguished by Proteins (____) on the
surfaces of red blood cells, and these can be determined
by the proteins or by the genes that encode them

A

Antigens

781
Q

Safe ____ require knowing the blood types of
donor and recipient, and cross matching donor red blood
cells (RBCs) with recipient’s serum, checking for
agglutination (clumping of RBCs)

A

Transfusions

782
Q

Safe transfusions require knowing the ____ of
donor and recipient, and cross matching donor red blood
cells (RBCs) with recipient’s serum, checking for
agglutination (clumping of RBCs)

A

Blood types

783
Q

Safe transfusions require knowing the blood types of
donor and recipient, and ____ donor red blood
cells (RBCs) with recipient’s serum, checking for
agglutination (clumping of RBCs)

A

Cross matching

784
Q

Safe transfusions require knowing the blood types of
donor and recipient, and cross matching donor red blood
cells (RBCs) with recipient’s serum, checking for
____ (clumping of RBCs)

A

Agglutination

785
Q

Any molecules that evoke an immune response

A

Antigens

786
Q

If immune system finds a foreign antigen in the body, it produces ____
against the antigen

A

Antibodies

787
Q

Proteins in blood plasma that react against a specific antigen

A

Antibodies

788
Q

In an ____ blood transfusion, donor red blood cells (RBCs) evoke
an immune response in the recipient, and antibodies in the recipient’s plasma
agglutinate (clump) the donor RBCs

A

Incompatible

789
Q

Clumping of RBCs, which occurs when an antibody (in recipient’s plasma)
encounters its specific antigen (on donor’s RBCs)

A

Agglutination

790
Q

Only a small number of antigens on RBC membranes evoke serious
transfusion reactions: those of the ____ and ____ groups

A

ABO; Rh

791
Q

____ reaction: Anxiety, breathing problems, facial flushing, headache,
severe pain, perhaps jaundice

A

Transfusion

792
Q

Based on the presence or absence of two major antigens on red blood
cell membranes: Antigen A and Antigen B.

A

ABO blood group

793
Q

Antigens A and B are ____ attached to glycolipids on cell
membranes

A

Carbohydrates

794
Q

Antigens A and B are carbohydrates attached to ____ on cell
membranes

A

Glycolipids

795
Q

Antibodies are associated with some blood types; in general, a person
produces antibodies against ____ that are not present on his/her
RBC membranes

A

Antigens

796
Q

Blood type A antigen?

A

A

797
Q

Blood type A antibody?

A

Anti-B

798
Q

Blood type B antigen?

A

B

799
Q

Blood type B antibody?

A

Anti-A

800
Q

Blood type AB antigen?

A

A and B

801
Q

Must make sure that antibodies in recipient’s plasma do
not bind to donor’s RBC antigens, and ____ and
destroy the RBCs

A

Agglutinate

802
Q

Type A blood contains Antigen A on RBC
membranes, and Anti-B antibodies in plasma; this
person cannot receive transfusion of RBCs that contain the
__ antigen

A

B

803
Q

Type O is the ______ donor

A

Universal

804
Q

Type AB is the _______ recipient

A

Universal

805
Q

Type O lacks antigens ___ and ___

A

A; B

806
Q

Type O RBCs can be donated to a person with ____ blood type

A

Any

807
Q

Even if a person has Anti-A and/or Anti-B antibodies, the target antigens are
missing on type __ donor’s RBCs, so agglutination will not occur

A

O

808
Q

Often, when blood type __ is given to a person with a different blood type, it is transfused
slowly and in small quantities

A

O

809
Q

Type AB blood lacks both Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies, so an individual
with type AB can receive donor RBCs of ___ type

A

Any

810
Q

The Rh blood group was named for the ______ monkey, in which it was first studied

A

Rhesus monkey

811
Q

The Rh group includes several Rh antigens or factors, but most important
one is antigen __

A

D

812
Q

Presence of antigen D or other Rh antigens on RBC
membranes.

A

Rh positive

813
Q

Do not have Rh antigens on RBC membranes

A

Rh negative

814
Q

Serious condition in Rh+ fetus carried by Rh- mother who has been
previously sensitized to Rh antigen; rare condition, due to medical care

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis, or hemolytic disease of the newborn

815
Q

Which of the following is an effect of PTH on the kidneys?

A. Decreased synthesis of vitamin D
B. Increased calcium excretion
C. Decreased calcium excretion
D. decreased phosphate excretion

A

C

816
Q

Protein molecules that act as receptors for nonsteroid hormones typically have a ______ site, which interacts with the hormone. As a result, the _____ site of the receptor interacts with other membrane proteins.

A

Binding; activity

817
Q

Vitamin D stimulates the absorption of ____ from food in the intestine

A

Calcium

818
Q

The pancreatic hormone that stimulates an increase in blood glucose levels is _____

A

Glucagon

819
Q

What hormone affects the production and differentiation of T lymphocytes and, thus, plays an important role in immunity?

A

Thymosin

820
Q

How are steroid hormones transported to their target cells?

A

Bound to plasma proteins

821
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin (OT) are synthesized in the ______. Nerve impulses cause their release from the ____ (where they are stored) into the bloodstream.

A

Hypothalamus; posterior pituitary

822
Q

What are the effects of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A

In the kidneys, it promotes blood calcium conservation and promotes excretion of phosphate. In bones it inhibits osteoblast activity.

823
Q

Insulin, a nonsteroid hormone,Insulin, a nonsteroid hormone, binds with a cell membrane receptor causing activation of proteins inside the cell. What would you consider insulin to be in this example?

A

A first messenger

824
Q

Which of the following describes an effect of parathyroid hormone in kidney cells?

A. It stimulates the production of the active form of vitamin D
B. It stimulates the production of provitamin D from cholesterol
C. It stimulates the degradation of vitamin D.

A

A

825
Q

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis are stimulated by the pancreatic hormone ?

A

Glucagon

826
Q

What causes the release of ADH and oxytocin from the posterior pituitary?

A

Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus

827
Q

Identify the hormone that decreases the rate at which calcium is lost in the urine.

A

Parathyroid hormone

828
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin (OT) are synthesized in the _______. Nerve impulses cause their release from the ______ (where they are stored) into the bloodstream.

A

Hypothalamus; posterior pituitary

829
Q

Which of the following is an effect of PTH on the kidneys.

A. Increased calcium excretion
B. Decreased synthesis of vitamin D
C. Decreased phosphate excretion
D. Decreased calcium excretion

A

D

830
Q

Amines, peptides, and proteins are examples of ______ hormones that bind to receptors in the target cell membranes.

A

Nonsteroid

831
Q

What are some effects of glucagon?

A

Raises blood glucose levels
Stimulates the conversion of noncarbohydrates (e.g., amino acids) into glucose, and stimulates the liver to break down glycogen.

832
Q

What causes the release of ADH and oxytocin from the posterior pituitary?

A

Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus

833
Q

The level of maternal bonding with the infant appears to be correlated to the levels of the hormone
______ during pregnancy.

A

Oxytocin or OT

834
Q

ChoiceFormed from cholesterol. They include: estrogen, testosterone, aldosterone, cortisol.

A

Steroid hormones

835
Q

Formed from amino acids. They include: norepinephrine, epinephrine.

A

Amine hormones

836
Q

Formed from amino acids. They include: antidiuretic hormone, oxytocin, thyrotropin-releasing hormone.

A

Peptide hormones

837
Q

Formed from amino acids. They include: parathyroid hormone, growth hormone, prolactin.

A

Protein hormones

838
Q

Formed from protein and carbohydrate. They include follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone.

A

Glycoprotein hormones

839
Q

Athletes who abuse erythropoietin (EPO) put themselves at risk for _____.

A

Heart attack

840
Q

The gland located in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone is the _______ gland. It is attached to the hypothalamus through the infundibulum.

A

Pituitary

841
Q

Hypopituitary dwarfism is due to an abnormally low level of ____ hormone during childhood

A

growth (somatotropin)

842
Q

The pancreatic hormone that stimulates an increase in blood glucose levels is

A

Glucagon

843
Q

What are some examples of steroid hormones?

A

Testosterone
Estrogen
Cortisol
Aldosterone

844
Q

Too little growth hormone during childhood has what effect?

A

Overall small size, though proportions are normal

845
Q

What causes the release of ADH and oxytocin from the posterior pituitary?

A

Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus

846
Q

What would stimulate the release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A

Decreased levels of thyroid hormone
Increased levels of thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

847
Q

What are the two effects of antidiuretic hormone, or ADH?

A

Vasoconstriction; water retention

848
Q

What hormone helps maintain blood volume and blood pressure by conserving sodium ions and water in the kidney?

A

Aldosterone

849
Q

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the ______ controls the secretion of TSH by the adenohypophysis.

A

Hypothalamus

850
Q

Manuel has recently lost a loved one causing undue levels of stress, which stimulates his hypothalamus to release more CRH leading to a ______ concentration of ______ until the stress subsides.

A

Higher; cortisol

851
Q

Aldosterone helps to regulate blood volume by stimulating _____ conservation in the kidneys.

A

Sodium

852
Q

Amines, peptides, and proteins are examples of ______ hormones that bind to receptors in the target cell membranes.

A

Nonsteroid

853
Q

What causes the release of ADH and oxytocin from the posterior pituitary?

A

Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus

854
Q

What would stimulate the release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A

Increased levels of thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), decreased levels of thyroid hormone

855
Q

Calcitonin lowers blood calcium levels by _____.

A

Stimulating osteoblasts and inhibiting osteoclasts

856
Q

Which symptoms are associated with acromegaly?

A

Enlarged nose, hands, feet, and jaw

857
Q

Where is the adrenal medulla?

A

At the core of the adrenal gland, superior to the kidney

858
Q

Which pair of hormones acts antagonistically to one another?

Estrogen and LH
Melatonin and calcitonin
Insulin and glucagon
T3 and T4

A

Insulin and glucagon

859
Q

The levels of ______ (secreted by the adrenal cortex) increase under conditions of stress, as a result of an increase of CRH (produced by the hypothalamus).

A

Cortisol

860
Q

What hormone helps maintain blood volume and blood pressure by conserving sodium ions and water in the kidney?

A

Aldosterone

861
Q

What mechanisms is triggered when blood glucose is high?

A

Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin

862
Q

How does type 1 diabetes mellitus differ from type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus results from a lack of insulin, and type 2 diabetes mellitus results from an inability to respond to insulin.

863
Q

Human growth hormone (HGH) can be used to treat certain conditions in adults, however, excess HGH can cause ______.

A

Joint pain, increased risk of diabetes mellitus

864
Q

Aldosterone helps to regulate blood volume by stimulating _____ conservation in the kidneys.

A

Sodium

865
Q

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the ______ controls the secretion of TSH by the adenohypophysis.

A

Hypothalamus

866
Q

What gland is a small, yellowish brown structure covered by a thin capsule of connective tissue?

A

Parathyroid gland

867
Q

An inability to respond to insulin results in type _____ diabetes mellitus while a lack of insulin results in type _____ diabetes mellitus.

A

2, 1

868
Q

Human growth hormone (HGH) can be used to treat _____.

A

Turner syndrom

869
Q

What hormone helps maintain blood volume and blood pressure by conserving sodium ions and water in the kidney?

A

Aldosterone

870
Q

What causes the release of ADH and oxytocin from the posterior pituitary?

A

Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus

871
Q

There are four _____ glands, each a small, yellowish brown structure covered by a thin capsule of connective tissue.

A

Parathyroid

872
Q

Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium concentration by stimulating ______ and by inhibiting ______.

A

Osteoclasts; osteoblasts

873
Q

Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts and inhibits osteoblasts?

A

Parathyroid hormone

874
Q

Which hormones have the effect of increasing the heart rate and blood pressure, increasing the breathing rate, and decreasing digestive activity?

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

875
Q

The term general adaptation syndrome refers to the body’s response to

A

stress

876
Q

Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome can lead to death?

A

Stage of exhaustion

877
Q

Choose all changes that are typically observed in endocrine glands with age.

A

The proportion of each gland that is fibrous in nature increases.
Lipofuscin accumulates in cells
They decrease in size

878
Q

What would stimulate the release of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A

Decreased levels of thyroid hormone; increased levels of thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

879
Q

With age, the glands of the endocrine system generally _____ in size and _____ in the proportion of each gland that is fibrous in nature.

A

Decrease; increase

880
Q

Major glands of the endocrine system

A

Thymus
thyroid
pancreas

881
Q

Steroid hormones are synthesized from ____, while nonsteroid hormones are synthesized from _____

A

Cholesterol; amino acids

882
Q

What is CRH?

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone

883
Q

What is GnRH?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

884
Q

What is SS?

A

Somatostatin

885
Q

What is GHRH?

A

Growth hormone-releasing hormone

886
Q

What is PIH?

A

Prolactin release-inhibiting hormone

887
Q

What is PRF?

A

Prolactin-releasing factor

888
Q

What is TRH?

A

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

889
Q

What is ACTH?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

890
Q

What is FSH?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone

891
Q

What is GH?

A

Growth hormone