Exam 3 - Lymphatic and Respiratory Flashcards
1
Q
What is an immune system?
A
It is not an organ system but a cell population that inhabits all organs and defends the body from agents of disease
2
Q
What is the lymphatic system?
A
It is a network of organs and vein-like vessels that recover fluid, activate immune responses, inspect for disease agents, and return fluid to bloodstream
3
Q
What is the lymphatic fluid recovery system?
A
Fluid continually filters from the blood capillaries into the tissue spaces
4
Q
How much of the fluid goes into the lymphatic system?
A
15% (2 to 4 L/day) of the water and half the plasma proteins go into it and then are returned to the blood
5
Q
What is lymph and what does it look like?
A
The recovered fluid. It is a clear, colorless fluid that originates as extracellular fluid
6
Q
What are lymphatic vessels?
A
They are vessels that transport the lymph
7
Q
What are lymphatic tissues?
A
They are composed of aggregates of lymphocytes and macrophages that populate many organs in the body
8
Q
What are lymphatic organs?
A
Organs where defense cells are concentrated and are separated from surrounding organs by connective tissue capsules
9
Q
What are lymphatic capillaries (also known as terminal lymphatics)?
A
They penetrate nearly every tissue of the body where it is closed on one end and covered by endothelial cells.
10
Q
What doe lymphatic vessels do?
A
Converge into larger and larger vessels and have collecting vessels that go through many lymph nodes
11
Q
What do the 6 lymphatic trunks do?
A
Drain major portions of body
12
Q
What are the two collecting ducts?
A
Right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
13
Q
What does the right lymphatic duct do?
A
Receives lymph from right arm, right side of head and thorax; empties into right subclavian vein
14
Q
What does the thoracic duct do?
A
It is larger and longer; and begins in a sac in the abdomen where it receives lymph from below the diaphragm and left side of the body where it empties into the left subclavian vein.
15
Q
Where does most of the lymph go to?
A
The thoracic duct; it does the lower body and the left side of the upper body
16
Q
When does lymph flow?
A
At low pressure and slower speed then venous blood
17
Q
How is lymph moved through vessels?
A
Rhythmic contractions
18
Q
What is the flow of lymph?
A
1- aided by skeletal muscle pump
2- arterial pulsation rhythmically squeezes lymphatic vessels
3- thoracic pump aids flow from abdominal to thoracic cavity
4- Valves prevent backward flow
5- the rapid flowing blood in subclavian veins draws lymph into it
19
Q
What increases lymphatic return?
A
exercise
20
Q
What are natural killer (NK) cells?
A
Large lymphocytes
21
Q
What do NK cells do?
A
Attack and destroy bacteria, transplanted tissues, host cells that are infected, or turned cancerous
22
Q
Where are T lymphocytes (T cells) matured?
A
In the thymus
23
Q
What do B lymphocytes (B cells) do?
A
When activated causes proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells that then produce antibodies
24
Q
What are Macrophages?
A
Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
25
What do macrophages do?
Process foreign matter and display antigenic fragments to certain T cells that alert immune system
26
What are dendritic cells?
Branched mobile APCs
27
What do dendritic cells do?
Alert immune system to pathogens that have breached the body surface and migrate to lymph nodes to activate immune reaction
28
What are reticular cells?
Branched stationary cells
29
What are lymphatic nodules (follicles)?
Dense masses of lymphocytes and macrophages that congregate in response to pathogens
30
What does red bone marrow and thymus do to help the lymphatic system?
They are the site where T and B cells become immunocompetent
31
What does immunocompetent mean?
When the cells are able to recognize and respond to antigens
32
What are the primary lymphatic organs?
Red bone marrow and thymus
33
What are the secondary lymphatic organs?
Lymph nodes, tonsils, and spleen
34
What happens in the secondary lymphatic organs?
Immunocompetent cells populate these tissues
35
What is the thymus?
A bilobed organ that has fibrous capsule that divide the gland into several lobe; includes reticular epithelial cells tat seal off cortex from medulla
36
What are lymph nodes purpose?
Cleanse the lymph and act as a site of T and B cell activationW
37
What are the two vessels in lymph nodes?
Afferent lymphatic vessel and efferent lymphatic vessels
38
What does afferent lymphatic vessel do?
They lead into the node along its convex surface
39
What does efferent lymphatic vessel do?
The lymph will leave the node through them that leave the hilum
40
Does the lymph node fill up or drain faster?
It has 4 faucets but only 1 drain so it will go in quicker than it will leave
41
How many afferent lymphatic vessels and efferent lymphatic vessels do a single lymph node have?
1 efferent and 4 afferent
42
What are tonsils?
Patches of lymphatic tissue at the entrance to the pharynx
43
What do tonsils do?
Guard against ingested or inhaled pathogens
44
What are the 3 main sets of tonsils?
Palatine tonsils, lingual tonsils, and pharyngeal tonsils
45
Where are palatine tonsils?
At posterior margin of oral cavity
46
Where are lingual tonsils?
Pair at root of tongue
47
Where are pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)?
Single tonsil on wall of nasopharynx
48
What is the spleen?
The body's largest lymphatic organ
49
What does the spleen do?
Having RBC come and go, will kill the old and fragile RBC. The white pulp monitors blood from foreign antigen
50
What are the first line of defense?
Skin and mucous membranes
51
What are the second line of defense?
Several nonspecific defense mechanism
52
What are the third line of defense?
The immune system
53
What is nonspecific immunity?
What all humans are born with, so skin, mucous membranes, etc.
54
What are specific immunity?
Immunity that your body has learned so B and T cells
55
What does nonspecific defenses do?
They guard equally against a broad range of pathogens
56
What is specific or adaptive immunity?
When the body must develop separate immunity to each pathogen
57
What do neutrophils do?
Wandering connective tissue killing bacteria
58
How does neutrophils kill bacteria?
Produces a cloud of bactericidal chemicals and kills all around it and itself
59
What do eosinophils do?
Guard against parasites, allergens, and other pathogens
60
Where are eosinophils found?
Mainly in mucous membranes
61
How do eosinophils kill?
Promote action of basophils and mast cells; limit action of histamine and other inflammatory chemical
62
What do basophils do?
Secrete chemical that aid other leukocytes
63
What chemicals do basophils secrete?
Leukotrienes, histamine, and heparin
64
What does leukotrienes do?
Activate and attract neutrophils and eosinophils
65
What does histamine do?
A vasodilator, increases blood flow
66
What does heparin do?
Inhibits clot formation
67
What are the categories of lymphocytes?
T,B, and NK cells
68
What do monocytes do?
Transform into macrophages
69
What do wandering macrophages do?
Actively seek pathogens
70
What do fixed macrophages do?
It will phagocytize only pathogens that come to them
71
What are interferons?
They are secreted by certain cells that are infected by viruses
72
What does interferons do?
Activate NK cells and macrophages
73
What do NK cells do?
Bind to enemy cell, release perforins that create a hole in its plasma membrane, secrete granzymes that induce apoptosis
74
Why does our body create fevers?
To promote interferon activity and accelerates tissue repair
75
What do neutrophils do when you puncture yourself?
Release selectins to cause leukocytes to adhere to the blood vessel wall and release chemotaxis that attract chemicals to the injury site
76
What do monocytes do to tissue cleanup?
Main agents; engulf and destroy bacterial, damaged host cells, and dead/dying neutrophils
77
What are the two characteristics that distinguish immunity from nonspecific resistance?
Specificity - immunity directed against a particular pathogen
Memory - when reexposed to the same pathogen, the body reacts so quickly
78
What is cellular immunity?
When lymphocytes directly attack and destroy foreign cells, rids the body of pathogens, and kills cells that harbor them
79
What is humoral immunity?
Mediated by antibodies that do no directly destroy but tag the pathogen for destruction. Only works against extracellular stages of infections
80
What is natural active immunity?
When the production of one's own antibodies or T cells as a result of infection
81
What is artificial active immunity?
Production of ones own antibodies or T cells as a result of vaccination against disease
82
What is natural passive immunity?
Temporary immunity that results from antibodies produced by another person
83
What is artificial passive immunity?
Temporary immunity that results from the injection of immune serum from another person or animal
84
What are antigen?
Any molecule that triggers an immune response
85
What are epitopes?
Certain regions of an antigen molecule that stimulate immune responses
86
What is MH class 1 do?
It sits on the membrane of a cell, it will hold any antigen and alert the body if it's a foreign one.
87
What are Cytotoxic T cells?
Killer T cells that are effectors of cellular immunity; carry out the attacks
88
What are Helper T cells?
They promote the Tc cells and B cell action and nonspecific resistance
89
What are Regulatory T cells?
Inhibit multiplication and cytokine secretion by other T cells: limit immune response
90
What are memory T cells?
Descend from the cytotoxic T cells, responsible for memory in cellular immunity
91
What is the native lymphocyte pool?
Immunocompetent T cells that have not yet encountered foreign antigens
92
Where are B cells developed?
In the bone marrow
93
What does both B cells and T cells go through if they fail their test?
Anergy or clonal deletion
94
What do T cells need to find antigens?
Antigen-presenting cells because they cannot recognize antigens on their own
95
What determine the function of APCs?
The major histocompatibility (MHC) complex proteins
96
What does the MH class 2 show?
It will show if it is destroying the bacteria
97
What do Tc cells respond only to?
MHC-1 proteins
98
What do Th cells respond only to?
MHC-2 proteins
99
What happens when T cell is activated?
Costimulation will trigger clonal selection when the T cell goes through mitosis giving rise to identical T cells programmed against the same epitope; some become effector cells other become memory T cells.
100
What happens when a helper T cell recognizes the Ag-MHCP complex?
Secretes interleukins that attract Neutrophils, NK cells, macrophages, and stimulate T and B cell mitosis
101
What is immunoglobulin (Ig)?
an antibody that is a defensive gamma globulin
102
What are the actions of the immunoglobulin classes?
Neutralizing antigens, immobilizing bacteria, agglutinating and precipitating antigen, activating complement, and enhancing phagocytosis
103
When are the IgG and IgM released?
During the humoral immunity response
104
Which one is between IgG or IgM is better during the secondary response?
IgG
105
What is the function of respiration?
Gas exchange, communication, olfaction, and acid-base balance, blood pressure regulation, blood and lymph flow, blood filtration, and expulsion of abdominal contents
106
What does the air go through?
Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, then stop in the alveoli
107
What is the conducting division of the respiratory system?
No gas exchange, just passages that serve only for airflow, nostrils through major bronchioles.
108
What is the respiratory division?
Consist of alveoli and other gas exchange regions
109
What is the upper respiratory tract?
Nose, pharynx, then larynx
110
What is the lower respiratory tract?
Trachea, bronchi, then lungs
111
What are the functions of the nose?
Warms, cleans, and humidifies inhaled air; detects odors, amplifies voice
112
What are the three regions of the pharynx?
Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx
113
What is the function of the larynx?
To keep food and drink out of the airway
114
What is the epiglottis?
Flap of tissue that guards the superior opening of the larynx
115
What are the first three large cartilage of the larynx?
Epiglottic, thyroid, and cricoid
116
Where is the thyroid cartilage?
Adam's apple
117
What does the cricoid cartilage do?
Connects larynx to trachea
118
What are the 3 smaller cartilage of the larynx?
Arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform
119
Where is the arytenoid cartilage?
Posterior to thyroid cartilage (2)
120
Where is the corniculate cartilage?
Attached to arytenoid, looks like horns (2)
121
Where is the cuneiform cartilage?
Support tissue between arytenoids and epiglottis (2)
122
What is the function of the trachea?
allows room for the esophagus to expand and contracts or relaxes to adjust airflow
123
What is tracheostomy?
To make a temporary opening in the trachea and insert a tube to allow airflow
124
What are the parts of the lungs?
The base, apex, costal surface, and mediastinal surface
125
What is different about the right lung?
It is shorter then left because the liver is higher on the right - has three lobes, separated by horizontal and oblique fissure
126
What is different about the left lung?
Tall and narrow because the heart, has a cardiac impression - 2 lobed and separated by a oblique fissure
127
What are the regions of the bronchi?
It splits by the carina into the two main (primary) bronchi. Then the lobar (secondary) bronchi will branch off which then gets branched off into the segmental (tertiary) bronchi
128
How many lobar do the left and right sides have?
The right have 3 and left has 2 (like lobes)
129
How many segmental bronchi are on each side?
10 on right and 8 on left
130
What are bronchioles?
The final branches of conducting division which then divided into a lot of terminal bronchioles.
131
What are respiratory bronchioles?
The beginning of the respiratory division which then divide into alveolar ducts
132
What are the squamous (type 1) alveolar cells?
Thin broad cells that allow for rapid gas diffusion. Cover 95%
133
What are the great (type 2) alveolar cells?
Round to cuboidal cells that cover 5%, repair when the type 1 is damaged. also secrete pulmonary surfactant
134
What are the alveolar macrophages cells?
Most numerous and keep alveoli free from debris by phagocytizing dust particles
135
What is the respiratory membrane?
Thin barrier between the alveolar air and blood
136
What does the respiratory membrane consist of?
Squamous alveolar cells, endothelial cells, and shared basement membrane
137
How does oxygen move across the alveoli?
Through facilitated diffusion
138
What is the visceral pleura?
Serous membrane that covers lungs
139
What is parietal pleura?
Inner surface of rib cage and superior surface of the diaphragm
140
What are the functions of pleura and pleural fluid?
Reduce friction, create pressure gradient (lower pressure than atmospheric pressure), and compartmentalization (prevents spread of infection)
141
From superficial to deep, the order of the layers of the lungs?
Ribs - parietal pleura, pleural cavity (fluid), then visceral pleura - lung
142
What is the diaphragm?
The prime mover of respiration, 2/3 of airflow
143
What does contraction do the the diaphragm?
Flattens it by enlarging thoracic cavity and pulling air into lungs
144
What does relaxation do to the diaphragm?
Allows it do bulge upward, compressing the lungs and expelling air
145
What do the internal external intercostal muscles do during respiratory?
They stiffen the thoracic cage and prevent it from caving inwards when diaphragm descends; 1/3 airflow.
146
What is normal quiet expiration?
An energy-saving passive process achieved by the elasticity of the lungs and thoracic cage
147
What is forced expiration?
Greatly increased abdominal pressure pushes viscera up against diaphragm increasing thoracic pressure
148
What is Valsalva maneuver?
Taking a deep breath, holding it by closing the glottis, then contracting the abdominal muscles to raise abdominal pressure and push organ contents out - vomiting, childbirth
149
What is respiratory airflow proportional to?
The pressure difference between two points
150
What drives respiration?
Atmospheric pressure
151
What is Boyle's law?
At a constant temp, the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume
152
What is intrapleural pressure?
The slightly negative pressure that exists between the two pleural layers (the -5)
153
What is Charles's law?
That volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature
154
What happens during quiet breathing?
The dimensions of the thoracic cage increases only a few millimeters in each direction
155
What is relaxed breathing?
The passive process achieved mainly by elastic recoil of the thoracic cage, recoil compresses the lungs and volume of thoracic cavity decreases
156
What is forced breathing?
Accessory muscles raise the intrapulmonary pressure as high as +40
157
What is Pneumothorax?
Presence of air in pleural cavity, loss of negative intrapleural pressure allows lungs to recoil and collapse
158
What is broncodilation?
When there is an increase in diameter of bronchus or bronchiole - increased airflow
159
What causes the dilation of the bronchioles?
Epinephrine and sympathetic stimulation
160
What is bronchoconstriction?
Decrease in diameter of bronchus or bronchiole - decreased airflow
161
What caused bronchoconstriction?
Histamine, parasympathetic nerves, suffocation
162
What is pulmonary compliance?
Ease with which the lungs can expand
163
What limits pulmonary compliance?
Surface tension of the water film inside alveoli
164
What is anatomic dead space?
Conducting division of airway where there is no gas exchange, altered somewhat by sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation
165
What is the tidal respiratory volume?
Volume of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle
166
What is inspiratory reserve volume?
Air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort
167
What is expiratory reserve volume?
Air in excess of tidal volume that can be exhaled with maximum effort
168
What is residual volume?
Air remaining in lungs after maximum expiration
169
What is vital capacity?
Total amount of air that can be inhaled and then exhaled with maximum effort
170
What is the formula to solve vital capacity?
VC= ERV +TV+IRV
171
What is inspiratory capacity?
The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration
172
What is the formula of inspiratory capacity?
IC = TV + IRV
173
What is functional residual capacity?
Amount of air remaining in lungs after a normal tidal expiration
174
What is the formula of functional residual capacity?
FRC = RV + ERV
175
What is the formula lung capacity?
TLC = RV + VC
176
What is the total lung capacity?
Maximum amount of air the lungs can contain
177
What is Dalton's law?
Total atmospheric pressure is the sum of the contributions of the individual gases
178
What is Henry's law?
At the air-water interface, for a given temperature, the amount of gas that dissolves in the water is determined by its solubility in water and its partial pressure in air
179
What does "loaded" mean?
Something going into the blood
180
What is the pressure gradient of CO2?
PCO2 = 46 mmHg in blood arriving vs 40 mm Hg in alveolar air
180
What is the pressure gradient of oxygen?
PO2 = 104 mm Hg is alveolar air vs 40 mmHg in blood
181
What is the relationship with surface area and diffusion?
They are proportional
182
What does membrane thickness do?
Presents little obstacle to diffuse
183
What does a thicker membrane do?
Gases have farther to travel between blood and air
184
How does oxygen transport?
98.5% bound to hemoglobin and the rest dissolved in plasma
185
How does carbon dioxide transport?
90% is hydrated to form carbonic acid, 5% is bound to proteins and 5% is dissolved as a gas in plasma
186
How does carbon dioxide exchange?
70% of CO2 comes from carbonic acid, 23% comes from proteins, and 7% comes straight from plasma
187
What is oxyhemoglobin?
When O2 bound to hemoglobin
188
How many globins does each Hb molecule consist of?
4
189
What does globin bind to?
CO2
190
What is the formula of CO2 coming into the blood?
Carbon dioxide comes in and binds with water to from carbonic acid, then it is dissociated into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.
191
What two bind to the heme site on the hemoglobin?
Oxygen and carbon monoxide
192
What causes the CO2 and H2O to form carbonic acid?
Carbonic anhydrase
193
What pushes the carbonate into the plasma?
The Cl- shift
194
Where does the H+ go after being dissociated from carbonic acid?
It will bind to the oxyhemoglobin causing a release of oxygen and deoxyhemoglobin going back into the blood
195
How does the alveolar gas exchange mainly work?
Oxygen in the alveolar air will get a high concentration and take the H off the HHb causing it to then bind back with the carbonate and do the same formula as the systemic.
196
What does CO2 do to pH levels?
It produces H making the pH lower
197
What is acidosis?
When the blood pH is lower then 7.35
198
What is alkalosis?
When the blood pH is higher then 7.45
199
What is hypocapnia?
When the pressure of CO2 is less them 37 mmHg, it is caused by alkalosis
200
What is hypercapnia?
When the pressure of CO2 is greater then 43 mmHg, caused by acidosis
201
Why do we hyperventilate?
It is a corrective homeostatic response to acidosis
202
Why do we hypoventilate?
It is a corrective homeostatic response to alkalosis
203
How does CO2 affect respiration?
It has indirect effects, through pH
204
What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
Long-term obstruction of airflow and substantial reduction in pulmonary ventilation
205
What is chronic bronchitis?
Severe, persistent inflammation of lower respiratory tract
206
What happens during chronic bronchitis?
Production of excess mucus that causes bacterial growth and can cause a chronic cough
207
What is Emphysema?
When the alveolar walls break down which causes less respiratory membrane for gas exchange
208
What happens to the lungs during emphysema?
They become flabby and cavitated with large spaces
209
What happens do the air passages in emphysema?
They collapse, air gets trapped in lungs and the person becomes barrel-chested, then weakens thoracic muscles
210
What does COPD cause?
Hypoxemia, Hypercapnia, and respiratory acidosis
211
What is Cor pulmonale?
Hypertrophy and potential failure of the right heart due to obstruction of pulmonary circulation
