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Nursing School > Exam 2: NR414 REV > Flashcards

Exam 2: NR414 REV Flashcards

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1
Q

This is grinding of the teeth expecially at night

A

Bruxism

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2
Q

Smooth Glossy tongue that occurs with pernicious anemia

A

Atrophic Glossitis

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3
Q

This is a fungal infections, commonly called thrush in new borns

A

Candidiasis

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4
Q

This is a term for “dry mouth”

A

Xerostomia

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5
Q

A tumor caused by infection with human herpesvirus. It is the most common lesion seen in people wit AIDS

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

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6
Q

This is a fungal infection of the tongue. A temporary, harmless oral condition that gives your tongue a dark, furry appearance.

A

Black hairy tongue

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7
Q

Crcking erythema and painful fissures at the corners of the mouth that occur with excess salivation.

A

Cheilitis

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8
Q

Smooth, pale gray nodules that are overgrowths of mucosa.

A

Polyps

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9
Q

Another name for nosebleed

A

Epistaxis

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10
Q

Another name for runny nose

A

Rhinorrhea

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11
Q

a nontender, fibrous nodule in the gum between teeth

A

Epulis

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12
Q

painless enlargement of the gums, sometimes overreaching the teeth.

A

Gingival hyperplasia

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13
Q

Gum margins are red, swollen, and bleed easily, usually due to poor hygeine or vitamin C deficiency

A

Gingivitis

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14
Q

Another name for a canker sore. (painful, open sore in the mouth. Canker sores are white or yellow and surrounded by a bright red area.)

A

Aphthous Ulcers

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15
Q

Another name for cold sores

A

Herpes Simplex 1

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16
Q

decrease mobility of the tongue tip

A

Ankyloglossia

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17
Q

Chalky, white, thick, raised patch with well defined borders.

A

Leukoplasia

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18
Q

Jarvis:

How does atrial systole occur?

A

independently of ventricular function

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19
Q

Jarvis:

The second heart sound is the result of:

A

closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves

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20
Q

Jarvis:

When palpating an apical impulse what is the normal size?

A

2 cm

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21
Q

Jarvis:

Where do you listen in the pulmonic valve area?

A

the 2nd Left Interspace

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22
Q

Jarvis:

What is the difference between S2 & S3?

A

S3 is lower pitched and is heard at the apex

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23
Q

Jarvis:

When auscultating the heart your first step is to:

A

identify S1 & S2

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24
Q

Jarvis:

Where is a split S2 heard most clearly?

A

pulmonic

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25
Q

Jarvis:

Why is the stethoscope placed lighting against the skin?

A

it does not act as a diaphragm

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26
Q

Jarvis:

What is the function of the venous system?

A

Hold more blood when blood volume increases

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27
Q

Jarvis:

What organs aid the lymphatic system?

A

spleen, tonsils, thymus

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28
Q

Jarvis:

What causes varicose veins in pregnant women?

A

pressure of the growing uterus on the veins

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29
Q

Jarvis:

A 4+ edema of the right leg is documents. The best description of theis type of edema is:

A

very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time

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30
Q

Jarvis:

A known risk for venous ulcer development is:

A

obesity

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31
Q

Jarvis:

What does Brawny mean?

A

non pitting edema

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32
Q

The most common site of nosebleeds

A

Kiesselbach Plexus

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33
Q

Which sinuses can we physically examine

A

Frontal, Maxillary

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34
Q

This is the midline fold of tissue that connects the gongue to the floor of the mouth

A

Frenulum

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35
Q

Where are the largest salivary glands located?

A

Within the cheeks in front of the ear

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36
Q

What is a common cause of dry mouth?

A

medications

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37
Q

the bone and cartilage that divide the nasal cavity of the nose in half – is significantly off center, or crooked, making breathing difficult

A

Deviated Septum. Document in case patient needs to be suctions

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38
Q

Where is the most common locations for oral malignancies to occur

A

under the tongue. “Mucosal Gutter”

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39
Q

In a medical reocord, the tonisl are grades as 3+. The tonsils would be located where?

A

touching the uvula

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40
Q

What is the function of the nasal turbinates?

A

Warm the inhaled air

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41
Q

The opening of an adult’s partodi gland (Stenson’s Duct) is opposite the:

A

upper 2nd molar

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42
Q

How can you tell the difference between a nasal polyp and a nasal turbinate?

A
  • A polyp is:
  1. movable
  2. pale and gray in color
  3. nontender
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43
Q

What are epistein pearls?

A
  • small round, white shiny papules on the hard palate and gums of 2 month old.
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44
Q

What should you palpate when examiniong the tongue

A

the U shaped area under the tongue

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45
Q

What is the manubriosternal angle

A

the articulation of the manubrium and the body of the sternum

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46
Q

Which side of the lungs is narrower and only has 2 sides

A

Left lung

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47
Q

What are signs of chronic bronchitis?

A
  • cough for at least 3 months of the year
  • 2 years in a row
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48
Q

Where do you asses for symmetric chest expansion

A
  • place hands on posterolateral chest wall
  • thums at the level of T9 or T10
  • slide hands up to pinch up a small fold of skin
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49
Q

Absence of diaphtramatic excursion (breathing) occurs with…

A

Pleural effusion or atelectasis of the lower lobes

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50
Q

Where do you auscultate for breath sounds

A
  • hold diaphragm of steh against chest wall
  • listen to 1 full respiration in each location
  • compare Side to Side
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51
Q

This breath sound is moderate in pitch, inspiration= expiration

A

Bronchovesicular breath sounds

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52
Q

What is the diagnosis:

Increase respiratory rate, chest expansion decreased on left side, dull percussion over left lower lobe. Breath sounds with crackles over left lobe.

A

Lobar Pneumonia

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53
Q

In a physical assessment what is a symptom of chronic congenital heart disease and COPD

A
  • nail base >160 degrees
  • base feels spongy to palpate
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54
Q

Patient complains of pain with breathing. You note low pitched sound during both inspiration and expiration.

A

Pleural Friction Rub

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55
Q

“99”, “Blue”, “EEEE”

A

egophony technique while moving stethoscope

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56
Q

This tool measures arterial oxygen saturation

A

pulse oximeter

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57
Q

Which assessment technique is best utilized for examing a pleural friction rub

A

auscultation

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58
Q

Where is the apex of the lung located?

A
  • 3 to 4 cm above the inner third of the clavicels
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59
Q

Where is the base of the lung?

A

Rests on the diaphragm

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60
Q

Where is the left lateral lung located?

A
  • sixth rib, midclavicular line
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61
Q

Where is the Right Lateral Lung Border?

A

Fifth intercostal

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62
Q

Where is the posterior apex of the lung border?

A

C7

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63
Q

How is a normal chest shaped?

A

elliptical shape with an anteroposterior transverse diameter. Ratio 1:2

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64
Q

Anteroposterior means

A
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65
Q

How is a barrell chest shaped

A

Anteroposterior = transverse diameter

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66
Q

How is pectus excavatum shaped?

A

sunken sternum and ajacent cartilages

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67
Q

How is pectus carniatum shaped?

A

forward protrusion of the sternum with ribs sloping back at either side

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68
Q

How is scoliosis shaped?

A

lateral S shaped Curvature of the thoracic and lumbar spine

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69
Q

Exaggerated posterior curvature of the spine

A

Kyphosis

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70
Q

Bronchial Tracheal Characteristics:

A
  • High pitched
  • Inspiration < Experiation
  • Harsh,Hollow, Tubular
  • Trachea/Larynx
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71
Q
A
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72
Q

This breath sound is over the major bronchi where fewer alveoli are located: Posterior b/w capulae especially on Rt anterior. Around Upper sternum in 1st and 2nd ICS

A

Bronchovesicular

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73
Q

This breath sound is over peripheral lung fields where air flows through smaller bronchioles and alveoli

A

Vesicular

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74
Q

Characteristics of Vesicular Sounds

A
  • Low pitch
  • inspiration > Expiration
  • Rustling like wind in trees
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75
Q

What is the name for this respiration pattern?

A

Sigh

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76
Q

This is purposeful and expands the alveoli. May indicate emotional dysfunction and could lead to hyperventilation.

A

Sigh

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77
Q

Name this respiration pattern

A

Biot’s Respiration

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78
Q

This is a series of normal respiration followed by a period of apnea. Cycle is variable, lasting from 10- 60 sec.

A
  • Biots Respiration (irregular)
  • Seen with head trauma, brain abscess, heat stroke spinal meningitis, & encephalitis
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79
Q

Name this respiration pattern?

A

Normal Adult

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80
Q

Rate is usually 10-20 breaths/min. Depth 500-800ml. Pattern is even.

A

Normal Adult

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81
Q

Name this respiration pattern?

A

Cheyne Stokes

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82
Q

Breathing periods last 30-45 sec, with 20 sec periods of apnea. Respirations wax and wane.

A
  • Cheyne Stokes
  • severe heart failure, drug OD, older adult during sleep, infant
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83
Q

Name this respiration pattern

A

Tachypnea

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84
Q

Rapid shallow breathing. >24/min.

A
  • Tachypnea
  • exercise, fever, fear, pneumonia
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85
Q

Name this respiration pattern

A

Bradypnea

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86
Q

Slow breathing, <10/min

A
  • Bradypnea
  • drug induced
  • diabetic coma
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87
Q

Name this respiration pattern

A

hyperventilation

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88
Q

Rate & depth both increase with this respiration type. Blows off CO2 causing a low level in the blood.

A
  • Hyperventilation
  • extreme exertion, fear, anxiety, hepatic coma, diabetic, lesions of the brain
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89
Q

Name this respiration pattern

A

Chronic Obstructive Breathing

90
Q

This is when you have prolonged expiration to overcome airway resistance.

A
  • Chronic Obstructive Breathing
  • can cause air trapping (dyspneic episode)
91
Q

Name this respiration pattern

A

Hypoventilation

92
Q

An irregular shallow pattern of breathing caused by an OD of narcotics, anesthetics or prolonged bed rest.

A
  • Hypoventilation
93
Q

What does adventitious sounds mean?

A

Abnormal

94
Q

Name this adventitious sound pattern

A

Stridor

95
Q

This sound is high pitched, monphonic. It is louder in the neck than over the chest wall. Upper airway obstruction- swollen tissues or lodged foreign body.

A
  • Stridor
  • croup, acute epiglottis child, foreign inhalation.
96
Q

Name this adventitious sound pattern

A
97
Q

Name this adventitious inhalation pattern

A

Wheeze high pitched (sibilant

98
Q

This is a high pitched musical squeaking/polyphonic. Predominantly in expiration. Sounds are similar to a vibrating reed. Passageways narrowed almost to closure.

A
  • Wheeze high, Sibilant
  • airway obstruction, chronic emphysema
99
Q

Name this adventitious sound

A

Crackles fine

100
Q

This is a high pitched short crackling w/ popping sounds. Heard during inspiration. Cough does NOT clear it

A
  • Crackles Fine
  • pneumonia, heart failure, i.fibrosis, c.bronchitis, asthma
101
Q

Name this adventitious sound pattern

A

Atelactic Crackles

102
Q

This is a loud low pitched bubbling & gurgling. Starts in early inspiration. Sounds like a velcro fastener. Inhaled air is colliding with secretions in the trachea and large bronchi.

A
  • Crackles Course
  • pulmonary edema, pneumonia, depressed cough reflex
103
Q

This sounds like fine crackles but do not LAST. They are not pathologic. It is when section of alveoli do not aerate. Deflate and accumulate secretions.

A
  • Atelactic Crackles (rales)
  • bedridden pateint
104
Q

Name this adventitious sound pattern?

A

Pleural Friction Rub

105
Q

This is a very superficial sound that is course and low. Like 2 pieces of leather are being rubbed together. Loss of lubricating fluid. Heard best in anterolateral wall.

A
  • Pleural Friction Rub
  • painful to breathe
106
Q

Name this adventitious sound pattern

A

Wheeze Low pitch (sonorous ronchi)

107
Q

You will hear a single note. Snoaring or moaning sounds. May clear a little by coughing. It is caused by airflow obstruction.

A
  • Wheeze low pitched (sonorous)
  • bronchitis, airway ob tumor
108
Q
A
109
Q

Characteristics of S1

A
  • First heart sound
  • Closure of the AV valves
  • “Lub”
  • heard best at the apex
  • Beginning of systole
110
Q

Characteristics of S2

A
  • Second heart sound
  • closure of semilunar valves
  • “Dub”
  • End of Systole
  • heart at Base of heart
111
Q

Where is S1 louder than S2

A

at the apex

112
Q

Which artery does S1 coincide with?

A

carotid

113
Q

Which wave does S1 coincide with on ECG?

A

R-wave

114
Q

Characteristics of S3

A
  • Vibrations from filling ventricles
  • “lub-dubba” “kentucky”
  • Early diastole, after S2
  • At apex with bell
  • left lateral position
115
Q

Characteristics of S4

A
  • Blood being pushed into a noncompliant ventricle
  • “da-lub-dub” “Tennessee”
  • End of diastole, presystole, before S1
  • Heard at apex with bell
116
Q

Characteristics of a Murmur

A
  • Turbulent blood flow and collision currents
  • “swooshing”
  • structural defects in valves, unusual opening in chambers, anemia.
  • Heard best at Chest Wall
117
Q

What data are you gathering during Auscultation of Heart Sounds x5

A
  1. Rate / Rhythm
  2. Identify S1 & S2 (together)
  3. S1 & S2 (separate)
  4. S3 & S4
  5. Murmurs
118
Q

What is the formula for pulse deficit

A

apical rate - radial rate

119
Q

What are you listening for with murmurs?

A
  • Timing
  • Loudness
  • Ptich
  • Pattern
  • Quality
  • Location
  • Radiation
  • Posture/Position
120
Q

If you hear a swooshin sound during diastolic sounds, what does that indicate?

A

Heart Disease

121
Q

All Patients Take Meds..

A
  • Aortic (2nd Rt, ICS)
  • Pulmonary (2nd Left, ICS)
  • Tricuspid (Lt lower sternum)
  • Mitral (5th ICS midclavical)
122
Q

What are the 2 phases of the Cardiac Cycle?

A
  1. Diastole: relax, filling, Atrial Kick
  2. Systole: blood pumped out
123
Q

Documenting Heart Sounds x4

A
  1. Frequency/Pitch
  2. Intensity/Loudness
  3. Duration
  4. Timing: systole/diastole
124
Q

Step 1: Blood has cicrulationg through the body, lost its oxygen and collected CO2, where does it enter?

A
  • Right Atrium of the heart through the Vena Cava
125
Q

Step 2: Right Atrium Contracts and pumps blood through which valves?

A

Tricuspid valve and right ventricle

126
Q

Step 3 of 9: The Right Ventricle pumps blood where?

A
  • Through the pulmonary artery into the lungs
127
Q

Step 4: What do the tiny blood vessels (capillaries) in the lungs do?

A

absorb CO2 from blood and replace it with oxygen

128
Q

Step 5: oxygenated blood flows through the pulmonary vein and into where?

A
  • Left Atrium
129
Q

Step 6: Oxygenated blood pumps throu the mitral valve and into where?

A

Left Ventricle

130
Q

Which side of the heart contracts the strongest?

A

the Left Side

131
Q

Why does the left side contract the strongest?

A
  • To send blood out the left ventricle and through the aortic arch and on its way to al parts of the body.
132
Q

Once the blood has gone through the aortic arch, what are the option for where blood can be pumped?

A
  • thru carotid artery into the brain
  • auxiliary arteries into the arms
  • aorta and into the torso/legs
133
Q

Step 8: Blood moves through the arteries, then through capillaries, where does it return?

A

Veins

134
Q

Step 9: What is the last step of the cardiac cycle?

A

Deoxygenated blood will return to the heart

135
Q

Myocardium

A

Muscle layer of the heart

136
Q

Smooth inner layer of the heart

A

Endocardium

137
Q

Between parietal and visceral layer

A

pericardial space

138
Q

This is the pacemaker of the heart with 60-100 bpm

A

sinoatrial node

139
Q

Major vein of the head

A
  • jugular
  • drains the head
140
Q

Major artery that supplies blood to the head

A

carotid

141
Q

this pumps blood to pulmonary circulation

A

right ventricle

142
Q

pumps blood to the systemic circulation

A

left ventricle

143
Q

this is a valve between LA & LV

A

Mitral Valve

144
Q

Valve betwee RV & Pulmonary Aorta

A

pulmonic valve

145
Q

Paces Heart at 40-60 BPM

A

AV Node

146
Q

This is lymphatic tissue found in the oropharynx

A

Tonsils

147
Q

This drains arms

A

subclavian vein

148
Q

Organ in LUQ of the adomen that produces lymphocytes and monocytes

A

spleen

149
Q

These veins drain the legs

A

iliac

150
Q

This is lyphatic tissue in thorax that helps w/ T-Cell differentiation

A

Thymus

151
Q

What does the external sphincter do?

A

Relaxes

152
Q

What is valsavle maneuver?

A
  • bearing down
  • lead to herniated disc
  • tumor
153
Q

Where do you assess potency of the nostrils?

A

CN1, olfactory

154
Q

This is a palpable vibration while patient says “blue moon”

A

fremitus

155
Q

Where do sounds for tactile fremitus originate?

A
  • Generated from larynx > patent bronchi > lung parenchyma > chest wall (where you feel them)
156
Q

Unequal chest expansion occurs with x4

A
  1. marked atelectasis;
  2. pneumonia;
  3. thoracic trauma;
  4. pneumothorax
157
Q

This is coarse, crackling sensation palpable over the skin surface. Occurs in subcutaneous emphysema, when air escapes from the lungs and enters the subcutaneous tissue

A

Crepitus

158
Q

This is soft, muffled thud; signals abnormal density in the lungs, as with pneumonia, pleural effusion, atelectasis or tumor

A

Dull

159
Q

this is lower pitched, booming sound found when too much air is present, as in emphysema or pneumothorax

A

Hyperesonance

160
Q

Occurs with compression or consolidation of lung tissue (e.g. lobar pneumonia) Present only when the bronchus is patent and when the consolidation extends to the lung surface.

A

Increased Fremitus

161
Q

Occurs when anything obstructs transmission of vibrations. (e.g. obstructed bronchus, pleural effusion or thickening, pneumothorax, or emphysema.

A

decreased fremitus

162
Q

When could the apical impulse not be palpable

A

obese persons, or persons with thick chest walls.

163
Q

When does the apical impulse increase in size and duration?

A
  • anxiety,
  • fever,
  • hyperthyroidism
  • anemia
164
Q

This is a palpable vibration. It feels like a throat of a purring cat. Usually signifies turbulent blood flow with loud murmurs.

A

Thrill

165
Q

this is felt over the precordium during systole in aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, and ventricular septal defect.

A

systolic thrill

166
Q

sometimes felt on percussing over a cyst.

A

hydatid thrill

167
Q

this is felt over the precordium during ventricular diastole in advanced aortic insufficiency.

A

diastolic thrill

168
Q

This is when ventricular filling creates vibrations

A

S3

169
Q

Signs/Symptoms of DVT

A
  • pain, swelling, tenderness in one of your legs (calf)
  • warm skin where clot is located
  • redness back of your leg below knee
  • aching
170
Q

Wha are reasons to administer an enema?

A
  1. Constipation
  2. Bowel preparation for procedures
171
Q

While administering an enema you feel resistance, what is the appropriate nursing action?

A

Stop the procedure and notify the healthcare provider

172
Q

What is the typical amount of time a client can hold the fluid in after an enema before expelling it?

A

2-5 minutes

173
Q

When administering a regular enema, how high should you hold the enema bag?

A

12 inches

174
Q

What is the correct thing to do if a clinet complains of cramping during the enema administration?

A

Lower the height of the enema bag

175
Q

Mr. Jay has a fecal impaction. The nurse correctly administers an oil-retention Enema by doing which of the following?

A) Administering a large volume solution 500 to 1000 ml
B) Mixing milk and molasses and equal parts for an enema
C) Instructing the patient to retain the enema for at least 30 seconds
D) Administering the enema while the patient is sitting on a toilet

A

c) Instructing the patient to retain the enema for at least 30 sec

176
Q

Your patient complains of an excessive flatulence. When reviewing your patients dietary intake, which foods, if eaten regularly, would you identify as possibly responsible?
A) Meet
B) Cauliflower
C) Potatoes
D) Ice cream

A

B) Cauliflower

Cauliflower is a gas producing food that relates in flatulence

177
Q

Nurses should recommend avoiding the habitual use of laxatives. Which of the following is the rationale for this?
A) They will cause a fecal impaction
B) They will cause chronic constipation
C) They change the pH of the Gastrointestinal track
D) They inhibit the intestinal enzymes

A

B) Chronic constipation

178
Q

During removal of a fecal impaction, which of the following could occur Because of vaginal stimulation?
A) Bradycardia
B)Atelectasid
C) Tachycardia
D) Cardiac tamponade

A

A) Bradycardia

Removing a fecal impaction manually may result in stimulation of the vaginal nerve and resulting bradycardia

179
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action to promote regular bowel habits?
A) Encourage the patient to avoid moving his bowels until a certain time of day
B) Encourage the patient to avoid excess fluid intake and too much fiber
C) Avoid strenuous exercise to limit stress on the abdominal muscles and impair peristalsis
D) Assisting the patient to a normal position as possible to defecate

A

D) Assisting the patient to a normal position as possible to defecate

Sitting upright on a toilet or commode promotes defecation. If the patient must use a bedpan, raise the head of the bed 30 to 45°. Patient should be encouraged to move their bowels at their usual time of the day.

180
Q

What is the incidence of deep vein thrombosis?

A

Age-dependent
In a 50yo: 1/1,000 per year
Young adults: 1/10,000 per year
In elderly: 1/100 per year

181
Q

What are the risk factors for DVT?

A
  • obesity,
  • cancers,
  • major surgery,
  • infection,
  • chemotherapy,
  • IV drug use,
  • inacitivty and immobility,
  • post-partum period,
  • long-haul flights
182
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of DVT?

A
  • Distension of surface veins,
  • pain/tenderness,
  • redness/discolouration,
  • swelling,
  • warmth
183
Q

What are subjective assessment questions for Cardiac x8

A
  • chest pain
  • cough
  • shortness of breath
  • swelling in feet or legs
  • facial skin color
  • fatigued
  • family history of heart disease
  • use more than one pillow
184
Q

This is a condition in which one or more areas of your lungs collapse or don’t inflate properly.

A

Atelactic

185
Q

What can cause infection in the Cardiac

A
  • bad gums
  • central line
  • weak valve
  • inflammation
186
Q

Listening to the heart, what side of your stethoscope do you hear low pitched sounds?

A

The bell

187
Q

What is a bruit?

A

turbulent blood flow

188
Q

Pathological Reasons for Listening for S3

A

Anemia,
sign of HF
Volume overload
hyperthyroidism
pregnancy
renal failure
persists when sitting up

189
Q

Reasons for listenting for S4

A

decreased compliance of ventricle
systolic overload
aortic stenosis
systemic hypertension

190
Q

What are reasons for having a murmur

A

During menstrual cycle (benign)
During Exercise
Thyroid level too high
Anemia (low blood)-less rbcs, less oxygen
expected for infants
structural defects in valve
unusual openings in chambers

191
Q

What is a resting adult CO

A

4-6 of blood/min

192
Q

What is preload?

A

force of stretch in heart from venous return

193
Q

What is afterload?

A

Ventricular pressure needed to eject blood

194
Q

What happens heart/neck when Aging?

A

BP increases
lifestyles
sodium
Left ventricle increases
Increase Arrhythmias
Orthostatic Hypotension (getting out of bed fast)
check for bruits in carotid
systolic heart murmur

195
Q

Where do you assess an adult heart

A

5th ICS

196
Q

Where do you assess infant heart?

A

3-4 ICS

197
Q

What is PMI referring to?

A

Point of Maximal Impulse

198
Q

High risk factors for heart disease

A

high blood pressure
smoking
high cholesterol
diabetes
obesity

199
Q

what type of assessment do you take for bruit?

A

Auscultate

200
Q
A
201
Q

What do blood vessels do?

A

transports blood which transports oxygen

202
Q

What are you markers for major arteries?

A

ulnar, radial, brachial

203
Q

Intraluminal valves help to ensure

A

blood moves towards the heart

204
Q

What do varicose veins look like?

A

blue
torturous
you can fee

205
Q

How would the skin present itself if you had arterial insufficiencies?

A

thin, shiny skin, thick nails
less hair on legs

206
Q

used to evaluate the adequacy of collateral circulation prior to cannulating the radial artery;

A

Modified Allens Test

207
Q

What and where are you looking for during a modified allens test?

A
  • should see blanching
  • compression on radial & ulnar arterties
208
Q

Which lung lobe is shorter?

A

the right side, because of the liver

209
Q

What is visceral pleura

A

sack for the lungs

210
Q

What does negative pressure mean referring to the lungs

A

lungs are being pulled open, otherwise lungs would collapse

211
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A

bronchial trees

212
Q

What is controlling respiration

A

CO2

213
Q

What is Hypercapnea

A

too much CO2

214
Q

hypoxemia

A

low oxygen in the blood

215
Q

What is the major muscle of inspiration

A

diaphram

216
Q

Is expiration passive or active?

A

Passive

217
Q

What causes crackles?

A

Too much fluid

218
Q

What are discontinuous sounds?

A
  • crackles
  • atelectic crackles
  • pleural friction rub
219
Q

What are continuous sounds

A

wheeze, stridor

220
Q

What type of breath sound is asthma

A

wheeze

221
Q

What are 3 salivary glands

A
  • parotid
  • submandibula
  • sublingua
222
Q

What do stretch receptors initiate

A

contraction of sigmoid colon/rectal muscles

Nursing School (33 decks)

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