Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbio > Exam 3 Super Review > Flashcards

Exam 3 Super Review Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Archaea and bacteria are the only domains present
A

Pre-Eukaryotes. Over 2 Billion Years Ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Mostly anaerobes, but some microaerobes.
A

Pre-Eukaryotes. Over 2 Billion Years Ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Facultative and Aerobic cells appear

a. With (superoxide dismustase and catalase)

A

Pre-Eukaryotes. Over 2 Billion Years Ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Some oxygenic photosynthesis via Cyanobacteria
A

Pre-Eukaryotes. Over 2 Billion Years Ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. 1% atmospheric oxygen can support aerobic cellular respiration
A

Pre-Eukaryotes. Over 2 Billion Years Ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Some predation
A

Pre-Eukaryotes. Over 2 Billion Years Ago

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ii. Eukaryotic first appeared with the advent of enough (What element?) in the atmosphere to support cellular respiration and be a threat to anaerobic and microaerobic bacteria

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

iii. Eukarya believed to be resulted from
1. __________, recombination
a. NOT mutation

A

Symbiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Anaerobic Archaea phagocytized aerobic bacteria that resembled _______
A

Rickettsia!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Phagocytized aerobic bacteria became ____, which provided Archaea with enzymes (catalase!) while the larger Archaea provided a safe haven + nutrients

A

Endosymbionts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

b. After giving-up its genes to Archaea the endosymbionts became first ______ and then became the first membrane bound _____

A

Enslaved

Organelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Photosynthetic bacteria (similar to cyanobacteria) are also engulfed; they develop into _______
A

chloroplasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mitochondria function

A

Energy Production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Energy Producer

Outer membrane has G- like proteins

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Energy Producer

Inner Membrane with folds

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Hold the enzymes/electron carriers for aerobic respiration
A

Cristae
Inner Membrane
Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Divide independently of cell

a. Binary fission reproduction *

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Eukarya organelle, but

  1. Contains
    a. Circular DNA stored *
    b. 70s Prokaryotic ribosomes (!!!) *
A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Eukarya organelle

  1. Function
    a. Convert the energy of sunlight into chemical energy through photosynthesis
A

Chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Found

a. In algae and plant cells

A

Chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Consists of
    a. Outer membrane which covers
    b. Inner membrane, folded into sacs
    c. Thylakoids, stacked into grana
A

Chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Primary producers of organic nutrients for other organisms

A

Chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How it’s derived from G- prokaryotic cells **

a. G- outer membrane proteins
b. 70s ribosomes
c. Circular DNA strand
d. Divides by binary fission

A

Chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

a. All Eukarya are such because they have

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

i. Are mosaic of genes from both Archaea and bacteria

A

Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

i. Protista is the kingdom that came ____ wth the Acquisition of Undulipodia

A

last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

a. Derived from centrioles that strongly resemble Spirochetes

A

Undulipodia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

synonymous with flagella

A

undulipodia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

i. Member of Protista at some point phagocytized and ultimately enslaved a photosynthetic bacterium such as cyanobacteria
- origin of ____

A

Plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. This photosynthetic bacteria became a
A

chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Photosynthetic protisa became the subkingdom (phyla)
A

algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Plants appear to have evolved from

A

green algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ii. Protista that did not contain photosynthetic bacteria became the subkingdom (phyla) _____

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

i. No Undulipodia
1. Fungi
a. Unicellular
i. Yeast

A

Animal cells?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Algae phyla are derivative of ____ kingdom

A

Protista

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

i. Photosynthetic organisms

A

Algae
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Unicellular
  2. Colonial
  3. Filamentous
A

Algae
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

iv. Contains
1. Chloroplasts with
a. Chlorophyll and other pigments

A

Algae
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Cell wall

a. Made of cellulose

A

Algae
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. May or may not have

a. Undulipodia

A

Algae
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Has

a. Ribosomes
b. Flagellum
c. Mitochondrion
d. Nucleus
e. Nucleolus
f. Chloroplast
g. Golgi Apparatus
h. Cytoplasm
i. Cell membrane
j. Starch Vacuoles
k. Cell Wall

A

Algae
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

i. May have
1. Undulipodia
ii. Do NOT have
1. Chloroplasts
2. Cell wall

A

Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

iii. Does have
1. Flagellum
2. Ribosomes
3. Mitochondrion
4. ER
5. Nucleus
6. Pellicle
7. Nucleolus
8. Cell membrane
9. Golgi Apparatus
10. Water vacuole
11. Centrioles
12. Cell membrane
13. Glycocalyx

A

Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

iv. Most have locomotor structures
1. Flagella
2. Cilia
3. Pseudopods

A

Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

v. Single celled eukarya, along with algae

A

Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

vi. Often demonstrate polymorphism (multiple life forms)
1. Trophozoite
2. Cyst
3. Other class specific

A

Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

a. Motile, feeding stage

i. Forms in response to moistures, restored nutrients

A

Trophozoite stage
Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

a. Many can enter into a dormant resting stage when conditions are unfavorable for growth and feeding

A

Cyst stage
Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

All reproduce

  1. Asexually
    a. Mitosis
    b. Or Multiple fission
  2. Sexually
    a. Conjugation
A

Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

viii. Respiration
1. Usually aerobic (cellular respiration)
2. Chemoheterotrophs

A

Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

a. Mastigophora
b. Sarcodina
c. Ciliata
d. Sporozoa

A

Classifications
Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Found in soil and water

2. Parasites of multicellular organisms

A

Classifications
Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Most are consumers and some are decomposers

4. Sporozoa cause 50% of deaths before the age of 5

A

Classifications
Protozoa
Protista Kingdom
Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which has
Mitochondrion?
Protozoa or Algae?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which has
Chloroplasts
Protozoa or Algae?

A

Algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which has
Cell wall? Composition?
Protozoa or Algae?

A
  1. Algae

2. Cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Protozoa responsible for Amebic Dysentery

A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. 4th most common protozoan infection
A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

a. food and waterborne illness

b. Ingested cysts hatch into trophozoites in intestine

A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

c. Trophozoites produce pore toxin
i. Lyses epithelia cells of intestines
1. Causes ulceration and bloody diarrhea
2. Bloody diarrhea = dysentery

A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

ii. Can penetrate broken blood vessels and invade other organs
1. Lungs
2. Liver
3. Brain
iii. Cause life threatening abcesses

A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. Asymptomatic in 90% of patients

5. Ameba may secrete enzymes that dissolve tissues and penetrate deeper layers of the mucosa

A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. It Causes
    a. Dysentery
    b. Abdominal pain
    c. Fever
    d. Diarrhea
    e. Weight loss
A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Carried by 10% of world population

8. Mortality is 100,000 per year worldwide

A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. Treatment
    a. Commonly Metronidazole = Flagyl
    b. Works in anaerobic conditions
A 
Entamoeba Histolytica (Sarcodina)
Amebic Dysentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Protozoa responsible for Giardiasis

i. 2 nuclei
ii. No mitochondria
iii. Adhesive discs – trophozoites

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. Second to E. Coli as most common source of chronic diarrhea picked up while traveling
A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

a. Found in 97% of surface water

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

i. Problem for
1. Campers
2. Hikers
3. Daycare centers
4. Among gay men

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

ii. Beavers, muskrats are the primary reservoirs

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. Cysts are food and waterborne
A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

a. The microbe attaches to lining of small intestine with adhesive discs

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

b. Incubation

i. 12-20 days

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

c. Heavy infestation causes inflammation that inhibits absorption of nutrients

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. Diagnosis
    a. Difficult
    i. Organism shed in feces
  2. intermittenly
A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. Symptoms include (last for 2-6 weeks)
    a. Fever
    b. Cramps
    c. Diarrhea
    d. Nausea
    e. Weight loss
A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

b. Chlorinating water

i. This does not kill cysts

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. Prevention
    a. Filtering water before boiling
    b. Chlorinating water
    c. Ozonating city water supplies
A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. Treatment

a. Metronidazole

A 
Giardia Lamblia (Mastigophora)
Giardiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Causes Cryptosporidiosis

b. Intestinal pathogen

A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. Leading cause of diarrheal disease by protozoan in the world, since 1982 (beginning of AIDS epidemic)
A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. Acquired via
    a. Fecal-oral route from
    b. Threatens our water supply
A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

a. Fecal-oral route from
i. Kittens
ii. Puppies
iii. Livestock
iv. Deer
v. Person to person
1. Daycare centers
2. Hospitals
vi. Ponds
vii. Lakes

A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

a. =Discovered after 1970

A

=Emerging Disease
Cryptosporidium Protozoa
Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

b. 1993 – Milwaukee, WI
i. 370,000 cases due to
1. Contaminated water
2. Filtration required for removal
a. Chlorination will not work

A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

a. Ingestion of oocysts gives rise to
i. Sporozoites that
1. Penetrate intestinal epithelial cells
a. Give rise to merozoites
i. Which re-infect the epithelial of intestinal lining, develop oocysts that are excretted

A

Stages in Development
Cryptosporidium Protozoa
Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

b. Within 12-14 hours
i. Gastroenteritis
ii. Headache
iii. Sweating
iv. Vomiting
v. Abdominal cramps
vi. Extremely watery Diarrhea

A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

c. May persist for weeks

d. AIDs patients may suffere chronic persistent diarrhea

A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. Treatment

a. No effective drugs

A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. Self limiting in uncompromised victims
  2. Opportunistic in immunocompromised victims and may persist indefinitely
    a. AIDS patients
    b. The young
A

Cryptosporidium Protozoa

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

a. 1 of top 3 killers in world

b. 300-500 million new cases in world each year

A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

c. 40% of the world population
d. Mortality
i. 1-2 million deaths, primarily children

A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

a. Reemerging disease caused by several species of _________

A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Re Emerging

i. First emerged about 40,000 years ago

A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

_________ causes 95% of malarial deaths

i. Children and fetuses deprived of O2 from infected mother

A

Plasmodium Falciparum

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

c. Obligate intracellular sporozoan

A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

i. P. malariae
ii. P. vivax
iii. P. falciparum
iv. P. ovale

A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  1. Historicially most common and widespread
  2. Can emerge from liver in stages causing relapses (1-30 years)
  3. 95% of Africans have mutation (Duffy negative)
    a. Blocks merozoites from infecting RBC’s
A

ii. P. vivax

Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  1. Not as widespread
  2. More deadly
  3. No relapses
  4. All merozoites emerge from liver at same time
  5. Sickle cell heterozygous people protected
  6. 80-90% of infections in Africa
  7. 90% of deaths
  8. HIV infection increases malarial deaths
A

P. Falciparum

Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

a. Female Anopheles mosquito
b. Blood transfusions
c. Mother to fetus

A

Vectors

Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. Life Cycle
    a. Asexual Phase – Human host
    b. Sexual phase – mosquito host
A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

i. Infected mosquito injects asexual sporozoite

A

Asexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  1. Localizes in liver
A

Asexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  1. Undergoes division generating numerous merozoites, which enter circulation in 5-16 days depending on species
A

Asexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

a. Invade red blood cells, convert to trophozoites, and multiply

A

Asexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

b. 48 hour cycle burst, release more merozoites, eventually differentiate into gametes. (3-5 years later)

A

Asexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

i. Mosquito draws infected RBC’s when nomming on blood

A

Sexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

ii. Gametes fertilize, form diploid cell

A

Sexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

iii. Forms sporozoites in stomach of mosquito

A

Sexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

iv. Sporozoites lodge in salivary glands

1. Available to infect the human host

A

Sexual Phase
Plasmodium
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q
  1. Symptoms
    a. Episodes of chills-fever-sweating
    b. Anemia
    c. Liver and spleen enlargement and brain damage
    i. Due to clots and hypoxia
    d. Occur at 48-72 hour intervals as RBC’s rupture
    e. Interval depends on species
A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
  1. Diagnosis

a. Presence of trophozoite in RBC’s, symptoms

A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q
  1. Increasing drug resistance
A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q
  1. Therapy
    a. Fansidar cocktail with Chloroquine
    b. Hospitalization for 5 days with quinine
    c. Mefloquine
    d. ACT Artemisinin Combination Therapy
    e. Nothing
    i. Rely on continuous infection and immune response
A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q
  1. Prevention
    a. Destroy mostquito
    i. Breeding grounds
    b. Vaccine
    i. Goal: eliminate mortality; not necessarily infection
    c. Insectiside treated nets
    d. Fansidar
    i. For pregnant women
A

Plasmodium

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

i. No undulipodia – “True Fungi”

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

ii. Terrestrial, but require moisture

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

iii. Develop from spores

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

iv. Eukaryotes with rigid cell wall consisting mostly of chitin

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
  1. Unicellular
    a. Yeast
  2. Multicellular - hyphae
    a. Molds
A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

vi. Decomposers

1. Chemoheterotrophs

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

a. Acquires nutrients via

i. Diffusion after exoenzymes break down their food source

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q
  1. Sometimes parasites

a. Never obligate

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

multicellular forms can change to unicellular forms in the host body; yeast may change to the hypha form

A

Dimorphic

Fungi
General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

viii. Are the single most important cause of disease in plants

A

Fungi

General Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Does it have undulipodia? (Fungi)

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Do Fungi have cell wall? made of?

A

YES.

CHITIN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

i. Soft, uniform texture and appearance

ii. Single celled fungi

A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

iii. Grow in colonies

iv. Produce exoenzymes

A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

v. Can form biofilms

A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

vi. Contain

1. Plasmids

A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q
  1. Best understood eukarya
    a. 1st mapped genome
    b. Stripped down version of human cell
A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

vii. Reproduce
1. Asexually
a. Via mitosis
b. Generate BUDS
2. Sexually
a. Via Ascospores + Basidiospores

A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
  1. The ability to ferment and generate
    a. Beer
    b. Wine
    c. Vinegar
    d. Ethyl alcohol
A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q
  1. Use of their plasmids for genetic engineering
    a. Advantage
    i. Don’t produce toxins
A

Yeast Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

i. Consist of hyphae forming a mycelium (mat)

ii. Form the thallus (body) of the mold

A

Mold Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q
  1. Production of
    a. Commercial acids
    b. Enzymes
    c. Antibiotics
A

Mold Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

disease caused by a fungi

A

=mycoses

Mold Phyla
Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

b. Many begin as lung infections
i. Result from inhaling spores
ii. Wind makes the spores airborne where they can

A

Mycoses

Mold Phyla
Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

c. Often result in TB – symptoms
i. Cough
1. Droplets
ii. Aches
iii. Fevers

A

Mycoses

Mold Phyla
Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

d. Treatment

i. Amphotericin B

A

Mycoses

Mold Phyla
Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

iv. Usually self limiting if person has normal immune system

v. FRUITING BODIES

A

Mold Phyla

Fungi Kingdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Which:
is unicellular
Yeast or Molds?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Which:
multicellular
Yeast or Molds?

A

molds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Which:
has plasmids?
Yeast or Molds?

A

yeasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which:
made of hypha
Yeast or Molds?

A

molds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which:
generate fruiting bodies?
Yeast or Molds?

A

molds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Yeast that causes Candidiasis

A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

a. Normally found in intestinal tract
i. Causes opportunistic infections of
1. Skin
2. Mouth
3. Vagina

A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q
  1. Accounts for 70% of nosocomial fungal infections

a. Mycoses

A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q
  1. Opportunistic

a. For immunocompromised individuals

A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q
  1. Risk Factors
    a. Taking antibitoics
    b. High Blood Sugar
A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q
  1. Virulence Factors
    a. Adhesins
    b. Can convert to the hyphal form in the human body
    i. Stimulates production of blood blots
    c. Secretion of proteases and phospholipases
A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q
  1. Thrush
    a. Thick
    b. White
    c. Adherent growth on mucous membranes of mouth and throat
A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q
  1. Vulvovaginal yeast infection
    a. Painful
    b. Inflammatory condition that causes ulceration and discharge
A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q
  1. Cutaneous candidiasis

a. Occurs in chronically moist areas of skin and in burn patients

A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q
  1. Treatment

a. Amphotericin B

A

Candida Albicans

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Dermatophyte

Tinea

A

Ringworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q
  1. =tinea capitis, affects calp and hair-bearing region of head
  2. Hair may be lost
A

of Scalp

Ringworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q
  1. =tinea barbae
  2. Affects the chin and beard of adult males
  3. Contracted mainly from animals
A

of Beard

Ringworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q
  1. =Tinea corporis

2. Occurs as inflamed, red ring lesions anywhere on smooth skin.

A

of Body

Ringworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

a. Discovered in 1898

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

b. Most Abundant Agent on earth
i. A billion billion trillion (10^30)
ii. Attacks ALL cells

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

c. Non-Cellular
i. Not alive
ii. Can’t actively maintain themselves
iii. No cell membrane
iv. No organelles

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

v. Do
1. Have a genome
2. Evolve/adapt faster than anything else on the planet

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

d. Suspected to be
i. Genes that got “loose”
ii. Transposons?
iii. 90% of genes don’t match genes from any modern source

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

e. Genome
i. Either DNA or RNA
1. Vast majority are RNA

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

a. Genome
i. Have genes that code for protein but
1. No Transcription
2. No Ribosomes
a. No Translation
3. The host cell MUST express any viral genes

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Always intracellular parasites

A

Viruses

Hypothesized Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

i. Bear no resemblance to cells

1. Lack protein-synthesizing machinery

A

Virus Structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

ii. Contain only the parts needed to
1. Invade a cell
2. Control a host cell

A

Virus Structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q
  1. Nucleic acid molecules (either D or R, not both)
  2. Matrix Proteins enzymes
    a. optional
A

Central core

Virus Structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

i. Usually double stranded (ds) but may be single stranded (ss)
ii. Ds usually attack
1. Animal cells

A

DNA core

Virus Structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

i. Usually ss, but may be ds
ii. Ss small, usually attack
1. Animal or
2. Plant cells

A

RNA core

Virus Structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

viruses that attack bacteria

A

=bacteriophage

Virus Structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

b. provides
i. protection for the core
ii. way to transmit viral core to host cell

A

Capsid
Coverings
Virus Structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

c. All viruses have these

A

Capsid
Coverings
Virus Structure

178
Q

d. =protein coats that enclose and protect their nucleic acid

A

Capsid
Coverings
Virus Structure

179
Q

ia. Closed shell
ib. Helical
ii. Complex

A

Capsid
Coverings
Virus Structure

180
Q
  1. Capsomeres arranged into shapes

2. EX: isometric, cubc, polyhedral, icosahedra (20 sided)

A

Closed shell Capsid
Coverings
Virus Structure

181
Q
  1. Continuous helix of capsomers
  2. Forming a cylinder
  3. Has two “lids” open to the world.
A

Helical Capsid
Coverings
Virus Structure

182
Q
  1. Combination of helical + closed shell arrangements, heads and/or tails
  2. Have polyhedral capsid
    a. +helical tail
    b. +attachment fibers
    c. Ex: bacteriophage
  3. Atypical
A

Complex Capsid
Coverings
Virus Structure

183
Q

g. May have ____ to assist in attaching and penetration of a cell.
i. Assist in adsorption + penetration of host cell

A

Spikes
Coverings
Virus Structure

184
Q

Optional

a. Mostly animal viruses

A

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

185
Q

b. Derived from
i. Cell membrane
ii. When virus leaves the host cell

A

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

186
Q

c. Helps
i. Escape host cell
ii. Penetrate a new cell

A

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

187
Q

d. Spikes
i. Exposed glycoproteins on the outside of envelope
1. Essential for attachment of virus to the host cell

A

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

188
Q

i. H
1. Associated with flu viruses
a. 16 different types
2. Facilitate attachment of the viruses to host cell
a. Binds to sialic acid in host cell membrane

A

=hemagglutinin spikes

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

189
Q

i. N
1. these spikes Disrupts sialic acid of the host cell membrane and facilitates the flu virus ESCAPE from the host cell
2. Cuts bud free to escape from the host cell

A

=Neuraminidase spikes

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

190
Q

i. Neuraminidase INHIBITOR that is used to treat people with the flu

A

TamifFlu

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

191
Q
  1. Spikes to bind to receptors on APC’s (HIV)
    a. CCR5 receptors on macrophages
    b. CD4 receptors on T Cells
A

Gp120 spikes

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

192
Q

e. Bilayered membrane composed of
i. Phospholipid
ii. Protein
iii. Carbohydrate

A

Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

193
Q

without envelope

A

Naked
Envelope
Coverings
Virus Structure

194
Q

i. Represents the different kinds of organisms a virus can infect

A

Range

195
Q

i. Refers to what kinds of cells a virus can infect

A

Specificity

196
Q
  1. Determined by whether or not virus can attach to a cell
    a. Whether it can be replicated by cell
    b. Whether it can escape from the host cell
  2. Some limited to infecting one kind of host cell, while others can infect many types of cells.
    a. Ex: Poliovirus infects intestinal AND nerve cells
    b. Ex: Hepatitis B infects liver cells
A

Specificity

197
Q

i. =the viruses binds to the receptors on the surface of the host cell using spikes or receptors on its capsid and/or envelope

A

a. Adsorption

198
Q

i. =the virus or just the viral genome enters the host cell

A

Penetration

199
Q
  1. Bacteriophage
    a. Will release lysozyme
    i. Weakens the bacterial cell wall
    ii. Then injects genome through the wall
A

Penetration

200
Q
  1. Virus attacking plant cell

a. Will enter only if there has been mechanical damage to the plant

A

Penetration

201
Q

i. Once inside host cell
ii. = uncoating the virus may occur
iii. Capsid will be digested to release the core
iv. Frees the viral genome

A

Uncoating

202
Q

i. = viral parts (genomes and capsids) are produced

Including

  1. Capsomeres
  2. Enzymes
  3. spikes
A

Synthesis

203
Q
  1. Destroy, inhibit, or lysogenize the host DNA

2. Use own DNA as template used to transcribe viral mRNA

A

DNA Virus

Synthesis

204
Q
  1. Use the host’s tRNA + ribosomes to translate viral mRNA into viral proteins
  2. Use their DNA as template for generating more viral cores
A

DNA Virus

Synthesis

205
Q

i. Nucleoside mimic of Guanine

ii. DNA Polymerase of host cell is competitively inhibited by drugs

A

Acyclovir
DNA Virus
Synthesis

206
Q
  1. When it’s added to growing chain of DNA nucleotides
    a. No attachment point for next nucleotide
    b. Viral DNA replication is terminated
A

Acyclovir
DNA Virus
Synthesis

207
Q

iii. Selective because enzyme needed to convert it to a single phosphate nucleotide is only found in infected cells.

A

Acyclovir
DNA Virus
Synthesis

208
Q

iv. Selectively attacks herpes virus

1. Particularly genital

A

Acyclovir
DNA Virus
Synthesis

209
Q

v. Beneficial against chickenpox and shingles

A

Acyclovir
DNA Virus
Synthesis

210
Q

a. Viral DNA
b. Viral mRNA
i. Viral Proteins
c. Transcription
i. Via RNA Polymerase
d. Maturation
e. Replicated viral DNA can be lysogenized into host DNA

A

DNA Virus

Synthesis

211
Q
  1. Use their genome directly as mRNA that is transcribed by host ribosomes into viral protein
A

RNA Virus

Synthesis

212
Q
  1. Use their genome as a template for generating more viral cores
A

RNA Virus

Synthesis

213
Q

a. Nucleoside mimic
i. A or G
b. Used to treat RNA viral infections
i. Hepatitis C

A

Ribarvirin

RNA Virus
Synthesis

214
Q
  1. Viral RNA polymerase replicates RNA
    a. Poor proofreading
    b. More mistakes and more mutations
A

RNA Virus

Synthesis

215
Q
  1. Makes (-) strand first which is used as a template to make the new (+) strands
A

RNA Virus

Synthesis

216
Q
  1. Translation of ssRNA makes proteins

a. Includes viral RNA Polymerase

A

RNA Virus

Synthesis

217
Q
  1. Use reverse transcriptase to transcribe their ssRNA into a ssDNA
    a. The worst proofreading
A

Retrovirus

Synthesis

218
Q
  1. ssDNA then coped to create dsDNA

3. DNA enteres nucleus to be transcribed, or

A

Retrovirus

Synthesis

219
Q
  1. The viral DNA then uses integrase to lysogenize the host DNA
  2. Viral DNA transcribed into viral mRNA  host ribosome
    a. Ex: HIV
    i. 2 single strands that are identical
A

Retrovirus

Synthesis

220
Q
  1. Have ssRRNA

7. Viral protein generated

A

Retrovirus

Synthesis

221
Q
  1. Viral protease cuts viral proteins to the correct length

9. Viral DNA used as template for generating core

A

Retrovirus

Synthesis

222
Q

a. =azidothymidine

A

AZT

Retrovirus
Synthesis

223
Q

b. Competitively inhibits reverse transcriptaste in retroviruses
i. Ex: HIV

A

AZT

Retrovirus
Synthesis

224
Q

c. Is nucleoside mimic of Thymine

d. Terminates DNA elongation like Acyclovir

A

AZT

Retrovirus
Synthesis

225
Q

e. Can penetrate Blood Brain Barrier

A

AZT

Retrovirus
Synthesis

226
Q

f. Also has affinity for DNA Polymerase
i. Adversely affects host cell replication
ii. Ex: formation of Red blood cells

A

AZT

Retrovirus
Synthesis

227
Q

i. Virus components (capside/core etc.) are assembled into viruses

A

Assembly/Maturation

228
Q

i. Refers to the escape of virus from the host cell
1. Lysis (the host cell dies)
2. Enveloped Virus

A

Release

229
Q

a. Animal cells filled with viruses lose the integrity of their cell membrane
b. Bacteriophages
i. Have holing to pierce the cell membrane and
ii. endolysin to digest peptidoglycan

A

Lysis

Release

230
Q

a. Exit via budding
i. Acquire envelope as they emerge
ii. Exocytosis
1. Nucleocapsid binds to membrane which pinches off and sheds the viruses gradually;
iii. Cell is not immediately destroyed

A

Enveloped Virus

Release

231
Q
  1. Used to stop the release of flu viruses
  2. Block their neuraminidase spikes
  3. Ex
    a. Tamiflu
    b. Relenza
A

ii. Neuraminidasae Inhibitors

Release

232
Q
  1. Synthesis of DNA from RNA

2. AIDS virus

A

i. Reverse transcriptase

233
Q
  1. Lysogenizes the viral DNA into host DNA
A

ii. Integrase

234
Q
  1. To cut viral proteins
A

Protease

235
Q
  1. Digests peptidoglycan of cell wall
A

Lysozyme

236
Q
  1. Transcribes DNA to mRNA
A

RNA Pol

237
Q

Transcribes DNA from DNA

A

DNA Pol

238
Q

you can damage the

1. Envelope with

A

a. Anything that disrupts cell membranes

239
Q

you can damage the

2. Capsid with

A

a. Anything that denatures proteins

240
Q

you can damage the

3. Core with

A

a. Anything that damages nucleic acids

b. Radiation

241
Q

you can damage the

4. Replication process with

A

selective antiviral drugs

242
Q

i. Nucleoside mimic of Guanine

A

Acyclovir

243
Q

ii. DNA Polymerase of host cell is competitively inhibited by drugs
1. When it’s added to growing chain of DNA nucleotides
a. No attachment point for next nucleotide
b. Viral DNA replication is terminated

A

Acyclovir

244
Q

iii. Selective because enzyme needed to convert it to a single phosphate nucleotide is only found in infected cells.

A

Acyclovir

245
Q

iv. Selectively attacks herpes virus

1. Particularly genital

A

Acyclovir

246
Q

v. Beneficial against chickenpox and shingles

A

Acyclovir

247
Q

i. =azidothymidine

A

AZT

248
Q

ii. Competitively inhibits reverse transcriptaste in retroviruses
1. Ex: HIV

A

AZT

249
Q

iii. Is nucleoside mimic of Thymine

A

AZT

250
Q

iv. Terminates DNA elongation like Acyclovir

A

AZT

251
Q

v. Can penetrate Blood Brain Barrier

A

AZT

252
Q

vi. Also has affinity for DNA Polymerase
1. Adversely affects host cell replication
2. Ex: formation of Red blood cells

A

AZT

253
Q

i. TAMIFLU
1. Neuraminidase INHIBITOR that is used to treat people with the flu
ii. Keeps the virus from budding out of already infected host cell

A

i. TAMIFLU
1. Neuraminidase INHIBITOR that is used to treat people with the flu
ii. Keeps the virus from budding out of already infected host cell

254
Q

i. Inhibit viral enzymes in HIV: reverse transcriptase (AZT), protease, integrase (Raltegravir)

A

e. Raltegravir

255
Q

i. Nucleoside mimic
1. A or G
ii. Used to treat RNA viral infections
1. Hepatitis C

A

f. Ribavirin

256
Q

i. Blocks viral uncoating

A

g. Amantadine

257
Q

i. Used to stop the release of flu viruses
ii. Block their neuraminidase spikes
iii. Ex
1. Tamiflu
2. Relenza

A

h. Neuraminidasae Inhibitors

258
Q

i. Generate so many viruses that the hot cell bursts
ii. Spread rapidly to new host cells
iii. Treatment must start early to interrupt a step in the replication cycle

A

Lytic

259
Q

iv. Examples
1. Cold
2. Polio

A

Lytic

260
Q

i. Involves a virus that isn’t replicating; follows a lytic cycle, where virus enters dormant phase
ii. Often involves lysogeny

A

Latent

261
Q
  1. =A stable long term relationship between a host cell and virus
  2. The DNA of the virus is incorporated into the host DNA and replicates at the same rate
    a. Inactive viral DNA = prophage
A

Lysogeny

Latent

262
Q

iii. Virus not initially replicated instead inactive viral DNA (prophage) incorporated into host DNA and copied.
iv. If something interferes with host DNA replication a lytic infection may develop.

A

Latent

263
Q

i. Releases new viruses gradually
ii. May continue for months or years or a lifetime without causing overt disease
iii. The virus can’t be attacked unless it begins a lytic cycle
iv. A sort of “carrier state” where new viruses are released gradually.
v. Can continue for months or years without causing overt disease.

A

Persistent

264
Q

vi. Examples
1. Hepatitis B
2. Measles

A

Persistent

265
Q

i. Virus periodically reactivates
ii. Examples
1. Herpes viruses

A

Chronic Latent

266
Q

i. Virus is detectable in tissue samples
ii. Multiplying at a slow rate
iii. Symptoms mild or absent

A

Chronic

267
Q

i. Direct contact via
1. Skin
2. Mucous membranes
ii. Lysogenize host cell

A

IMportant DNA VIruses

268
Q

iii. Chronic Latent Infections

1. Infections become more severe with age or conditions that compromise immune system, i.e. AIDS

A

Chronic latent

269
Q
  1. Include
    a. Herpes Virus
    b. Papillomavirus
    c. Hepatitis B
A

Chronic latent

270
Q

A stable long term relationship between a host cell and virus

A

Lysogeny

271
Q

ii. The DNA of the virus is incorporated into the host DNA and replicates at the same rate
1. Inactive viral DNA = prophage
iii. Occurs most frequently when a host cell is infected with more than one virus

A

Lysogeny

272
Q

Lysogeny - who does it?

A

i. DNA and Retroviruses

273
Q
  1. Cell/tissue cultures
  2. Bird embryos
  3. Live animal inoculation
A

Ways to Cultivate Animal Viruses

274
Q

i. Large Family, 8 infect humans

A

Herpesvirus

275
Q

ii. Enter the host cell via pinocytosis and fusion of the envelope with the cell membrane and nuclear membrane

A

Herpesvirus

276
Q

iii. Can remain latent (usually in neurons) and then reappear

A

Herpesvirus

277
Q
  1. Usually lesions on the oropharynx, cold sores, fever blisters
    a. Occurs in early childhood
A

Herpes Simplex Virus 1 - HSV-1

Herpesvirus

278
Q

– lesions on the genitalia, possibly oral

  1. Occurs in age 14-29
  2. Can be spread without visible lesions
A

Herpes Simplex Virus 2 - HSV-2

Herpesvirus

279
Q
  1. Direct exposure to secretions containing the virus

2. Active lesions most significant source

A

Transmission

Herpesvirus

280
Q
  1. Genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of lesions
  2. HSV multiplies in sensory neurons, moves to ganglia
    a. HSV 1 enters 5th cranial nerve
    b. HSV 2 enters lumbosacral spinal nerve trunk ganglia
A

Transmission

Herpesvirus

281
Q
  1. Recurrent infection is triggered by various stimuli
    a. Fever
    b. UV radiation
    c. Stress
    d. Mechanical injury
A

Epidemiology

Herpesvirus

282
Q
  1. Newly formed viruses migrate to body surface

a. Producing local skin/membrane lesion

A

Epidemiology

Herpesvirus

283
Q
  1. Symptoms
    a. Blisters
    b. Itching
    c. Tingling
    d. Outbreaks decrease in number and severity as time goes on.
A

Epidemiology

Herpesvirus

284
Q
  1. Acyclovir used to inhibit viral replication
A

Epidemiology

Herpesvirus

285
Q

i. Caused by Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

286
Q

ii. Range – humans the only natural host

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

287
Q

iii. Transmitted by

1. Respiratory droplets and contact

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

288
Q

iv. Primary Infection – chickpox

1. Characteristic vesciles

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

289
Q

v. Specificity

1. Virus enters neurons and remains latent

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

290
Q

vi. 20% reactivates later to become shingles

1. With vesicles localized to distinctive areas on the dermatomes

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

291
Q

More common in older patients

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

292
Q

vii. Treatment
1. Treat symptoms in uncomplicated infections
2. Acyclovir

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

293
Q

i. Vaccine
ii. Live attenuated vaccine for chickenpox and shingles
1. 80-85%

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

Chickenpox/Shingles

294
Q

Caused by Epstein-Barr Virus

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

295
Q

ii. Ubiquitous virus; lysogenizes B lymphocytes

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

296
Q

iii. Transmission
1. Direct, oral contact +
2. Contamination with saliva

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

297
Q

iv. In industrialized countries, college-age population is vulnerable to infectious mononucleosis
1. “mono” or kissing disease

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

298
Q

v. By mid-life, 90-95% of all people are infected

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

299
Q

vi. Anyone with an immune deficiency is highly susceptible to

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

300
Q

vii. Is a direct contact disease transmitted by saliva via the respiratory tract (airborne droplets) and via fomites)

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

301
Q
  1. Sore throat
  2. High fever
  3. Swollen lymph nodes
  4. (what we think of when people get the disease)
  5. Headache
  6. Weakness
  7. Develop after 3-50 day incubation
A

Infectious Mononucleosis

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV
Mononucleosis

302
Q

ix. Dormancy in B cells
x. Reactivated
xi. May be asymptomatic

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EPV

Mononucleosis

303
Q

i. 200 serotypes with 15 high risk for cancer; 2 account for 70% of metastatic tumors
1. E.g. cervical

A

Human Papillomavirus

304
Q

ii. Infects epithelial cells of the skin and mucous membranes

A

Human Papillomavirus

305
Q
  1. Oropharynx

a. 60% head and neck cancers due to

A

Human Papillomavirus

306
Q
  1. Esophagus
A

Human Papillomavirus

307
Q
  1. Genitals
    a. Carcinoma 9 Cervical cancer
    b. Warts
    i. Spread via Sloughing
A

Human Papillomavirus

308
Q
  1. Virus inactivates tumor repressor gene p53
A

Human Papillomavirus

309
Q

iii. Transmissible through d
1. Direct contact OR
2. Contaminated fomites

A

Human Papillomavirus

310
Q

iv. Incubation

1. 2 weeks to more than a year

A

Human Papillomavirus

311
Q

v. Warts can recur

A

Human Papillomavirus

312
Q

vi. Early Detection

1. Pap Smears

A

Human Papillomavirus

313
Q

vii. Two effective vaccines
1. Gardasil
a. - HPV protein genetically engineered in a yeast
b. -Assembled into a capsid without a core
c. -Contains 2 viruses responsible for most cases of cervical cancer (#16 and #18) and 2 viruses that cause genital warts
d. -3 doses over 6 months (95% efficacy)
e. -Currently given to females 11-26
f. -Approved for boys 9-26 in 2009
g. -Currently mandated in 24 states
h. -Pap smears still required

A

Human Papillomavirus

314
Q

i. = inflammatory disease of liver cells that may result from several viruses

A

Hepatitis

315
Q

ii. Interferes with liver’s excretion of bile pigments,

A

Hepatitis

316
Q

iii. bilirubin accumulates in blood and tissues
1. causing jaundice,
a. = a yellow tinge in skin and eyes

A

Hepatitis

317
Q
  1. DNA Virus
A

Hepatitis B

318
Q
  1. =serum hepatitis

3. Caused by Hepatitis B virus

A

Hepatitis B

319
Q
  1. Virus enters through break in
    a. skin or
    b. mucous membrane
    c. or by injection into bloodstream
    i. contaminated needles, transfusions, sexually
A

Hepatitis B

320
Q
  1. Reaches liver cells,
  2. multiplies,
  3. and releases viruses into blood;
A

Hepatitis B

321
Q
  1. and releases viruses into blood;
    a. average 7 week incubation
    b. Most exhibit few overt symptoms and eventually develop HBV immunity
A

Hepatitis B

322
Q
  1. Some experience
    a. malaise,
    b. fever,
    c. chills,
    d. anorexia,
    e. abdominal discomfort,
    f. and diarrhea
A

Hepatitis B

323
Q
  1. Fever, jaundice, rash, and arthritis in more severe disease cases
A

Hepatitis B

324
Q
  1. Small number of patients develop chronic liver disease –
    a. Necrosis and cirrhosis
A

Hepatitis B

325
Q
  1. 300 mil carriers
A

Hepatitis B

326
Q
  1. 6 mo incubation period with about 90% recovery
A

Hepatitis B

327
Q
  1. Vaccine now available

14. Gamma globulins given as prevention and treatment

A

Hepatitis B

328
Q

These types of hepatitis are both RNA viruses

-i.e. do NOT lysogenize

A

Hep A and C

329
Q

from i. Rhabdovirus

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

330
Q

ii. Slow, progressive
iii. zoonotic
1. (transmitted from animals) disease

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

331
Q

iv. Primary reservoirs are

1. wild mammals

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

332
Q

v. it can be spread by
1. both wild and domestic mammals by
a. bites,
b. scratches,
c. and inhalation of
i. droplets,
ii. transplants
d. skunk/foxes/coyotes/raccoons
e. Washington bats
f. Worldwide dogs are the most important vector

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

333
Q

vi. Deaths
1. 55,000 to 70,000 per year
2. Cardiac arrest or respiratory collapse

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

334
Q

viii. Incubation period

1. 5 weeks to 6 mos

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

335
Q

viii. Specificity

1. Sensory and motor neurons

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

336
Q

ix. Signs and Symptoms
1. Paralysis
2. Numbing
3. Aggression

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

337
Q

x. Often diagnosed at autopsy

xi. Can’t be treated after nervous system symptoms develop

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

338
Q

xii. Treatment – passive and active postexposure immunization

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

339
Q
  1. Infuse the wound with human rabies antibodies;

vaccination with human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV), an inactivated vaccine given in 6 doses with 2 boosters

A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

340
Q
  1. 100% efficacy in rabies prevention unless person is immunocompromised or doesn’t follow protocol.
A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

341
Q
  1. Transplants
    a. Cornea
    b. Heart
    c. Liver
    d. kidneys
A

Rhabdovirus

Rabies

342
Q

poliomyelitis (polio), caused by Picornavirus

A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

343
Q
  1. acute enteroviral infection of the spinal cord that can cause neuromuscular paralysis
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

344
Q

naked capsid;

2. resistant to acid, bile, and detergents; can survive stomach acids when ingested

A

Poliovirus

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

345
Q

iii. Worldwide vaccination programs have reduced the number of cases; eradication is expected

A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

346
Q

a. Dead virus
b. Multiple doses needed
c. Life long immunity

A

Salk vaccine
Polio
poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

347
Q

a. Live attenuated
b. Causes polio in 10-15 people/year
i. Mutation in virus
ii. Immune deficiency in recipient

A

Sabin vaccine
Polio
poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

348
Q
  1. Transmitted by

a. fecal-oral route

A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

349
Q

a. adhere to receptors of mucosal cells in oropharynx and intestine,
b. multiply in number and
c. shed in throat and feces,
d. some leak into blood

A

Polioviruses

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

350
Q
  1. Most infections are short-term, mild viremia
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

351
Q
  1. Some develop mild nonspecific symptoms of
    a. fever,
    b. headache,
    c. nausea,
    d. sore throat,
    e. and myalgia
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

352
Q
  1. If viremia persists,
    a. virus spreads to
    i. spinal cord
    ii. and brain
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

353
Q
  1. If nervous tissue is infected but not destroyed –
    a. muscle pain and spasm,
    b. meningeal inflammation, and
    c. vague hypersensitivity
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

354
Q
  1. Invasion of motor neurons causes

a. flaccid paralysis

A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

355
Q

Decades later

a. – progressive muscle deterioration;
b. occurs in 25-50% of patients infected with polioviruses in childhood

A

Post Polio Syndrome (PPS)
Polio
poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

356
Q
  1. Treatment is largely supportive for pain and suffering; respiratory failure may require artificial ventilation; physical therapy may be needed
A

Treatment
Polio
poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

357
Q
  1. Prevention is vaccination:
    a. Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) Salk vaccine
    i. -available 1955
    ii. -multiple doses required
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

358
Q
  1. Oral polio vaccine (OPV) Sabin vaccine, attenuated virus – no longer recommended in the U.S.
    a. -easier to administer
    b. -causes polio in 10-15 people per year
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

359
Q
  1. -2011 Endemic in Nigeria, Pakistan and Afghanistan
  2. No new cases in India for 9+ months
  3. Epidemic in 17 countries
A

Polio

poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

360
Q
  1. Conflicts/war
  2. Remote locations
  3. Unwilling to accept vaccines from outsiders due to mistaken beliefs (infertility, illness (HIV))
  4. Money (Gates foundation has given $65 million to eradicate polio)
A

Eradication Issues
Polio
poliomyelitis/Picornavirus

361
Q

a. AIDS pandemic

i. Recognized in 1981

A

HIV/AIDS

362
Q

i. Incidence
1. 5 million worldwide
2. 40,000 in US

A

HIV/AIDS

363
Q

ii. Prevalence
1. Up to 37 million worldwide
2. Up to 1 million + in the US

A

HIV/AIDS

364
Q
  1. UP to 3 million/yr

2. US 20,000 per year

A

HIV/AIDS

365
Q

i. Is a retrovirus

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

366
Q
  1. Has a core consisting of 2 identical strands of positive sense (+) RNA
A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

367
Q
  1. Carries HIV specific enzymes made by its previous host
    a. Reverse transcriptase
    b. Integrase
    c. Protease
A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

368
Q

i. Enzymes that transcribes viral RNA into viral DNA

A

a. Reverse transcriptase

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

369
Q

i. Enzymes that inserts the viral DNA into the host genome

ii. Lysogenize

A

b. Integrase

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

370
Q

i. The enzyme that cuts newly generated viral proteins to the correct length

A

c. Protease

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

371
Q

ii. Range: Humans

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

372
Q
  1. Facilitated by an extremely long incubation period
  2. Is primarily direct contact via heterosexual sex
    a. Semen
    b. Vaginal secretions a
    c. And/or blood
A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

373
Q
  1. Easier for man to give it to woman than for woman to receive from man
  2. Frequently via inoculation with contaminated needles
    a. 1/3 of all US AIDS cases
A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

374
Q
  1. Occurs across the placenta via mother’s milk
  2. Loss of its ability to infect occurs
    a. When HIV envelope exposed to air
    i. Dries
    b. UV light
    c. Heat or bleach
    d. Loss of gp120 spikes
A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

375
Q
  1. Healthcare workers take precautions
    a. Double glove, etc.
    b. When handling any and all body fluids as all body fluids are ultimately derived from blood
A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

376
Q

i. Initially attaches to macrophages
ii. Dendritic cells &
iii. Monocytes

A

Adsorption

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

377
Q

iv. HIV adsorbs via its gp120 spikes to cells with CD4 and CCR-5 receptors
v. Penetrates via envelope fusion or endocytosis

A

Adsorption

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

378
Q

vi. Lysogenizes the cells and may replicate for decades
1. Cellular reservoir
vii. After replicating and mutating
1. Each of its 9 genes mutates ever 24 hours
2. For average of ten years,

A

Adsorption

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

379
Q

viii. Acquires mutation that allows it to attach to

1. Helper T lymphocytes with receptor combo CD4 + CXCR-4

A

Adsorption

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

380
Q

i. Replication of the HIV genome uses reverse transcriptase to transcribe viral RNA into viral DNA that can lysogenize the host DNA
1. No proofreading
2. Mutations constant

A

Synthesis

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

381
Q

ii. The lysogenized DNA generates viral mRNA

A

Synthesis

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

382
Q

iii. mRNA goes to
1. host ribosomes to be translated into viral proteins
2. also represent a source of new viral core

A

Synthesis

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

383
Q

i. Involves assembly of the viral capsid and core

A

Maturation

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

384
Q

i. Accomplished via new viruses “budding” from infected cells

A

Release

Replication
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

385
Q

i. Occurs when people are
1. HOMOZYGOUS for 2 CCR-5 genes with deletions
a. 10% of Caucasians of European descent

A

Natural Resistance

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

386
Q

ii. Thought to be after the Black Plague

1. Since the bacteria that caused it also invaded CD4 cells via CCR-5 receptors

A

Natural Resistance

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

387
Q

a. HIV
i. Usually no signs or symptoms
ii. The “Incubation” period

A

Signs and Symptoms

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

388
Q

b. 3 months
i. Virus begins to rapidly replicate and the host mounts a significant immune response causing
1. Flu-like symptoms

A

Signs and Symptoms

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

389
Q

c. Death of T Helper Lymphocytes

A

Signs and Symptoms

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

390
Q

d. Conversion to AIDs

i. Helper T cell count below 200/ul of blood

A

Signs and Symptoms

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

391
Q

ii. Symptoms
1. Chronically swollen lymph nodes
2. Recurrent fevers
3. Weight loss
4. Failure to thrive
5. AIDs dementia complex

A

Signs and Symptoms

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

392
Q

iii. TB accounts for 1/3 of all AIDs death

A

Signs and Symptoms

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

393
Q

a. AZT
b. Integrase Inhibitor
c. HAART

A

Treatment

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

394
Q

i. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
ii. Nucleotide mimic
iii. Prevents HIV replication
1. Competitively inhibits reverse transcriptase and therby halting the conversion of viral RNA to viral DNA

A

AZT

395
Q

iv. Are powerless against HIV that has already lysogenized the host cell
v. Toxic
1. Interferes with host DNA synthesis
2. Aplastic anemia
vi. HIV resistance often appears within 18 mos of initial treatment

A

AZT

396
Q

i. To block the lysogeny of the hose cell DNA

ii. =Raltegravir

A

Integrase Inhibitor

397
Q

i. =Highly Actie AntiRetroviral Therapy
1. Given a cocktail of antiviral drugs
2. Reduces load of HIV in blood to undetectable levels
3. Cannot eliminate it from body
4. Only 30% of AIDs victims respond to ths
a. Makes most patients too sick to continue
b. Non-compliance has resulted in resistance
5. Can extend lifespan by 13 years

A

HAART

398
Q

collapsed circles of ssRNA, no protein coat.

A

Viroid

399
Q

ii. Can cut other RNA molecules.

A

Viroid

400
Q
    • Identified in plant infections

2. - Causes Hepatitis D

A

Viroid

401
Q

a. - Cell must be double infected with
i. Hepatitis D viroid and
ii. Hepatitis B virus at same time

A

Hepatitis D

Viroid

402
Q

b. As Hep B virus assembles the Hep Dviroid will enter and travel inside the capsid to infect liver cells.

A

Hepatitis D

Viroid

403
Q

i. Replicates via host RNA Polymerase

ii. Enters a new Hep B virus when the viral capsid self-assembles

A

Hepatitis D

Viroid

404
Q

deviant form of a misfolded proteins (pleated), contain no nucleic acid

A

Prions

405
Q

ii. Abnormal form is pleated
1. Insoluble in water
2. Digestible via protease

A

Prions

406
Q

iii. Cause conversion of normal proteins into the deviant form

A

Prions

407
Q

iv. Extremely resistant to usual sterilization techniques
1. (proteases,
2. chemicals,
3. heat)

A

Prions

408
Q

v. Do not elicit an immune response

A

Prions

409
Q

vi. Cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies –
1. fatal neurodegenerative diseases
a. (Alzheimers,
b. Parkinsons,
c. ALS)

A

Prions

410
Q

vii. Acquired via
1. Mutation or mutation and event (ie. Head trauma)
2. Transmitted via food or by intimate contact with infected tissue.

A

Prions

411
Q

viii. Reproduce by effecting the folding of normal proteins.

ix. Target the brain and spinal cord, lymph organs.

A

Prions

412
Q

x. Long incubation period, months to years.

A

Prions

413
Q

xi. Transmission
1. Through foods containing contaminated animal p roducts
2. Via transplants
3. Growth hormone from cadavers
4. Intimate contact with infected tissues/secretions
5. Spontaneous/inherited mutation

A

Prions

414
Q
  1. Progressive

2. Long incubation period

A

Prion Diseases

415
Q
  1. Associated with amyloid production
    a. Precursor protein that is the cellular isoform of the prio protein
    i. Undergoes a conformational change to the abnormal amyloidogenic form
A

Prion Diseases

416
Q
  1. Neurodegerneration causes brain to become riddled with holes
A

Spongiform Encephalopathies

Prion Diseases

417
Q
  1. Sheep and goats
  2. May be the original source of other communicable prion diseases
  3. May be spread via contaminated urine to other sheep/goats
A

Scrapie

Prion Diseases

418
Q
  1. Acquired via supplements derived from infected sheep tissue
A

Mad Cow Disease

Prion Diseases

419
Q
  1. Emerged in US in 1967
  2. Moose
  3. Deer
  4. Elk
  5. That may have had contact with infected
    a. Beef
    b. Sheep
    c. Goats
  6. Of concern to HUNTERS in the US
A

Chronic Wasting Disease

Prion Diseases

420
Q
  1. Human form of mad Cow disease
  2. Acquired via
    a. Contact with contaminated beef products
A

iv. Varient Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

Prion Diseases

421
Q

a. The Fore people of New Guinea
b. Transmitted through
i. Cultural practice
1. Eating brains of deceased family members
c. Variant of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease from eating infected beef.

A

Kuru
Infectious
Human Prion Diseases

422
Q

i. Which agent has membrane bound organelles?

A
  1. Molds
  2. Protozoa
  3. Yeast
423
Q

ii. Which agent is non cellular with no organelles?

A

Viruses

424
Q

iii. Which agent is always single cellular

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Protozoa
  3. yeast
425
Q

iv. Which agent usually has peptidoglycan in its cell wall?

A

Bacteria

426
Q

v. Which cellular agent has no cell wall?

A

Protozoa

427
Q

vi. Which agent has chitin in its cell wall?

A
  1. Molds

2. yeast

428
Q

vii. Which agent can have lipopolysaccharide in its cell wall?

A
  1. bacteria
429
Q

viii. Which agent is put into classes by how their trophozoites move?

A

protozoa

430
Q

ix. Which agent is classified by the spores they generate in fruiting bodies?

A

molds

431
Q

x. Which agent produces endospores?

A

bacteria

432
Q

xi. Which agent produces cysts?

A

protozoa

433
Q

xii. The genome of this agent can be either DNA or RNA

A
  1. viruses
434
Q

xiii. Which agent has a nucleoid consisting of one circular chromosome?

A
  1. bacteria
435
Q

xiv. Which agent has plasmids?

A
  1. Bacteria

2. yeast

436
Q

xv. Which agent would have at least a capsid and a core?

A

Viruses

437
Q

xvi. Which agent is always an intracellular parasite?

A

Viruses

438
Q

xvii. Which agent produces antibiotics?

A
  1. Bacteria

2. molds

439
Q

xviii. Which agent is compose of hyphae?

A

mold

440
Q

xix. Which agent would use spikes to attach to their host cell?

A
  1. viruses
441
Q

xx. Which agent would use fimbriae to attach to a host cell?

A

bacteria

Microbio (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions