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Micro > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Diseases are caused by transferable spore like (“seeds”) particles that could transmit infection (who?)

A

Fracastoro

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2
Q

Father of microbiology that 1st described microbes and invented microscope (who?)

A

Van Leeuwenhoek

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3
Q

Hand washing prevents childbirth fever (who?)

A

Semmelweis

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4
Q

Developed antiseptic in surgery (who?)

A

Lister

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5
Q

Disproved spontaneous generation. Also germ theory

A

Pasteur

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6
Q

Awarded Nobel prize for work on TB

A

Koch

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7
Q

Koch’s postulates (4)

A 
Organism must be:
1 - found in all cases
2 - isolated and maint. in pure culture
3 - capable of reproducing infection
4 - retrieved from inoculated animal and recultured
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8
Q

What is unique about prokaryotes?

A

Do not have membrane bound organelles

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9
Q

Coccus is what shape

A

Circle/sphere

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10
Q

Bacillus are what shap

A

Rod

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11
Q

Spirillum are what shape

A

Spiral

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12
Q

Coccobacillus are what shape

A

Rod-shaped with round ends

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13
Q

Capsule or slime layer of bacteria is called

A

Glycocalyx

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14
Q

Gram positive exterior cell structure, color, charge

A
  • Thick peptidoglycan layer surrounding cell membrane
  • Stain purple
  • Contain technical acids which create negative charge
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15
Q

Gram negative outer cell structure, and color and any other defining features

A
  • Thin peptidoglycan layer surrounds cell membrane
  • outer membrane (OM) surrounds peptidoglycan layer
  • lipopolysaccharaide (LPS) embedded in OM composed of lipid A and O specific polysaccharide = endotoxins
  • lipid A is toxic portion of LPS
  • stain pink
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16
Q

Acid fast bacteria cell structure, color:

A

Cell wall with high lipid content that resists Gram staining

Note: requires unique dyes and heat to stain

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17
Q

Mycobacterium

A

Genus in which all species are acid-fast

E.g. M. Tuberculosis and M. Leprae

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18
Q

Cells that have NO cell wall exhibit a _______ cell structure because of a high ____________ content

A

Rigid; sterol

Sterol = waxy solids

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19
Q

Plasma membrane is the site of what activity

A

Oxidative phosphorylation for ATP synthesis

NOTE: only aerobic species (use O2)

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20
Q

Where are the enzymes that are used for DNA replication in a bacteria?

A

Cell membrane

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21
Q

What extrudes from cell membrane and acts as receptors in cell metabolism and cell communication?

A

Proteins

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22
Q

What is a mesome?

A

Invagination of cytoplasmic membrane that can form into vesicles and plays possible role in cell division

Also increases surface area

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23
Q

What is periplasmic space

A

Space between inner and outer membranes in Gram negative cells

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24
Q

What structures are the cytoplasm of bacteria?

A

Nucleiod
Plasmid (DNA)
Ribosomes
Storage granules

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25
Q

Region of bacteria cell containing DNA is called what

A

Nucleiod

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26
Q

Is there a nuclear membrane?

A

No

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27
Q

Structure inside the cell that is small extrachromosomal DNA with autonomous replication

A

Plasmid

Note: plasmids can be transferred between cells during conjugation and often carry antibiotic resistance genes

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28
Q

Organelles composed of ribosomal RNA and protein and are sites of protein synthesis are called what

A

Ribosomes

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29
Q

External structures of bacteria include

A

Flagella
Pili (aka fimbriae)
Capsule - slime layer, Glycocalyx
Endospore

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30
Q

What external structure of cell is used for locomotion

A

Flagella

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31
Q

Counterclockwise rotation of flagella produces ___ motion while clockwise rotation produces ___

A

Forward; tumbling

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32
Q

What serves as adherence factors on the external structure of a bacteria?

A

Pili/fimbrae

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33
Q

2 types of pili

A

1 - sex pili, transfer plasmids

2 - attachment pili, shorter, slow cell to attach to surfaces e.g. host tissue

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34
Q

What is a unique dormant cell type produced by some bacteria in response to adverse conditions?

A

Endospore

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35
Q

What is sporlation?

A

When conditions are not favorable cell forms endospore

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36
Q

What is germination

A

When conditions are favorable, returns to metabolically active cell (vegetative)

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37
Q

Why are endospores important (3)?

A

1 - allow cell to survive harsh environmental conditions
2 - high virulence factor (resistant to high temps e.g. boiling)
3 - play roll in botulism, tetanus, gangrene, anthrax

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38
Q

Father of taxonomy, classification system with 2 kingdoms (who?)

A

Linneaus

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39
Q

Classification system with 6 kingdoms (who?)

A

Woese

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40
Q

3 domain system due to comparison of DNA sequence. Name the 3

A

Bacteria
Archaea
Eukarya

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41
Q

Bacterial nomenclature:

King Puffs Chest. Oozing Footballs Gambles SavingS

A 
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
Strain
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42
Q

What morphological characteristics (5) serve as identification markers for bacteria?

A
  • Colony characteristics (what does the community look like?)
  • Shape of cell
  • Capsule? endospore?
  • Staining (G+, G- or neither)
  • Flagella - movement? (And arrangement of it)
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43
Q

Other than morphological characteristics, what are other ways (7) to tell bacteria apart from each other?

A

Biochemical testing - test for substrates e.g. sugars

Molecular taxonomy - size of genome, protein similarity, etc

Diagnostic molecular pathology

Polymerase chain reaction

Immunological tests -serotype indicates if it possesses specific set of antigens

Bacteriophage typing

Antibiotic sensitivity testing

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44
Q

An organism’s ______ indicates that it possesses a specific set of antigens

A

Serotype (immunological testing)

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45
Q

What is bacteriophage typing?

A

Phage is a virus that infects bacterium. Phages are host specific, so if you figure out what phage can infect a microbe, you can deduce the bacteria involved

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46
Q

Energy source of bacteria?

A

ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

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47
Q

Catabolism

A

Breakdown of carb, lipid, protein

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48
Q

Anabolism

A

Synthesis of cellular components

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49
Q

What metabolism of glucose occurs in the presence or absence of oxygen and 1 molecule of glucose is converted to 2 molecules of pyruvate?

A

Glycolysis

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50
Q

TCA cycle results in a net gain of:

A

2 ATP
6 NADH
2 FADH2

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51
Q

Glycolysis results in a net gain of

A

2 ATP

2 NADH

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52
Q

The final e- acceptor is what?

A

Oxygen

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53
Q

The use of reducing power of NADH and FADH2 to synth ATP is called

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

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54
Q

Chemiosmotic theory

A

ATP is synthesized as a result of proton motive force generated by passing electrons along e- transport chain

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55
Q

Aerobic respiration

A

Process of transferring e- from NADH and FADH2 to oxygen

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56
Q

Anaerobic respiration

A

Without O2, e- transferred to an inorganic terminal electron acceptor such as sulfur

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57
Q

Accumulations of highly molecular weight polymers that store glycogen and other energy resources are called

A

Storage granules

AKA inclusion bodies AKA granular inclusions

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58
Q

Fermentation

A

Absence of O2, e- transferred to organic terminal electron acceptor

Note: fermentation is used by organisms that can’t respire

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59
Q

What is the ATP yield from catabolism of glucose in aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation?

A

Aerobic respiration = 38 ATP
Anaerobic respiration = 30 or less ATP
Fermentation = 2-4 ATP

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60
Q

What temperature do psychrophiles prefer?

A

-5 to 15˚ C

Psychro means “cold”

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61
Q

What temperature do mesophiles prefer?

A

25 - 45˚ C

E.g. E. Coli, in other words… they like human body temp which is 37˚C

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62
Q

Human body temp in C

A

37˚

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63
Q

What temperature do thermophiles prefer?

A

45 to 70˚C

E.g. hot springs and compost heaps

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64
Q

What temperature do hyperthermophiles prefer?

A

Over 70˚C

E.g. hot springs, boiling water

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65
Q

Oxygen requirement between obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, microaerophiles and aerotolerant anaerobes

A 
Obligate aerobes: need O2
Obligate anaerobes: killed if O2
Facultative anaerobes: better if O2 is around, but survives if not
Microaerophiles: require small amt O2
Aerotolerant anaerobes: indifferent
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66
Q

Toxic derivatives of oxygen?

A

Superoxide
Hydrogen peroxide
OH

67
Q

What requires O2 as final electron acceptor and uses O2 to generate energy?

A

Obligate aerobes

68
Q

What uses fermentation or anaerobic respiration in absence of O2 AND will die in O2 environment?

A

Obligate Anaerobes

69
Q

What grows best in O2 but can grow without it?

A

Facultative anaerobe

70
Q

What requires small amounts of O2 to perform aerobic respiration?

A

Microaerophiles microbes

71
Q

What can grow in the presence of O2 but does not use it for energy and uses fermentation (instead of aerobic or anaerobic respiration)?

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

72
Q

What lives and multiplies from pH 5-8

A

Neutrophils

73
Q

What lives and multiplies at pH below 5.5?

A

Acidophiles

74
Q

What lives and multiplies at or above pH 8.5?

A

Alkalophile

75
Q

Osmotolerant bacteria

A

Tolerant of high salt environments (up to 10%)

76
Q

What requires high levels of salt to live and multiply more than 10%?

A

Halophiles

77
Q

A population of organisms descended from a single cell and separate from all other species

A

Pure cultures

78
Q

Agar-agar is derived from what

A

Seaweed

79
Q

Koch’s lab assistant created dishes that agar-agar is in, name

A

Petri dishes // Julius Richards Petri

80
Q

After a bacterial cell gets big and duplicates itself, then it divides. This is called

A

Binary fission

It’s asexual cell division that happens frequently.

81
Q

3 steps of binary fission

A
  1. Mesosome partitioned
  2. Septum
  3. 2 daughter genomes
82
Q

Time it takes for a population to double in number is the

A

Generation time

83
Q

Bacterial growth in laboratory conditions: in a closed system the population growth follows a pattern of stages called a

A

Growth curve

84
Q

4 phases of growth curve

A
  1. Lag phase (latent) — “ramp up,” recruiting macromolecules & ATP
  2. Exponential phase (log) — cells divide all day, ‘er day
  3. Stationary phase — cells ate all their food and are chilling
  4. Death phase — population dies as they realize they really have no more food
85
Q

How can you measure growth (2)

A
  1. Count them directly with microscope and hemacytometer

2. Count them indirectly with serial dilution

86
Q

What is composed of 4 nucleotides? And what are the nucleotides?

A

DNA

Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine

87
Q

What are the DNA nucleotide pairs?

A

A-T adenine-thymine
G-C guanine-cytosine

(Recall this is different from RNA which substitutes Uracil in place of Thymine)

88
Q

A set of 3 nucleotides on a single strand (codon) encodes a specific

A

Amino acid

89
Q

Replication of DNA begins at nucleotide sequence called

A

Ori

AKA Replication origin

90
Q

Because replication goes in [____’ to _____’] direction on a DNA strand, it results in one strand being synthesized continuously called the ____________ strand. The strand that is synthesized discontinuously in pieces is called the ________ strand, and the pieces are referred to as _________ fragments.

A

5’ to 3’
Leading strand
Lagging strand
Okazaki fragments

91
Q

How does gene expression work (central dogma)?

A

DNA —> RNA —> protein

Information passes from the genes to the RNA copy of the gene and the RNA copy directs the sequential assembly of a chain of amino acids.

92
Q

RNA nucleotides are what?

A

A-U Adenine-Uracil
G-C Guanine-Cytosine

(Recall this is different from DNA which has Thymine instead of Uracil)

93
Q

RNA moves along DNA to create ____ which is complementary to

A

mRNA; DNA

New mRNA is moved to ribosomes for translation.

94
Q

Translation stops when RNA polymerase reaches

A

Stop signal on DNA

95
Q

What is the process of synthesizing proteins that occurs more or less simultaneously with transcription? And where does this process happen?

A

Process: Translation
Location: Ribosomes

96
Q

At the beginning of a gene called a _______, mRNA start doing its thing.

A

Promoter

97
Q

Want to be able to switch on/off transcription. This is controlled by what? (This is unique to bacteria)

A

Operon

This is a group of genes that includes an operator, common promoter, 1+ structural genes that are controlled as a unit to produce mRNA

In humans, we have 1 promoter for each gene. Bacteria have 1 promoter for many genes.

98
Q

What is an operon (group of genes - 3) in bacteria?

A
  • operator
  • common promoter
  • 1+ structural genes that are controlled as a unit to produce mRNA
99
Q

Bacteria frequently have 1+ gene encoded on 1 RNA using only 1 promoter, why?

A

Because transcription and translation are tightly linked

100
Q

Operators/operons come in 2 flavors:

A
  • Inducible operons: always OFF, must be turned ON

- Repressible: always ON must be turned OFF

101
Q

Amino acids are assembled into growing ________ _______ that, when folded, make a protein.

A

Polypeptide chain

102
Q

Inducible operon requires ________ to prevent a _________ protein from binding to operator.

A

inducer; repressor

And repressible operon requires the operator be bound by a repressor.

103
Q

How do end products affect enzymes early in the gene transcription pathway to prevent production of end product?

A

Feedback inhibition

104
Q

Spontaneous mutations vs induced mutations

A

Spontaneous mutations:
Not very common. Happens naturally.

Induced mutations:
— common, they are linked to UV light or radiation or exposure to chemical

105
Q

What is the spontaneous mutation that involves an incorrect base being incorporated into the DNA during replication?

A

Base substitutions

Can lead to:

  • point mutation (just 1 base is changed)
  • missense mutation (substitution of different a.a. in protein) or
  • nonsense (creates stop codon instead of a.a.)
106
Q

What is the spontaneous mutation that involves removal or addition of nucleotides?

A

Deletion and insertion

107
Q

In spontaneous deletion/insertion mutation, the risk is that you shift the condones/sequence and end up with a different mRNA and a different amino acid. This is called

A

Frameshift mutant

108
Q

What is the spontaneous mutation where a segment of DNA spontaneously jumps from 1 site to another in the same OR different DNA molecules?

A

Transposons

AKA jumping genes

109
Q

What are the (2) induced mutations?

A

Chemical mutagens — alters binding of DNA molecule

Radiation — UV (causes thymine dimers) and X-Ray (causes single and double stranded breaks in DNA)

110
Q

What are the 3 types of spontaneous mutation base substitutions? Describe what happens in each.

A

Point mutation: 1 base change
Missense mutation: change out amino acid
Nonsense mutation: creates stop codon

111
Q

UV light causes what?

A

Thymine dimers

112
Q

X-ray causes what

A

Single and double stranded breaks in DNA

113
Q

How do bacteria repair mutations (2)? Describe

A

Bacteria employ mismatch (excision repair) as well as SOS repair

Excision involves an enzyme cutting the damage DNA strand out and repairing the gap and then a ligase seals the “scar tissue” nick.

SOS repair is used for severely damaged DNA. It involves skipping over the damaged DNA

114
Q

How best to study mutants?

A

Induce mutation and study specific types

115
Q

Nutritional mutants: cells that grow without added growth factors

A

Prototroph

Proto “first”
Trophos “feeder”

self sufficient

116
Q

Nutritional mutants: cells that grow ONLY WITH added growth factors from the lab

A

Auxotrophs

Auxillium “help”
Trophos “feeder”

117
Q

Conditional lethal mutants are mutants defective for the synthesis of

A

Essential macromolecule under specific conditions (e.g. temperature)

118
Q

Griffith noticed that some unknown compound was transforming bacterial cells and thus, transformation. Explain the phenomenon and what transformation is, as demonstrated by Griffith.

A

The unknown substance that was transforming bacterial cells was DNA.

So DNA is “naked” in the cell. When cell dies the DNA is released and taken up by recipient cells which causes a change in that 2nd cell.

119
Q

Recipient cells that take up DNA must be described as

A

Competent

120
Q

Many populations are naturally competent during what phase of growth?

A

Log phase (phase 2, exponential phase)

121
Q

How can competence be induced (2)

Hint: think (1) chemically and (2) mechanically

A

CaCl2 treatment

Electrical current: electroporation

122
Q

Conjugation requires contact. DNA transferred in 2 ways

A

1 - plasmid DNA

2 - chromosomal DNA

123
Q

What is the process whereby transfer of bacterial genes from cell to cell via a bacteriophage?

A

Transduction

124
Q

Bacteriophages can interact with cells in 2 ways

A

Lytic

Lysogenic

125
Q

Lytic cells

A

Virus attaches to host and injects DNA. Sometimes they get right into the cell. Good guy host gets taken over by virus and will make a ton of viruses. So many virus bodies inside the host that the host cell bursts and dies… “avenge me!”

126
Q

Lysogenic cycle

A

Zombies.

Does the same thing As lytic cycle in the beginning. However, this time the genetic material stays hidden. The good guy host unknowingly makes new cells with their own PLUS the virus’s genetics. And then the virus turns the switch ON and all the Sleeper Hosts turn into zombies.

127
Q

There is lytic and lysogenic, so there are 2 possibilities for transduction. What are they?

A

Generalized — during production of making new viruses accidents happen. Sometimes only bacterial DNA is packaged. Still infects cells, but its just more bacterial DNA — nothing else happens.

Specialized — phage packages both viral AND bacterial chromosomal DNA. It packages specific chromosomal DNA near where the viral DNA integrated during lysogenic phase.

128
Q

In generalized transduction, the phage serves as a

A

DNA vector (carries DNA)

129
Q

What is the use of biological techniques to solve practical problems and produce useful products?

A

Biotech

130
Q

Infection that literally means “brought forth by a healer”

A

Iatrogenic

Used to refer illness caused by or resulting from medical treatment

Iatros means “physician”

131
Q

What kind of infection is a result of treatment in a hospital but is secondary to patient’s original condition?

A

Nosocomial infection

Nosokomos “person who tends the sick”

132
Q

Sources of iatrogenic/nosocomial infection (3)

A

Touching people, blood, etc (direct)
Fomites (indirect)
Airborne transmission (indirect)

133
Q

Ways to prevent and control iatrogenic/nosocomial infection (3)?

A

Disinfection/treatment with antiseptics
Hand washing
Monitoring patient population

134
Q

Absence of all life

A

Sterilization

135
Q

Killing/removing pathogens

A

Disinfection

136
Q

Disinfectant applied to tissue

A

Antiseptic

137
Q

Substance that kills/removes only bacteria

A

Bactericide

138
Q

Severe infection leading to systemic immune response

A

Sepsis

139
Q

Using aseptic technique

A

Asepsis

Aseptic techniques are employed to avoid microbial contamination E.g. boiling

140
Q

Inhibition of microbe growth

A

Microbiostasis

141
Q

Range of activity against microbes

A

Spectrum

mass murder

142
Q

Drugs tested to determine lowest concentration at that inhibits microbe-called MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

A

Activity

143
Q

Use of 1+ antibiotic to increase spectrum or killing effect

A

Combination therapy

144
Q

Increased killing effect by using multiple antibiotics

A

Synergism

145
Q

1 antibiotic interferes with action of another

A

Antagonism

146
Q

Methods of sterilization (absence of all life)

A

Moist heat — steam, boiling water
Autoclave — steam with pressure
Dry heat — flame, oven

147
Q

There are 5 classes of antibiotics, what are they?

A
  • Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
  • Inhibitors of cell membrane
  • Inhibitors of protein synthesis
  • Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis
  • Antimetabolites
148
Q

Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis work by

A

Preventing cross-linking of peptidogycan by binding to enzyme receptor sites

149
Q

Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis (5)

A 
Penicillin
Cephalosporins
Bacitracin
Vancomycin
Isomiazid
150
Q

Inhibitors of cell wall membrane (1) and how does it work

A

Polymyxin B & E; replace Mg2+ and Ca2+ from membrane lipids and distrusts structure of bacterial cell membrane

151
Q

Inhibitors of protein synthesis (4)

A

Streptomycin
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin

152
Q

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis (2)

A

Rifampin — used for TB

Quinolones

153
Q

Antimetabolites (1)

A

Sulfonamides ( Sulfa drugs)

E.g. used to treat mycobacterium leprae (leprosy)

154
Q

Clinical problems with antibiotic use (5)

A
  • symptoms cease, infection continues
  • affects normal flora
  • microbes become resistant
  • toxicity possible
  • sensitization - develop rashes, fever, anaphylaxis
155
Q

What part of a bacteria enables it to survive harsh environmental conditions and makes it have a high virulence factor?

A

Endospores

High virulence means resistant to high temps e.g. boiling

156
Q

How much O2 do microaerophiles require? What what does higher concentrations do?

A

2-10%; inhibit

157
Q

What kind of mutant is defective for the synthesis of an essential macromolecule under specific conditions (e.g. temperature)?

A

Conditional lethal mutants

158
Q

What would you induce in a bacterial cell if you gave it either a CaCl2 treatment or electrical current (e.g. electrophoration)

A

Competence in a recipient cell to be able to take up DNA

159
Q

What antibiotic initially fights Staphylococcus aureus through cell wall synthesis?

A

Vancomycin

Damages kidney, nerve deafness, skin rashes, thrombophlebitis

160
Q

What antibiotic is active against mycobacteria only through inhibition of cell wall synthesis?

A

Isoniazid

Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids in cell walls of mycobacteria

161
Q

What “vixen” bacteria replaces Mg2+ and Ca2+ from membrane lipids disrupting the structure of bacterial cell membrane?

A

Polymyxin B and E

Topical use only because its so toxic

162
Q

What antimetabolite is a precursor to antibiotics, antimicrobial agents derived from sulfonic acid?

A

Sulfonamides (sulfa drugs)

163
Q

What antimetabolite inhibits folic acid synthesis?

A

Sulfa drugs

Micro (19 decks)

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