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GEOL-1403 > Exam: 3 Practice > Flashcards

Exam: 3 Practice Flashcards

1
Q

______ refers to the changes in shape, size, volume, or position of a rock body in response to differential stress.
a. strain
b. metamorphism
c. compressional stress
d. shear stress

A

a. strain

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2
Q

How will compressional stress change a rock body?
a. stretch and thin the rock
b. Fracture the rock and grind the pieces alongside each other
c. squeeze and shorten the rock
d. the rock will not change

A

c. squeeze and shorten the rock

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3
Q

How will tensional stress change a rock body?
a. stretch and thin the rock
b. fracture the rock and grind the pieces alongside each other
c. squeeze and shorten the rock
d. the rock will not change

A

a. stretch and thin the rock

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4
Q

A rubber band being stretched in preparation to fire across the room is an example of which kind of deformation?
a. brittle
b. ductile
c. elastic
d. shear

A

c. elastic

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5
Q

In thrust faulting, ______.
a. garbens develop on the footwall block
b. the crust is shortened and thickened
c. horizontal, tensional stresses drive the deformation
d. the hanging wall block slips downward along the thrust fault

A

b. the crust is shortened and thickened

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6
Q

A garben is characterized by _____.
a. a hanging wall block that has moved up between two reverse faults
b. a footwall block that has moved up between two normal faults
c. a hanging wall block that has moved down between two normal faults.
d. a footwall block that has moved down between two reverse faults.

A

c. a hanging wall block that has moved down between two normal faults

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7
Q

If you are standing facing a strike-slip fault and movement on the crustal block on the opposite side is to your right, it is called a _____ strike-slip fault.
a. left lateral
b. right-lateral
c. oblique
d. reverse

A

b. right lateral

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8
Q

In a normal fault, _______.
a. the hanging wall block moves up relative to the other block
b. the footwall block moves downward relative to the footwall block
c. the hanging wall block moves down relative to the footwall bock
d. the blocks moves horizontally along the direction of the fault surface

A

c. the hanging wall block moves down relative to the footwall block

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9
Q

A thrust fault is best described as a ______.
a. a steeply inclined, oblique-slip fault
b. a low-angle (<45 degrees) reverse fault
c. a vertical normal fault
d. a near vertical, strike-slip fault

A

b. a low-angle (<45 degree) reverse fault

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10
Q

Fractures in rock that do not involve slippage or offset along the fracture are called ____.
a. joints
b. horsts
c. garbens
d. basins

A

a. joints

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11
Q

Major earthquakes are often followed by somewhat smaller events known as ______.
a. aftershocks
b. Foreshocks
c. tremors
d. hyposhocks

A

a. aftershocks

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12
Q

When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source; the source within the earth is referred to as the _____.
a. inertial point
b. epicenter
c. focus/hypocenter
d. seismic zone

A

c. focus/hypocenter

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13
Q

The position on Earth’s surface directly above the Earthquake sources is called the ____.
a. epicenter
b. inertial point
c. focus
d. seismic zone

A

a. epicenter

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14
Q

Most of Earth’s strongest earthquakes tend to occur along _____.
a. transform boundaries
b. divergent boundaries
c. convergent plate boundaries at subduction zones
d. the interiors of continents

A

c. convergent plate boundaries at subduction zones

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15
Q

_____ have the highest velocities (are the fastest)
a. primary waves
b. secondary waves
c. love waves
d. rayleigh waves

A

a. primary waves

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16
Q

On a typical seismogram, _____ will show the highest amplitudes
a. P waves
b. S waves
c. surface waves
d. None of these

A

c. surface waves

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17
Q

The distance between a seismological recording station and the earthquake sources is determined from the _______.
a. earthquake magnitude
b. intensity of the earthquake
c, length of the seismic record
d. comparing the arrival times of P and S waves

A

d. comparing the arrival times of P and S waves

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18
Q

The amount of destruction caused by earthquake vibrations is affected by _____.
a. design of structures
b. intensity and duration of the vibrations
c. nature of substrate (rock)
d. All of the above

A

d. all of the above

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19
Q

The zone of greatest seismic activity on Earth is called the _____
a. mid-ocean ridge
b. ring of earthquakes
c. circum-Pacific belt
d. circum-polar belt

A

c. circum-Pacific belt

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20
Q

S waves cannot travel through _____.
a. the outer core (liquid)
b. the inner core (solid)
d. crust (solid)
e. they can travel through all of these

A

a. the outer core

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21
Q

During ______, a near-surface layer of water-saturated sand changes rapidly from a solid to a liquid, causing buildings to float in earth.
a. sublimation
b. liquefaction
c. solufaction
d, floatification

A

b. liquefaction (double check)

22
Q

The downslope movement of rock, regolith, and soil is called _______.
a. weathering
b. erosion
c. mass wasting
d. liquefaction

A

c. mass wasting

23
Q

What is the driving force behind all mass wasting?
a. slope angle
b. gravity
c. the presence of water
d. the presence of vegetation

A

b. gravity

24
Q

Consider a weathered rock or soil particle lying on a slope.
How will the gravitational force pulling the particle downward along the land surface vary with the slope’s inclination?
a. it will increase as the slope is lessened
b. it will decrease as the slope angle is lessened
c. it is not affected by the slope angle
d. it will possibly increase/decrease as the slope angle is lessened, depending on other factors.

A

b, it will decrease as the slope is lessened

25
Q

All of the following are factors affecting mass movement EXCEPT for ____.
a. gravity
b. water
c. slope angle
d, geologic age of the rocks

A

d. geologic age of rocks

26
Q

How do the strength and cohesion of clay-rich regolith/soil change with the addition of vast amounts of water?
a. vast amounts of water does not affect the cohesion but lowers the strength
b. vast amounts of water reduces the strength of clays but raises the cohesion of the soil
c. vast amounts of water increases the strength and cohesion
d. vast amounts of water lowers the strength and cohesion

A

d. vast amounts of water lowers the strength and cohesion

27
Q

Slopes that have been stable for many years may sometimes fail catastrophically. What is a common trigger for these failures?
a. growth of vegetation on the slope
b. draining of water from the slope
c, reducing the gradient of the slope
d. addition of water to the slope

A

d. addition of water to the slope

28
Q

_____ are the sudden failure of the slope resulting in transport of debris downhill by slumping, sliding, falling/rolling.
a. slope failures
b. sediment flows
c. earthquakes
d. pyroclastic flows

A

a. slope failures

29
Q

Which of the following mass movement processes has the slowest rate of movement?
a. slump
b. rock fall
c, mud flow
d. creep
e. debris flow

A

d. creep

30
Q

Which type of mass movement involves a downward sliding mass of rock or unconsolidated material moving along a curved surface?
a. slump
b. earthflow
c. lahar
d. slide

A

a. slump

31
Q

Which of the following mass movements is likely to occur in a geologic setting where the rock strata are inclined?
a. debris flow
b. slump
c. creep
d. slide

A

d. slide

32
Q

Refer to the image in question 32. What did this?
a. mudflow
b. rock fall
c. debris flow
d. creep
e. snow avalanche

A

b. rock fall

33
Q

Which of the following operates primarily in areas of permafrost?
a. debris avalanche
b. solifluction
c. creep
d. mudflow
e. lahar

A

b. solifluction

34
Q

Which of the following statments concerning mudflows is NOT true?
a. mudflows may be caused by heavy rains/melting snow
b. in hilly areas, mudflows move down the canyons and stream valleys.
c. mudflows deposit talus slopes
d. mudflows contain >50% fines

A

c. mudflows deposit talus slopes

35
Q

At the base of most cliffs is an accumulation of fallen material called _____.
a. debris
b. talus
c. trellis
d. terminus

A

b. talus

36
Q

Unconsolidated granular particles assume a stable slope at the angle of ____.
a. revenge
b. strike
c. dip
d. repose
d. none of the above

A

d. repose

37
Q

Which is the correct (geological) term for water that flows in a channel regardless of size?
a. river
b. stream
c. channel
d. meander

A

b. stream

38
Q

Which of the following is located in the headwater region of a river system?
a. zone of sediment production
b. zone of transportation
c. zone of deposition

A

a. zone of sediment production

39
Q

A drainage pattern comprised of streams that diverge from a central area like spokes is called _____.
a. dendritic
b. radial
c. rectangular
d. trellis

A

b. radial

40
Q

The slope of a stream channel, expressed as the vertical drop of a stream over a specified distance (rise/run), is called the/a ____.
a. water gap
b. wetted perimeter
c. gradient
d. discharge

A

c. gradient

41
Q

When water moves in nearly straight-line paths parallel to the stream channel in slow-moving streams, this is called _____.
a. turbulent flow
b. laminar flow
c. straight-line flow
d. parallel flow

A

b. laminar flow

42
Q

The volume of water flowing past a certain point in a given unit of time is called _____.
a. flow velocity
b. discharge
c. gradient
d. wetted perimeter

A

b. discharge

43
Q

Moving from the headwaters to the mouth, in most streams, which of the following is true?
a. discharge typically decreases
b. sediment size typically increases
c. flow velocity generally increases
d. channel slope generally increases

A

c. flow velocity generally increases

44
Q

______ describes the total sediment load transported by a stream.
a. capacity
b. discharge
c. competence
d. hydro-load factor

A

a. capacity.

45
Q

_____ accounts for the largest percentage of groundwater usage in the US.
a. domestic
b. public supply
c. irrigation
d. mining
e. livestock

A

c. irrigation

46
Q

The unsaturated zone ______.
a. lies above the water table
b. contains pore spaces filled with water
c. is a well-oxygenated, shallow aquifer
d. lies below the capillary fringe zone

A

a. lies above the water table

47
Q

The water table is _____.
a. a boundary between unsaturated bedrock and an underground river
b. a boundary between unsaturated rock below and saturated bedrock above
c. an underground mass of partly saturated rock
d. a boundary between saturated rock below and unsaturated rock above

A

d. a boundary between saturated rock below and unsaturated rock above

48
Q

_____ are characteristics found in all good aquifers
a. high porosity and high permeability
b. low permeability and high portability
c. high portability and high portability
d. low porosity and low permeability

A

a. high porosity and high permeability

49
Q

Highly impermeable layers like compacted clay or shale are known as _____.
a. aquifers
b. aquitards
c. discharge areas
d. recharge areas

A

b. aquitards

50
Q

What term denotes the percentage of open pore space or voids in a material?
a. porosity
b. permeability
c. saturation
d. permeosity

A

a. porosity

51
Q

Referring to the picture on page 9: What type of aquifer is aquifer A?
a. confined
b. unconfined
c. perched
d. aquitard

A

b. unconfined

52
Q

Referring to the picture on page 9: What type of aquifer is aquifer B?
a. confined
b. unconfined
c. perched
d. aquitard

A

a. confined

GEOL-1403 (26 decks)

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