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Nursing School > Exam 2: NR410 > Flashcards

Exam 2: NR410 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is our job as nurses?

A
  • minimize risk or harm
  • safe & effective
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2
Q

Safety factors for Infants?

A
  • can’t recognize danger
  • tactile explore envt
  • dependent
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3
Q

Safety factors for pre-schoolers?

A
  • play outdoors
  • more adventruous
    • proper attire
    • helmet safety
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4
Q

Safety factors for adolescents

A
  • indestructable
  • risk taking
  • lack adult judgment
    • Main cause for injury: drug/alcohol, car accidents. Car accidents are greater risk
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5
Q

Safety factor for adults?

A
  • workplace injury
  • lifestyle
  • strength/stamina decline
  • joint mobility
  • slowing reflexes
  • sensory loss
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6
Q

Individual factors affecting safety for all

A
  • lifestyle
  • cognition
  • balance, gait, mobility
  • communication
  • visual acuity
  • emotional helath
  • safety awareness
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7
Q

In meeting the saftey needs of the adolescent client, it would be most important for the nurse to focus teaching on?

A

driver’s education

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8
Q

What are concerns for a child?

A
  • do not leave unattended
    • drowning
    • taking meds
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9
Q

What are concerns for adult?

A
  • lighting
  • handrails
  • Kitchen safety (turn stove on/off)
  • poisoning
  • carbon monoxide (detectors)
  • burns
  • fires
  • falls
  • firearms
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10
Q

Safety factors for school-age

A
  • try new activites w/o practice
  • stranger danger
  • more time outside of home
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11
Q

Whats the biggest safety issue in the home and hospital?

A

falls

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12
Q

Safety in the Env’t?

A
  • vehicles
  • bicycles
  • community acquired pathogens
  • pollution
  • sun exposure
  • walking/running- headphones
  • toxins
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13
Q

What are problems with CFL’s (compact fluorescent lamp)?

A
  • Mercury exposure - open area on skin
  • Fire hazard
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14
Q

Organizations working to make healthcare safer?

A
  • IHI (institue on health improvement)
  • Joint Commission
  • HCAHPS & CORE
  • America Association of Colleges of Nursing
  • ANA
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15
Q

How much medical harm occursi annually in the U.S.?

A
  • 40-50 incident for every 100 patients/minute
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16
Q

How many deather per year for medical errors?

A

98,000

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17
Q

What are impacts of death per year?

A
  • motor vehicle
  • breast cancer
  • AIDS
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18
Q

How do most hospitals view their quality of care?

A

Above average

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19
Q

What do you think are major issues in healthcare setting for safety?

A
  • falling
  • med errors
  • wrong site in surgery
  • diagnostic inaccuracy- wrong treatment
  • equip failure-iv pump
  • transfusion error-wrong blood type
  • lab- incorrect labeling
  • system failure
  • env’t- spills
  • communication-documentation important
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20
Q

Who is the last line of defense for meds?

A
  • The Nurse
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21
Q

What percent of falls are accounted for at hosptials

A

25%

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22
Q

What percent of falls are accounted for deaths in a hospital?

A

12%

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23
Q

What can you do to reduce falls?

A
  1. Identify fall risk, how high?
  2. Tag patient w/ wristband
  3. Family Education
  4. Move closer to Nurse’s station
  5. Room is free of clutter
  6. Non-skid booties
  7. Document everything you did
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24
Q

Who is the highest at risk for falls?

A
  • patients who have fallen in the past 6 months
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25
Q

What are the procedures when a patient falls?

A
  • Focused Assess
  • Licensed Independent Practitioner
  • Document what you saw
  • Interventions
  • Occurence/Incident Report
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26
Q

What is the acronym for FIre

A

R.A.C.E

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27
Q

Race (R) stands for

A

rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish, relocate

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28
Q

P.A.S.S for fire stands for..

A
  • Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
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29
Q

What do we do immediately after a patient falls?

A

ASSESS for injury before getting them up

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30
Q

What are considered a restraint?

A
  • Side rails
  • IV arm boards
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31
Q

What facilities do sometimes allow side-rails up?

A

Long Term Care

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32
Q

Why do we restrain a patient?

A
  • violence
  • at risk to themselves or others
  • last resort
  • pulling out IV
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33
Q

Is restraint a standard of practice?

A

No

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34
Q

What do you assess for after restraint?

A
  • neurosensory, ever 2 hrs
  • basics every 15-30min
  • reasses for continued use
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35
Q

For Non-behavioral restraints do you need a physicians order?

A

Yes

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36
Q

How do you apply a restraint?

A
  • 2 finger breadths
  • quick release to bedframe
  • document
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37
Q

What restraint can be a hazard for strangulation?

A

Vests

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38
Q

What are problems that can occur to the patient with restraints?

A
  • dehydration
  • strangulation,
  • cutting off circulation
  • patient coming out of sedation
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39
Q

NDNQ

A

for quality indicators

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40
Q

Threats to safe nursing practice

A
  • unfamiliarity
  • inadequate time
  • poor communication
  • underestimating risk
  • workflow
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41
Q

Why do nurses make errors?

A
  • accessible
  • distractions
  • work-arounds “shortcuts”
  • limited short term memory
  • scheduling
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42
Q

IOM 6 Aims

A
  1. Safe
  2. Timely
  3. Effective
  4. Efficient
  5. Equitable
  6. Patient-Centered
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43
Q

QSEN

A

Quality for Safety and Education for Nurses

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44
Q

is it possible to have SHEER without FRICTION?

A

NO, but it is possible to have friction without sheer

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45
Q

What is cultural awaremess

A
  • an in-depth self-examination of one’s own background, recognizing biases and prejudices and assumptions about other people.
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46
Q

Ethnicity

A

common sense of identity

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47
Q

How do you develop cultural humility

A

self assessment

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48
Q

What are barriers in culture?

A
  • langugage
  • pre-conceived ideas
  • gender
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49
Q

What are the 5 stages social identity theory?

A
  • Naive, no social consciousness
  • Acceptance
  • Resistance
  • Re-definition
  • Internalize
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50
Q

What can you do to make them comfortable?

A
  • smile
  • touch
  • listen
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51
Q

Good Questions to ask?

A
  • What do you think caused your illness?
  • Who would you like to be involve
  • What have you done to treat your illness?
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52
Q

What can you do in difficult ethic situation?

A

find resources, get ethics committee

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53
Q

What is communication?

A
  • encoding/sending
  • the message
  • sensory channels
  • decoding/receiving
  • feedback- 2ways
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54
Q

Kindness means

A
  • a smile
  • eye contact
  • active listening
  • touch
  • generosity
  • acknowledge special needs
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55
Q

Communication failure affects

A
  • safety
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56
Q

Components of Communication

A
  • subject matter
  • words
  • gestures
  • substance of the message
  • open to interpretation
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57
Q

Principles of Communication

A
  • Verbal/Nonverbal
  • Dynamic
  • Verbal supports Nonverbal
  • Trust
  • More than talking/listening
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58
Q

Intrapersonal means?

A

self-talk, inner dialogue

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59
Q

What is an example of false hope?

A

“Everything’s going to be okay”

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60
Q

What is the sequence for using a cane

A
  1. Put weight on good foot
  2. Step out with bad foot
  3. Place cane forward
  4. Move good foot forward
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61
Q

Define Enculturation?

A

Socialization into one’s primary culture as a child is known

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62
Q

Define Assimilation

A

when an individual gradually adopts and incorporates the characteristics of the dominant culture.

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63
Q

What is stereotyping?

A

unwarranted generalizations about any particular group that prevents further assessment of the individual’s unique characteristics.

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64
Q

What are health disparity populations?

A

a significant increased incidence or prevalence of disease or that have increased morbidity, mortality, or survival rates compared to the health status of the general population

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65
Q

How do patients suffer cultural pain?

A

when health care providers disregard values or cultural beliefs

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66
Q

what is feedback

A

summarizing what the patient said

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67
Q

You are caring for Mr. Smith, who is facing amputation of his leg. During the orientation phase of the relationship, what would you do?

A

Talk with him about his favorite hobbies

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68
Q

Simple assertive statements include

A
  • referencing the person you are addressing
  • the behavior that is a problem
  • its effect
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69
Q

If a patient has limited ability to speak or understand English, he or she has legal rights to…

A

an interpreter

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70
Q

What is therapeutic nurse-client relationship?

A
  • info about health treatment
  • wellness
  • therapeutic communication
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71
Q

4 Phases of therapuetic relationship

A
  1. Pre-orientation- biases?
  2. Orientation- smile, what does day look like?
  3. Working Phase-collaborate
  4. Termination Phase- document, tell patient
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72
Q

What is therapeutic communication?

A
  • patient centered
  • goal directed
  • strengthens relationship
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73
Q

Communication strategies

A
  • say “I”
  • eye contact
  • keep promises
  • empathy
  • touch
  • ask permission
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74
Q

Blockers of communication

A
  • false reassurance
  • changing the subect
  • refer to handout
  • close ended questions
  • asking “why”?
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75
Q

What percent of negative effects occur because of gaps in communication?

A
  • 85%
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76
Q

SBAR stands for

A
  • Situation
  • Background
  • Assessment
  • Recommendation
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77
Q

HCAHPS

A
  • Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Provider Systems
    • feedback from patient
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78
Q

What statement about nonverbal communication is correct?

A
  • nurses’ verbal communication should be reinforced by nonverbal cues
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79
Q

If a child swallos a toxic substance what is the first action to tell parents

A

call poison control

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80
Q

A patient with risk of falls is wondering halls, what do you do?

A
  1. Leave a night light on in the bathroom
  2. Provide scheduled toileting during the night shift.
  3. Keep the pathway from the bed to the bathroom clear.
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81
Q

What is the most important intervention when a patient is having a seizure?

A
  • Clear the area around the child to protect the child from injury.
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82
Q

A patient gets out of bed often, is a fall risk, what is the initial nursing intervention?

A

Place a bed alarm device on the bed

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83
Q

At 3 am the emergency department nurse hears that a tornado hit the east side of town. What action does the nurse take first?

A

prepare for an influx of patients

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84
Q

3 types of documentation

A
  1. source oriented
  2. problem oriented
  3. electronic computer based
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85
Q

What are the basic principles of documentation

A
  • timely
  • accurate
  • complete
  • legible
  • easily retrieved
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86
Q

What does charting by exception mean?

A

charting what is outside the norms or parameters

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87
Q

What are flow sheets are comprised of?

A
  • vital signs
  • intake/output
  • pain
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88
Q

SOAPIER stands for

A

Sub Obj Planning Intervention Evaluation Revision

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89
Q

What is a nursing admission assessment comprised of?

A
  • patient history, allergies
  • done several times
  • ask the patient who should be present
  • baseline
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90
Q

Kardex or Client Care

A
  • “down & dirty”
  • demographic, medical diagnosis, allergies, diet, meds, safety, treatments
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91
Q

Occurrence Report is

A
  • unusual or accident
  • not a part of patient’s health record
92
Q

What are sentinel events

A
  • stuff that shouldnt happen under our care
    • wrong site surgery
    • patient suicide
    • op/post-op
    • fall
93
Q

What is elopement

A

losing a patient

94
Q

What is effective communication for transition in care and handoff reports?

A

SBAR

95
Q

When do you do hand off?

A
  • shift to shift
  • transfers
  • breaks
  • therapist to therapist
  • allow questions
96
Q

Do you take verbal orders only in emergency?

A

yes

97
Q

What are the steps for verbal/tele order?

A
  • write, read it back
  • clarify spelling
  • date, time, providers name, your signature
98
Q

Evolve:

Which of the following assessment data support a possible pulmonary problem related to impaired mobility? (POST-OP)

A
  • respiratory rate increases.
  • The heart rate also increases because the heart is trying to improve oxygen levels.
  • crackling
99
Q

Evolve:

Why do we use stockings after a surgical procedure?

A

external pressure on the lower extremities and assist in promoting venous return to the heart.

100
Q

Evolve:

What could being on bed rest be a risk for?

A

falling

101
Q

Evolve:

Coffee ground–like aspirate from the feeding tube are a sign of..

A

bleeding in the GI tract

102
Q

Evolve:

when patients are immobile and the joint is not exercised through their ROM (range of motion), what can happen?

A

the adductor muscle fibers shorten, resulting in the contracture of that joint, which is usually permanent.

103
Q

Evolve:

Immobilized patients are at risk for impaired skin integrity, what are your interventions?

A
  1. An objective assessment scale allows the nurse to assess for pressure ulcer risk over tim
  2. Using a device to relieve pressure when patient is seated in chair
  3. Teaching patient how to shift weight at regular intervals while sitting in a chair
  4. the higher the risk for skin breakdown, the shorter the interval between position changes
104
Q

Evolve:

When we are helping a patient walk, which side do we want to be on?

A

the weak side

105
Q

Evolve:

What part of the body do you want to be holding when assisting a patient to walk?

A

His waist, not his arm. Using a gait belt to avoid risk of injury.

106
Q

Name some causes of orthostatic hypotension

A
  1. dehydration
  2. medication
  3. heart problems
  4. thyroid/endocrine
  5. nervous system
107
Q

Evolve:

Which action(s) are appropriate for the nurse to implement when a patient experiences orthostatic hypotension?

A
  1. Allow patient to sit down.
  2. Take patient’s blood pressure and pulse.
  3. If patient begins to faint, allow him to slide against the nurse’s leg to the floor
108
Q

Evolve:

If you can’t lift a patient from bed to chair what can you do?

A

call the lift team for support

109
Q

Evolve:

Which is the correct gait when a patient is ascending stairs on crutches?

A
  • modified three-point gait.
  • The unaffected leg is advanced between the crutches to the stairs
110
Q

Evolve:

a patient prescribed bilateral partial weight bearing, which crutch gait is most appropriate for this patient?

A

The two-point gait requires at least partial weight bearing on each foot

111
Q

Evolve:

What does a 3 point gait require

A
  • that the patient bear all their weight on one foot,
  • For a patient with one injured foot/leg.
112
Q

Evolve:

Which of the following activities does the nurse delegate to nursing assistive personnel in regard to crutch walking?

A
  1. Notify nurse if patient reports pain before, during, or after exercise
  2. Notify nurse of patient complaints of increased fatigue, dizziness, light-headedness when obtaining vital signs before and/or after exercise
  3. Notify nurse of vital sign values.
  4. Prepare the patient for exercise by assisting in dressing and putting on shoes.
113
Q

Evolve:

What applies to the proper use of a cane?

A
  1. patient places the cane forward 15 to 25 cm (6 to 10 inches), keeping body weight on both legs
  2. The patient needs to learn that two points of support such as both feet or one foot and the cane need to be present at all times.
114
Q

Evolve:

What are some critical thinking skills?

A
  • ethics
  • analytics
  • self confidence
115
Q

Evolve:

The pain scale is an example of which intellectual standard?

A

consistency

116
Q

Evolve:

What is basic critical thinking?

A

concrete and based on a set of rules or principles

117
Q

Evolve:

What is unique to the commitment level of critical thinking?

A

Anticipates when to make choices without others’ assistance.

118
Q

What is the difference between negligence & malpractice?

A

when the patient is involved

119
Q

Where can you get resources for negligence & malpractice

A
  • standards
  • expert opinion
  • instiutional policies
  • state by state
120
Q

When delegating, who is responsibile for the action?

A

the person delegator is liable

121
Q

What are the 5 rights in delegation

A
  1. task
  2. circumstance
  3. person (doesn’t have to be a CNA)
  4. direction
  5. supervision
122
Q

What is the delegation process

A
  1. communicate, expectations
  2. monitor
  3. evaluate
  4. give feedback
123
Q

What can a nurse not delegate, even to another nurse?

A
  • assessment
  • evaluation
  • nursing judgment
124
Q

What can you delegate?

A
  • Vital signs
  • meds
  • technical tasks
  • procedures
125
Q

What leaves an RN vulnerable?

A

poor records

126
Q

When you delegate to a CNA, can they refuse?

A
  • Yes
127
Q

Patients Rights

A
  • informed consent
  • privacy
  • dignity
  • to be treated fairely
  • safety
128
Q

Informed Consent

A
  • Nurse, witness patient’s signature
    • down to the doctor’s responsibility
129
Q

If the procedure was not done under informed consent, what could it be considered?

A

battery

130
Q

What does informed consent include?

A
  • risks
  • patient bill of rights
  • nature of health concern
  • description of treatment
131
Q

When does informed consent get overrided?

A
  • emergency
  • law presumes they want to be saved
  • therapeutic privilege
    • when information could harm the pt
132
Q

How to prevent liability

A
  • follow standards/protocols
  • delegate appropriately
  • keep up on information
  • identify fall risk, decubitis
  • safe environment
  • document well
133
Q

When should you question a physicians orders?

A
  • when client questions
  • question and record verbal orders
  • avoid miscommunication
134
Q

Causes of negligence?

A
  • patient falls
  • equipment injuries
  • failure to monitor
  • failure to communicate
  • medication errors
  • medical errors
135
Q

Intervention errors

A
  • not performing task correctly
  • interpret carry out doc’s orders
  • pursue the physician
136
Q

What are the 6F’s

A
  1. asses/monitor
  2. changes
  3. adequate education
  4. standards/policies
  5. document
  6. failure to act as an advocate
137
Q

What is the purpose of liability precautions

A

quality improvement

138
Q

Be able to determine negligence vs malpractice

A
139
Q

Grief?

A
  • physical, psychological, and spiritual responses to loss
140
Q

Mourning

A

action associated with grief

141
Q

Bereavement

A

mourning/adjustment following loss

142
Q

What affects grief

A
  • significance of the loss
  • amount of support for the bereaved
  • developmental stage
  • timeliness of death
143
Q

Hubler Ross 5 Stages of Grief

A
  • denial
  • anger
  • bargaining
  • depression
  • acceptance
144
Q

What are types of grief

A
  • uncomplicated
  • complicated
    • chronic/masked/delayed
  • disenfranchised- miscarriage, society doesnt recognize
  • anticipatory- pre-grief
145
Q

Define Death

A
  • historical definition
  • heart-lung death
  • whole-brain
  • higher-brain
  • uniform determination of death act, loss of brain stem fucntion
146
Q

What are the stages of dying (assessment)

A
  1. 1-3mnths prior, withrawn, sleep more, not eating
  2. 1-2 wks, vitals change, skin color change, apnea, cheyne stokes, death rattle
  3. days to hours- walk, eat, energy, swallowing diff, dehydration
  4. moments to hours- unconsciousness
147
Q

What is palliative care

A

holistic comfort care

148
Q

What is hospice care

A
  • doctor order
  • 6 months left to live (guess)
  • survive on donation
  • help family 1 year after death
  • must sign a DNR
149
Q

What does palliative care team look like

A
  • advanced practice nurse
  • physician
  • chaplain
  • case manager
  • pharmacist
150
Q

What are legalities in end of life

A
  • advanced directives
    • living will
    • POA
  • DNR
  • Assisted Suicide
  • Euthanasia
  • Autopsy- unexpected death, dialysis, what if family doesnt want it?
151
Q

What is our assessment for end of life?

A
  • knowledge
  • history
  • coping
  • meaning of loss
  • depression or grief
  • physical assessment
  • cutlural/spiritual assess
152
Q

What are NANDA’s for end of life

A
  • powerlessness
  • hopelessness
  • denial, ineffective
  • coping, ineffective
  • nutrition imbalance
153
Q

What does care entail for dying patient

A
  • physiological
  • psychological
  • spiritual
  • cultural
154
Q

What is a quintessential answer for therapeutic

A

“tell me more”

155
Q

Patient Self Determination Act

A

letting patient know their rights to advanced directive

156
Q

Post Mordam Care

A
  • comfort dignitiy cooperation
  • who validates death?
  • donor?
  • autoposy? (everything stays in)
  • making them presentable
157
Q

What is rigor mortis?

A
  • put in dentures before
  • muscles stiffen up
158
Q

Evolve:

The nurse asks a patient, “Describe for me your typical diet over a 24-hour day. What foods do you prefer? Have you noticed a change in your weight recently?” This series of questions would likely occur during which phase of a patient-centered interview?

A

Collecting Assessment

159
Q

Evolve:

What technique(s) best encourage(s) a patient to tell his or her full story?

A
  1. Active listening
  2. Back channeling
  3. Use of open-ended questions
160
Q

Evolve:

What is validating?

A

comparing data with another ?source

161
Q

Evolve:

What is probing?

A

encourages a full description without trying to control the direction of the patient’s story

162
Q

Evolve:

Is a chest x-ray considered a nursing assessment?

A

NO

163
Q

Evolve:

A patient wears two hearing aids. The advanced practice nurse who is conducting the assessment uses which of the following approaches while conducting the interview with this patient?

A
  1. Lean forward when interacting with the patient
  2. Acknowledge the patient’s answers through head nodding
164
Q

Evolve:

What is the related factor or risk?

A

a condition for which the nurse can implement preventive measures

165
Q

Evolve:

What does a nurse do when reviewing data?

A

the nurse compares defining characteristics for the two nursing diagnoses and selects one based on the interpretation of data

166
Q

Evolve:

A risk diagnosis does not have defining characteristics, instead what does it have?

A

Risk factors are the environmental, physiological, psychological, genetic, or chemical elements that place a person at risk for a health problem

167
Q

Evolve:

Time Frame what it is & what it is NOT

A
  • IS:
    • when you expect a response to your nursing interventions
    • helps to organize nursing priorities
  • IS NOT
    • which problem is most important
    • a nurses work schedule
168
Q

Evolve:

What must an outcome have to be a precise measurement?

A
  • quality
  • quantitly
  • frequency
  • length or weight
169
Q

Evolve:

When does implementation begin as the fourth step of the nursing process?

A

After the plan of care has been developed

170
Q

Evolve:

When interpreting findings you…

A

compare the patient’s behavioral responses and physiological signs and symptoms that you expect to see with those actually seen from your evaluation.

171
Q

Evolve:

A goal specifies the expected behavior or response that indicates

A

Resolution of a nursing diagnosis or maintenance of a healthy state

172
Q

Evolve:

The evaluation of interventions examines two factors:

A
  1. the appropriateness of the interventions selected
  2. the correct application of the intervention
173
Q

Evolve:

An evaluative measure determines a

A

a patients response

174
Q

Evolve:

What criteria would you recommend in choosing a nursing center?

A
  1. clean look like patient’s home
  2. adequate staffing on all shifts
  3. Meals should be high quality with options for what to eat and when it is served.
  4. active family involvement
175
Q

Evolve:

blurred vision, sensitivity to glare, and gradual loss of vision

A

cataracts

176
Q

Evolve:

eye condition resulting in a person having difficulty adjusting to near and far vision

A

presbyopia

177
Q

Evolve:

Who makes the request for organ and tissue donation at the time of death?

A

Specially educated personnel make requests

178
Q

Evolve:

How do you start the conversation about the goals of care at the end of life?

A

asking the patient to identify his or her beliefs about the goals of care while the family member is present

179
Q

Evolve:

What action honors cultural beliefs at the end of life?

A

Giving people options in caregiving (i.e. family members)

180
Q

Evolve:

Regarding grief in older adults, which understanding helps guide your relationship with an elderly patient?

A

Older adults have usually sustained many losses in life, which influence the current loss

181
Q

Evolve:

A nurse stops to help in an emergency at the scene of an accident, injured party files a law suit

A

The Good Samaritan law holds the health care provider immune from liability as long as he or she functions within the scope of his or her expertise

182
Q

Evolve:

When is a living will invoked?

A

when the patient has a terminal condition or is in a persistent vegetative state.

183
Q

Evolve:

What can posting medical information about the patient on a message board in the patient’s room cause?

A

information being accessed by persons who are not involved in the patient’s treatment. Violation of hippa

184
Q

Evolve:

Who are mandated reporters of suspected child abuse

A

nurses

185
Q

Evolve:

What type of communication is used during the orientation phase of a relationship

A

unrelated small talk

186
Q

Evolve:

What do you include in a hand off report

A
  1. patient’s name, age, and admitting diagnosis
  2. allergies
  3. patient pain raiting
187
Q

Evolve:

A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes says, “My blood sugar was just a little high. I don’t have diabetes.” The nurse responds:

A

with silence, gives patients time to process their thoughts.

188
Q

What is the purpose of NCLEX

A

To determine if it’s safe for you to begin practice as an entry-level nurse

189
Q

What are topic of the NCLEX

A
  1. Safe care environment
  2. Health promotion/maintenance
  3. psychosocial
  4. physiological
  5. nursing process
  6. communication, documentation, teaching
190
Q

what organization developed the NCLEX testing system

A

National Council of State Boards of Nursing

191
Q

What are the 4 recommendations of the IOM?

A
  1. practice to the full extent of their education and
    training
  2. achieve higher levels of education and training through an improved education system that promotes seamless academic progression
  3. full partners, w/ physicians and other health care
    professionals, in redesigning health care in the United States.
  4. Effective workforce planning and policy making require better data collection and an improved
    information infrastructure.
192
Q

What is the reasonable man standard?

A

a hypothetical person in society who exercises average care, skill, and judgment in conduct and who serves as a comparative standard for determining liability.

193
Q

What are common examples of malpractice

A
  • Doing or Saying Nothing When Action Is Required
  • Injuring a Patient With Equipment
  • Improper Administration of Medication
194
Q

What is EMTALA

A
  • no patient with an emergency medical condition, unable to pay may be treated differently than patients who are covered by health insurance
  • Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
195
Q

What is the bill of rights for nursing?

A

nurse’s rights in the workforce

196
Q

What are 4 elements that must exist for malpractice

A
  1. Duty
  2. Breach of Duty
  3. Causation
  4. Harm/Injury
197
Q

What 2 components are mandatroy to report?

A
  1. communicable disease
  2. abuse
198
Q

Intentional Torts Relevant to Nursing

A
  • Confidentiality
  • False imprisonment
  • Assault and battery
  • Fraud
  • Invasion of privacy
199
Q

This is a term for a published false statement that is damaging to a person’s reputation

A

Libel/Slander

200
Q

What is flexion?

A

bending

201
Q

What is extension?

A

the straightening of a part

202
Q

What is abduction?

A

away from midline

203
Q

Pronation is?

A

inward roll of the foot

204
Q

supination

A

outward roll of the foot

205
Q

What are the steps for formulating a nursing diagnosis

A
  1. identify problem
  2. write diag statement
  3. validate
206
Q

What is a diagnostic label?

A

world/phrase represents a pattern of related cues. Describes the problem or wellness response

207
Q

What does ANA define in standards of Nursing?

A

ADOPIE

208
Q

What is the Colorado Nurse Practice Act?

A

evaluating health status thru the collection and asessment of health data

209
Q

What do you do if you make a mistake?

A
  • follow the policy/procedure of the facility
  • Never obliterate an entry or use white out
210
Q

It is important for nurses working with patients with a diagnosis of dementia to

A

adopt a common approach of care because these patients have consistency and sameness in their environment

211
Q

What is delirium?

A
  • An acute condition that have altered brain functioning
  • Reduction in cerebral functioning
  • sudden disturbance in consciousness or cognition
212
Q

What is dementia?

A

A clinical syndrome involving reduced intellectual functions with impairment in memory, language, visiospacial skills and cognition.

  • chronic/irreversible
213
Q

What is caregiver burden?

A

increased morbidity & mortality of caregivers and increased risk of LTC placement

214
Q

What are causes of delirium?

A
  • Fever
  • Infection
  • Allergic reaction
  • Vitamin deficiency
  • Drug toxicity
  • Malnutrition
  • Electrolytes
  • hypoxia
  • hypoglycemia
215
Q

Types of dementia?

A
  • Alzheimer’s Disease
  • Lewy body disease-hallucination, get worse w/meds
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Subdural hematoma-bloodclot in brain, stroke
  • Normal pressure hydrocephalus
  • Focal brain atrophy syndrome
  • Creutzfeldt Jakob disease-mad cow
216
Q

What tools can be used to measure dementia?

A

Blessed Scale and Clock Drawing tests

217
Q

What are nursing interventions for a dementia patient?

A
  • evaluate environmental and placement choices
  • Maintain safe environment
  • driving and occupational safety
  • long term financial and legal planning
218
Q

What would the prudent nurse

A
  • high level
  • picks up on subtle changes
219
Q

What is an intervention for delirium

A

take labs!

220
Q

What is the common cause of delirium for the elderly?

A

UTI

221
Q

NANDA for delirium

A

acute confusion, disturbed throught processes, interrupted family processes, risk for infection, acute pain, ineffecting coping,

222
Q

What is a common cause for alzheimers (dementia) of death?

A

aspirations pneumonia

223
Q

What are the steps for transferring a patient?

A
  1. high fowlers position, dizziness
  2. place a gait belt on the patient
  3. bring the patient to the edge of the bed and dangle their legs
  4. assist the patient to a standing position and transfer to the chair
224
Q

What does a “problem” suggest”

A

Client Goals

225
Q

What does etiology suggest?

A

interventions

226
Q

What do cue clusters suggest?

A
  • whether the correct nursing diagnosis has been identified
227
Q

What is focus charting?

A

Clients Concerns & Strengths

Nursing School (33 decks)

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