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Nursing School > Exam 3: NR 414 > Flashcards

Exam 3: NR 414 Flashcards

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1
Q

This is a facial bone that articulates a joint instead of a suture

A

Mandible

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2
Q

This is a blood vessel that runs diagnonally across the sternomastoid muscle

A

External jugular Vein

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3
Q

This isthmus of the thyroid gland lies just below the

A

cricoid cartilage

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4
Q

What can be a cause of cluster headaches

A

alcohol and daytime napping

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5
Q

Shrugging the shoulders is a test of the status of which cranial nerve?

A

XI

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6
Q

What should the fontanels feel like during examination

A

firm, slightly concave, and well defined

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7
Q

If the thyroid gland is enlarged bilaterallly what maneuver is appropriate?

A

listen for a bruit over the thyroid lobes

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8
Q

What are the characteristics of lymph nodes on a normal healthy person?

A

Mobile, Soft, Nontender

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9
Q

What is cephalhematoma associated with

A

subperiosteal hemorrhage

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10
Q

What size are normal cervical lymph nodes

A

smaller than 1 cm

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11
Q

A throbbing, unilateral pain associated with nausea, vomiting and photophobia is a characteristic of:

A

migrain headache

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12
Q

Lymph node in front of the ear

A

preauricular

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13
Q

this is superficial to the mastoid process

A

posterior auricular

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14
Q

at the base of the skull

A

occipital

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15
Q

This is behind the tip of the mandible

A

Submental

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16
Q

Halfway between the angle and the tip of the mandible

A

submandibular

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17
Q

This is under the angle of the mandible

A

jugulodigastric

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18
Q

This is overlying the sternomastoid muscle

A

superficial cervical

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19
Q

Deep under the sternomastoid muscle

A

deep cervical

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20
Q

The is the open space between the eyelids

A

palpebral fissure

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21
Q

The cornial reflex is mediated by which cranial nerves

A

V & VII

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22
Q

What retinal structures are viewed through the ophthalmoscope

A
  • optic disc
  • retinal vessels
  • gen. background
  • macula
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23
Q

What is positive consensual light reflex

A

simultaneous constriction of the other pupil when one eye is exposed to bright light

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24
Q

Aging causes thickening and yellowing of the lens, this is called…

A

senile cataract

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25
Q

What is considered an eye emergency

A

SUDDEN onsent of vision change

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26
Q

How is visual acuity assessed?

A

The Snellen Eye Chart

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27
Q

What is the cover test used for?

A

to test muscle weakness

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28
Q

How do you use the opthalmoscope

A
  • remove your own glasses and approach the patients left w/ your left eye
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29
Q

The 6 muscles that control eye movement are innervated by which cranial nerves x3

A
  1. III
  2. IV
  3. VI
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30
Q

A person with normal vision would see your moving finger temporally at

A

90 degrees

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31
Q

A person is known to be blind in the left eye. What happens to the pupils when the right eye is illuminated by a penlight beam?

A

both pupils constrict

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32
Q

While using the ophthalmoscope an interruption of the red reflex occurs when?

A

there is an opacity in the cornea or lens

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33
Q

In documentation of an eye examination what does PERRLA

A

Pupils

Equal

Round

React

Light

Accomodation

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34
Q

What causes the red reflex

A

light reflecting from the retina

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35
Q

What is the color of a normal tympanic membrane using an otoscope

A

pearly gray

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36
Q

What could sensorineural hearing loss related to?

A

gradual nerve degeneration

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37
Q

Prior to examining the ear, what should be palpated for tenderness

A
  • pinna
  • tragus
  • mastoid process
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38
Q

For using an otoscope for a younger child, what is the methos

A

pull the pinna down

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39
Q

During the examination of holding the nose and swallowing what should the eardrum do

A

flutter

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40
Q

what is darwins tubercle

A

a congenital painless nodule at the helix

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41
Q

Where are the hearing receptors located

A

cochlea

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42
Q

The sensation of vertigo is the result of

A

pathology in the semicircular canals

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43
Q

What is a common cause of conductive hearing loss

A

impacted cerumen

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44
Q

What findings indicates infection of acute purulent otitis media?

A
  • absent light reflex
  • reddened drum
  • bulging drum
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45
Q

A person has a yellow tympanic membrane, what could this indicate?

A

serum in the middle ear

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46
Q

What is one way to reduce risk for acute otitis media

A

smoking in the house and car

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47
Q

Examining a child’s hearing (6months), what should the examiner watch for

A

head turning when saying the child’s name

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48
Q

A patient with a head injury has clear watery drainage from the ear, what should the examiner asess for

A

presence of glucose in the drainage

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49
Q

What is the neocorte

A

more than halve in the brain, processing visual info

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50
Q

Eye protection

A
  • palpabral fissure
  • eye lids
  • limbus
  • canthus
  • caruncle
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51
Q

Sebacous glands help with

A

tears, or lubrication

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52
Q

2 Types of Conjuctiva

A
  1. palpebral- lines the lids
  2. bulbar- overlays eyeball
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53
Q

Lacrimal Apparatus

A

helps control irrigation of the eye

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54
Q

Extraocular Muscles, how many?

A
  • 6 of them
  • attach to the eye ball
  • causes eye ball to move
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55
Q

Why babies eyes don’t move as much

A

muscles not developed

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56
Q

3 Cranial nerves that control eye

A
  • help w/ extra occular movement
  • 1) CN 3: Ocular Motor
  • 2) CN 4: Trochlear
  • 3) CN 6: Abdusins
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57
Q

3 Concentric coating of the eye

A
  • outer fibrous sclera- cornea (reflex)
  • middle vascular choroid- iris, pupil, lens, ant/pos chambers
  • inner nervous retina- optic disc, retinal vessels, macula, fovea centralis
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58
Q

What is the pupil controlled by?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systemt

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59
Q

Fight or flight pupil

A

dilate

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60
Q

Rest & Digest Pupil

A

constricts

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61
Q

What is the visual receptor of the inner eye

A

Retina (controller of light)

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62
Q

Pupillary Light Reflex is

A
  • when pupils are exposed to light
  • Direct- light directly in the eye
  • Consensual- (indirect, other eye constricts too)
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63
Q

What is fixation in eye exam

A

the ability to follow and direct vision (follow my finger)

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64
Q

What is accomodation in eye exam

A
  • ability to adapt to near vision
  • looking far to looking near
    • pupils constrict & converge (eyes are following)
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65
Q

What are some problems with accomodation

A
  • squinting
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66
Q

EOM

A

extra occular muscle

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67
Q

Big problems with infants vision

A
  • poorly coordinated EOM
  • symmetry with eye muscles
  • 80% are farsighted improves by 8 yrs
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68
Q

Aging adult eye problems

A
  • presbyopia-
  • decreased visual acuity
  • decreased night vision
  • pupil size decreases
  • cataracts
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69
Q

Palpebral fissured cultural competency

A
  • asian
  • downsyndrome have smaller fissures
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70
Q

Dark vs light color eyes

A
  • lighter the eyes increased sensitivity to light
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71
Q

Subj Data for eyes

A
  • visual difficulty
  • blind spots
  • pain
  • diplopia, strabismus
  • redness
  • watery discharge
  • history of ocular probs
  • glaucoma
  • use glasses
  • self care
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72
Q

What is strabismus?

A

cross eyed

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73
Q

Infants Subj Data

A
  • Vaginal infection from the mother
  • STIs from mother
  • milestone deficits w/ vision
  • routine eye exam at school?
  • parents aware with safety
  • sharp objects
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74
Q

Adult Subj Data Eye

A
  • last test for glaucoma
  • history of cataracts
  • burning dryness
  • decrease in usual activities (reading/sewing)
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75
Q

Obj Data Eyes

A
  • position
  • snellen eye chart
  • handhel visual screener
  • opaque card
  • pen light
  • applicator stick
  • opthalmascope
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76
Q

What is the Snellen Chart, (20/20)

A
  • 20 ft away, what typical person can see from 20 ft away
  • Test it with their glasses ON
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77
Q

How do you know they met the requirements of the Snellen Chart

A

can read more than 50% of the row

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78
Q

How do you test near vision?

A
  • Read a magazine/newspaper
  • Jaeger card
  • handheld vision screener
  • norm is 14/14
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79
Q

What is the confrontation test

A
  • compare persons’s peripheral vision with yours
  • Gross meausre of peripheral vision
  • make sure you put your finger somewhere you can BOTH see
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80
Q

OD (eye)

A

dominant (right)

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81
Q

OS (eye)

A

left sinister

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82
Q

OU

A

unite- both eyes

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83
Q

How do you inspect Extraocular Muscle Function

A
  1. Corneal Light Reflex, “Hischberg”- symmetrical light reflects
  2. Diagnostic positions test- cardinal directions, go clockwise
  3. Cover Test- cover one eye with paper, no deviation
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84
Q

What is an eye test used when intoxicated?

A

diagnostic test,

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85
Q

Nystagmus

A

eye twitching, when they’re drunk

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86
Q

How do you inspect external ocular structures

A
  • external to inward
  • eyebrows
  • eyelids and eye lashes
  • eyeballs
  • conjuctiva and sclera
  • lacrimal apparatus
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87
Q

What is Arcus Senilis

A
  • gray white arc around cornea, due to lipid deposits.
  • seen in older adults
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88
Q

Anisocoria

A

unequal pupil size

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89
Q

How do you inspect ocular fundus

A
  • Internal surface of retina
  • Use Ophtalmoscope
  • Red reflex
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90
Q

Developmental Competency w/ visoscreening tests

A
  • E Chart
  • Picture chart, 3-6 yrs
  • Color Vision only affects Boys, red/green most common
  • Ischihara plates
  • must catch EOM before 6 yrs
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91
Q

Aging Adult Competence

A
  • visual acuity
  • color vision
  • ocular structure may appear sunken
  • tear production decrease
  • cornea may look cloudy
  • pupils can be smaller
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92
Q

Abnormal Findings in the Eye

A
  • Strabismus
  • Esotropia (inward turning of eye)
  • Exotropia
  • Paralysis
  • Periorbital Edema
  • Exophtalmos, protruding eye
  • Enopthalmus
  • Ectroption, rolling out
  • Entropion, rolling in
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93
Q

What causes Exophtalmos

A
  • bulging eyes
  • people with thyroid problems
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94
Q

What is miosis

A

constricted and fixed pupils

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95
Q

What is mydriasis

A

dilated and fixed pupils

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96
Q

What is the sensory organ for hearing

A

ear

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97
Q

External Ear Structure

A
  • Auricle or Pinna
  • External Auditory Canal (kids more narrow, adult s curve)
  • Tympanic membrane (ear drum)
    • separates middle and external
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98
Q

Eustachian tubes

A
  • allows passage of air
  • goes into middle air
  • helps with pressure
  • tympanic membrane could burst
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99
Q

Structure of Middle Ear

A
  • Malleus, incus, stapes
  • eustachian tube
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100
Q

Functions of Middle Ear

A
  • Sounds vibrations from out to in
  • helps with air pressure
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101
Q

Inner Ear Structure

A
  • Vestibule and semicircul canals
  • cochlea
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102
Q

3 levels of Auditory System

A
  • Peripheral- sound waves become electrical impulses
  • Brainstem- locates & identifies sound
  • cerebral cortex- interprets meaning
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103
Q

What are the 2 pathways of hearing

A
  • Air conduction, used more often
  • Bone conduction, vibration of sound, like being under water, ear infection
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104
Q

Anything obstruction transmission of sound impairs hearing

A

hearing loss

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105
Q

involves a mechanical dysfunction of external or middle ear

A

conductive

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106
Q

pathology of inner ear, cranial nerve VII or audiotory areas

A

sensorineural

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107
Q

This is degeneration of auditory nerve

A

presbycusis

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108
Q

Mixed hearling loss

A

combination of conductive and senroineural types in same ear

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109
Q

Equilibrium for hearing

A

vertigo

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110
Q

What are problems for adults ears

A
  • more likley to have ceremun (more ear wax)
  • conductive hearing loss (cerumen gets dry/clogged)
  • presbycusis
111
Q

Otitis Media

A

Obstruction of eustachian tube or passage of nasopharyngeal secretions middle ear. VERY COMMON

112
Q

How is cerumen determined

A
  • Genetically
  • different from person to person
113
Q

Subj Data for Ears

A
  • Infections earaches
  • discharge, odor?
  • hearing loss
  • environmental noise (live concerts)
  • tinnitus, ringing of the ear
  • vertigo
  • self-care behavior- qtips
114
Q

What is vertigo

A

a sensation of whirling and loss of balance, associated particularly with looking down from a great height, or caused by disease affecting the inner ear or the vestibular nerve; giddiness.

115
Q

Infant Children Subj Data Hearing

A
  • ear infections
  • anyone smoke in household
  • childcare outside the home
  • meeting childhood hearing milestones
116
Q

Obj Data for Ears

A
  • Inspect Palpate
  • Size/Shape
  • Skin Condition
  • Tenderness
  • External Auditory meatus
117
Q

Normal size of ear

A

4-10 cm

118
Q

Microtia

A

small ears

119
Q

Otoscope Examination

A
  • Tympanic Membrane
  • shiny, translucent, pearly gray
120
Q

Light Reflex for the Ears

A
  • Anterior/Inferior Quadrant
  • 5’oclock for right
  • 7’oclock for left
121
Q

How do you test hearing acuity

A
  • conversational
  • whispered voice test (3 random #s & letters, both sides)
  • tuning fork tests
    • weber, feel vibration hear sound
    • rinne
122
Q

If they have conductive/sensory hearing loss is it bilateral?

A

not necessarily

123
Q

What is vestibular appartus help with?

A
  • balance
124
Q

Developmental obj data for infants and children EARS

A
  • external alignment is 10 degrees
  • otoscopic exam
  • hearing acuity, moro or startle reflex, loud noise and blinking
125
Q

Aging Adult Obj data EARS

A
  • pendulous ear lobe
  • ear drum may be wider
  • more opaque
  • high tone frequency loss
  • people are mumbling
126
Q

4 Cranial Bones

A
  • frontal
  • occiptal
  • parietal
  • temporal
127
Q

What are the sutures

A

immovable bones that join the bones

128
Q

Facial muscles

A
  • expressions
  • CN 7
  • symmetrical
129
Q

CN 7

A

forming of facial expressions

130
Q

Pain and Sensation nerve

A

Trigeminal

131
Q

What are the 3 main sailivary gland

A

parotid, submandibular, sublingual

132
Q

Where is the temporal artery

A

palpable anterior to the ear

133
Q

what is the function of the neck

A

a conduit

134
Q

2 major neck muscles

A

trapezius, sternomastoid

135
Q

They is an extensive vessel system, with major part of immune system

A

lymphatic system

136
Q

Practice feeling for lymph nodes

A
137
Q

Nodes and Glands are not the same

A
138
Q

Drainage patterns of lymph nodes

A

proximal to where node is because lymph node may be swollen. Coming from somewhere else having a problem.

139
Q

Fontanels

A
  • where sutures
  • intersect,
  • soft spots
  • 2 of them
140
Q

What happens to pregnant women to head

A

thyroid gland enlarges, b/c of hyperplasia of tissue

141
Q

Aging adult face

A

skin sags

142
Q

Subj Data Head

A
  • headache
  • head injury, consciousness
  • dizziness
  • neck pain, limit of motion
  • lumps or swelling
  • histor of head or neck surgery
143
Q

What is a follow up question of lumps or swelling in neck

A
  • have you been sick?
  • difficulty swallowing
  • smoking/drinking?
144
Q

Cranial Nerve Mneumonic:

Oh Oh Oh To Touch and Feel Very Good Velvet Ah!

A
  • Olfactory
  • Optic
  • Oculomotor
  • Trochlear
  • Trigeminal
  • Abducens
  • Facial
  • Vestibulocochlear
  • Glossopharyngeal
  • Vagus
  • Accessory
  • Hypoglossal
145
Q

Cranial Nerve Mnemonic: Sensory, Motor, or Both

A

1.Some 2.Say 3.Marry 4.Money 5.But 6.My 7.Brother 8.Says 9.Bad 10.Business 11.Marry 12.Money

146
Q

The pharmacist states that the patient’s biotransformation of a drug was altered.

A

metabolism has affected the drug.

147
Q

The nurse recognizes that the administration of a drug influences cell physiology. What is the term for this concept?

A

Pharmacodynamics

148
Q

the study of what the body does to the drug

A

Pharmacokinetics

149
Q

he nurse realizes that a drug administered by which route will require the most immediate evaluation of therapeutic effect?

A

intravenous

150
Q

The nurse administers 650 mg of aspirin at 7 PM. The drug has a half-life of 3 hours. The nurse interprets this information to mean that 325 mg of the medication will have been eliminated from the patient’s system by what time?

A

10 pm

151
Q

What is the half-life (t½) of a drug

A

the time it takes for one-half of the drug concentration to be eliminated

152
Q

What organ is responsible for the majority of drug excretion

A

kidneys

153
Q

If excretion is impaired what risks are there for medication?

A

toxicity

154
Q

What type of food decreases the absorption rate of enteric coated medications?

A

high fat

155
Q

Which factors will influence the absorption of oral medications?

A
  1. presence of food in the stomach
  2. pH of the stomach
  3. form of drug preparation
  4. pain
156
Q

Schedule I Drug

A

high abuse, no current medical use

157
Q

Schedule II Drug

A

potential for abuse both physiological and psychological. Ritalin

158
Q

Schedule III Drug

A

moderate or low physical dependence.

159
Q

Causes platelet dysfunction and inhibits prostaglandin mediated mucus production of the gastric mucosal

A

Aspirin

160
Q

has an antagonistic effect with warfarin and will inhibit its effects.

A

Vitamin K

161
Q

has been known to produce a reddish-brown skin tone as one of its side effects.

A

Pyrazinamide

162
Q

increases the risk of bleeding and should not be taken before surgery.

A

Dong quai

163
Q

reportedly decrease high cholesterol and may help a patient with a cardiac history

A

Garlic

164
Q

herbal supplement used to help patients diagnosed with dementia

A

gingko

165
Q

herbal supplement that helps decrease the risk of vomiting in nausea.

A

Ginger

166
Q

This herbal supplement has been shown to produce anxiety, headache, and gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to produce muscle aches, insomnia, or dry eyes.

A

Valerian

167
Q

herbal supplement known to produce hypotension

A

hawthorn

168
Q

Herbal supplement known to produce both flatulence and heartburn.

A

Garlic

169
Q

The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a newly diagnosed adult male patient with hypertension. The patient has many questions about his diagnosis and medication. Which nursing diagnosis would be the most appropriate for this patient?

A

Risk for ineffective therapeutic regimen management related to new diagnosis

170
Q

The nurse is preparing to teach a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus how to inject insulin. Which principle(s) will the nurse include when providing patient teaching?

A
  1. family or friend in teaching process
  2. simple written materials individual for patient needs
  3. Contact information how to reach healthcare provider
171
Q

The nurse is uncertain regarding directions for preparing a medication. For clarification, who should the nurse contact?

A

that facility pharmacy

172
Q

How many agents are available for individual drugs?

A

30,000

173
Q

What is the most frequent malpractice claim against hospitals?

A
  • Medication error
  • usually a systems error
174
Q

What are the rules for writing out a medication?

A

Do not use abbreviations

175
Q

Nurses rights

A
  • have policies that guide safe drug admin
  • identify sys problems
  • access to info
176
Q

Additions rights for med administration

A

right assessment, ed, evalutation, right to refuse

177
Q

Factors that modfiy drug response

A
  • Absorption, metabolism, excretion
  • age, body weight
  • genetics
  • route, time
  • emotional factors
  • pre-existing disease, drug history
  • tolerance
178
Q

Pregnancy Categories

A
  • Category A-Y
  • A= no risk
  • C= risk for animals, not known for humans
  • D= outweigh benefit vs risk
  • X=Accutane
179
Q

Who guides the drug approval process?

A
  • Federal Legislation
  • protect the public
  • costly process
180
Q

Stages of Approval for FDA

A
  • Preclinical Investigation- lab research, animal testing
  • Clinical- healthy volunteers(I), select groups w/ disease (II)
  • Release for general Use (IV), survey harmful effects
181
Q

What makes pediatric pharmacology difficult

A
  • have not been tests
  • not approved by the FDA
  • hard to get a good sample size
  • smaller profit margin
182
Q

Limitations of Clinical Trials

A
  • women might be pregnant?
  • little drug testing done in women
  • failure to detect adverse effects
  • effects take a long time to develop
183
Q

Controlled Substances

A
  • has to have a DEA #
  • Act
  • Defines categories, Schedule I,II, III
184
Q

Drug Names

A
  • Chemcial (composition)
  • Generic (acetominophine)
  • Trade/Brande (Tylenol)
185
Q

How long does it take to get a patent

A
  • 17 years for generic
  • Considered equivalent if serum concentration w/in 80% and 125% of the brand drug
186
Q

Dietary supplement act requires

A

clear labeling

187
Q

3 Phases of Drug Action

A
  • Pharmacoceutic- oral meds, has to dissolve
  • Pharmacokinetic- absorption, distribution (blood brain barrier), metabolism, excretion
  • Pharmacodynamic- effects on the body. Primary/Secondary
188
Q

What is the enteric coating for?

A

less GI upset, absorbs directly in small intestine

189
Q

3 ways to cross cell membrane

A
  1. pass thru channels
  2. pass with the aid of transport sys
  3. direct penetration of membrane
190
Q

lipid soluble drugs can

A

directly penetrate membranes

191
Q

What do water soluble drugs need?

A

a carrier to get across the cell membrane

192
Q

What is the charge (electrical) of a drug dependent on?

A

pH

193
Q

What percent is bioavailable for oral drugs

A

Always less than 100%. Needs to be 3-5x larger than IV dose

194
Q

Factors that affect absorption

A
  • good blood flow
  • IV arleady there
  • subq- less blood flow
  • recta, and sublingual fast
  • if they’re exercising, decrease absorption
195
Q

DRugs that can be destroyed by digestive sys

A

insuline

196
Q

What is sutained release prep

A

tablet or capsules filled in tiny sphere that contain the drugs. Coatings that dissovle at variable rates

197
Q

What happens after absorption

A
  • distribution
198
Q

what is the first pass effect

A
  • must pass first thru the liver via the portal vein
  • warafin, morphine
  • liver disease (higher than expected level)
199
Q

How does abscess and solid tumors affect distribution

A

no blood supply to inner mass of an abscess. No supply to the core of the tumor

200
Q

What does a drug need to be distributed

A

a protein binder

201
Q

What drug is not bound

A

free drug

202
Q

What happens as the free drug is metabolized/excreted?

A

the protein bound drug is released into the blood stream

203
Q

What percent of the drugs is active (free)

A

5%

(95% is binding)

204
Q

Decreased albumin level is expected with

A

elderly, newborns, liver disease, malnutrition

205
Q

Anatomical Barriers for distribution

A
  • blood brain barier
  • brain and placenta
  • fetal-placental
206
Q

What is another name for metabolism

A

biotransformation

207
Q

Where does biotransformation occur

A
  • liver- cytochrome P450 enzymes
  • a group of enzymes responsible for drug metabolism
208
Q

When drugs are metabolizes the effect are:

A
  • drug inactivation
  • accelerated renal excretion of drugs
  • increases therapeutic action
  • activation of pro drugs
  • increased toxicity
209
Q

How are drugs inactives

A

liver

210
Q

can kidneys excrete lipid soluble drugs

A

no

211
Q

what happens when drugs are transformed into active metabolites

A

increased phamacologic response

212
Q

Steps in Renal Drug Excretion

A
  1. Glomerular Filtration
  2. Passive Tubular Reabsorption
  3. Active Tubular Secretion
213
Q

Understand half life

A
214
Q

If patient has altered kidney or liver function?

A

reduce dose

215
Q

Side Effect Characteristisc

A
  • Predictable= secondary, benadryl drowzy
  • Toxic: overdose
  • idiosyncratic- unpredictable
  • allergic-immune response
216
Q

Common Allergic Sympzoms

A
  • Urticaria- hives
  • Eczema- rash
  • Prurits
  • Rhinitis
  • Wheezing
217
Q

Onset of Action

A

how long does it take to kick in

218
Q

Where do you want your onset to be?

A

where it works but not toxic for as long as possible

219
Q

What is the lock and key theory

A

drug attaches to its receptor in a specific manner

220
Q

What is the thearapeutic index/Range/Window

A
  • margin of safety of a drug
  • you want a wide window- when its effective to when its toxic
221
Q

Peak levels

A

highest plasma concentration. Blood sample is draw at peak time

222
Q

Trough level

A
  • lowest plasma concetration
  • blood is drawn before the next dose
223
Q

What happens if peak is too high

A

patient becomes toxic

224
Q

If the trough level is too low

A

the patient is not getting a constant therapeutic level of the drug

225
Q

What can happen with drug interaction

A
  • additive
  • synergistic
  • or antagonistic
226
Q

Drug interaction related to metabolism

A
  • toxicity is likely
227
Q

MAO inhibitor should not be taken with

A

tyramine rich foods

228
Q

What fruit can affect metabolism of certain drugs

A

grapefruit juice, can last up to 3 days after last glass

229
Q

more than 90% of all ilness are treated with

A

Over the counter medications

230
Q

What is a concern for herbal supplements?

A
  • very little testing
  • multi-billion dollar industry
231
Q

Which adipose fat is worse?

A
  • the kind that covers the organs
  • caused by stress
232
Q

Solid viscera organs

A
  • fud, deeper tone
    • pancreas,
    • adrenal glands,
    • stomach,
    • spleen,
    • kidneys,
    • ovaries,
    • uterus
233
Q

Hollow viscera organs

A
  • tympanic sound
    • stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, colon, bladder
234
Q

Where does kidney sit in reference to each other

A

left kidneys is higher than right

235
Q

What are the 4 quadrants

A

RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, LLQ

236
Q

RUQ Organs

A
237
Q

LUQ Organs

A
238
Q

RLQ Organs

A
239
Q

LLQ Organs

A
240
Q

What are women more susceptible for Gi wise?

A

appendicitis

241
Q

What are gallstones?

A
  • more common as we age
  • hard crystalline mass formed abnormally in the gallbladder or bile ducts from bile pigments, cholesterol, and calcium salts. Gallstones can cause severe pain and blockage of the bile duct.
242
Q

Subjective Data GI

A
  • appetite
  • dsyphagia
  • food intolerance
  • ab pain
  • nausea/vomiting
  • bowel habits
  • pas ab history
  • medication
  • nutritional assessment
243
Q

adolescents subjective data GI

A
  • what do you eat at regular meals?
  • Breakfast?
  • Wha do you eat for snack
  • Excercise Pattern
  • Weight management
244
Q

Subj Data for Older Adults GI

A
  • How do you acquire your groceries
245
Q

What do you palpate last during phys examination of abdomen?

A

painful areas last

246
Q

Inspection of abdomen

A
  • symmetry
  • flat vs rounded vs protruded
  • umbilicus (inny, outy?)
  • scars
  • color, striae
  • pulsation or movement
  • hair distribution
  • demeanor
247
Q
A
248
Q

Know bowel sounds

A

start at RLQ, listen for 5 minutes

249
Q

Should you hear anything in the abdomen?

A

no

250
Q

Percussion of the abdomen

A
  • general tympany
  • liver span
  • costovertebral angle
  • Fluid waves
251
Q

CVA Tenderness

A
  • tests a UTI
  • percussion of lower back
  • hurts if you are infection
  • kidney inflammation
252
Q

Ascites Test

A
  • Fluid waves
  • dull thud sound
253
Q

Where is the spleen usually felt

A
  • around 9-11 Intercostal space
254
Q

Where is a pap smear done

A

squamocolumnar junction

255
Q

average age a women will start getting menopause

A

51.2 yrs

256
Q

How long is pre-menopausal period

A

5-7 years

257
Q

What happens when you no longer have estrogen

A
  • breasts sag
  • vaginal vault less moist
  • vaginal pH becomes more alkaline
  • decreased vaginal secretion
258
Q

Lithotomy

A

position for getting a pelvic exam

259
Q

Aging what to expect w/ vaginal vault

A
260
Q

Prostate exam at what age

A

50-55

261
Q

Scrotum what do you feal for

A
262
Q

How does the Rugae feel

A
  • on scrotal sac
  • will have wrinkles
263
Q

Male are more prone to this because of heavy lifting

A

hernia

264
Q

When do testes discend in infants

A

not until their born. Should by 3-6 months of age.

265
Q

What would be a concern for infants if testes did not discend

A

heat

266
Q

Tanner Stage

A
267
Q

What health issue would lead to sexual expression later in life

A

cardiac

268
Q

dysuria

A

pain when peeing

269
Q

Men getting up in the middle of the night to pee

A

prostate

270
Q

Should you retract the foreskin in an infant

A

NO

271
Q

Rectal Exam for men DRE

A

Betwen 50-55

272
Q

When placing a foley catheter how do you know you’re in

A

when you see urine

273
Q

Why would you need a foley in a patient

A
  • Surgery
  • Mobility
  • Unresolved UTI
274
Q

How soon should a person be able to void after catheter removal

A

4 - 6 hours

Nursing School (33 decks)

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