Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease primarily affects the:

a. Heart
b. Kidneys
c. Lungs
d. Brain
A

c. Lungs

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2
Q

Gastric cancer is a neoplastic growth in what organ?

a. Intestines
b. Kidneys
c. Stomach 
d. Esophagus
A

c. Stomach

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3
Q

Hepatic steatosis describes which of the conditions below?

a. Fatty liver disease
b. Decreased liver blood flow
c. Stomach narrowing 
d. Narrowing of liver blood vessels
A

a. Fatty liver disease

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4
Q

Fossa means:

a. Hole or opening
b. Trench or ditch 
c. One quadrillionth 
d. Poison
A

b. Trench or ditch

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5
Q

Which of the following growths are malignant?

a. Hamartoma
b. Choristoma
c. Papilloma 
d. Sarcoma
A

d. Sarcoma

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6
Q

The difference between metaplasia and true neoplastic growth is that:

a. Metaplastic growth reverts to normal when the stress is removed
b. Metaplastic growth is poorly differentiated
c. Metaplastic invades the tissue unlike neoplastic growth 
d. There is no difference between metaplasia and neoplasia
A

a. Metaplastic growth reverts to normal when the stress is removed

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7
Q

A mutation in one of Edison’s microRNA genes makes the miRNA able to bind to p53 mRNA. Now, Edison is a higher risk of cancer because his cells have:

a. Reduced expression of a tumor suppressor gene
b. Increased expression of a tumor suppressor gene
c. Overexpression of oncogenes
d. Reduced expression of oncogenes
A

a. Reduced expression of a tumor suppressor gene

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8
Q

Eleanor had a pap smear and there results indicated that she has cervical dysplasia. What do those results mean?

a. Eleanor has a benign tumor that can easily be removed
b. Eleanor has a malignant cancer and needs treatment
c. Eleanor has some cellular changes that may develop into cancer
d. Eleanor’s Pap results are normal
A

c. Eleanor has some cellular changes that may develop into cancer

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9
Q

Edwin has been diagnosed with lung cancer. His oncologist has ordered an MRI of his brain as well as his lungs. What hallmark of cancer causes Edwin’s physician to order that MRI?

a. Evading apoptosis
b. Self-sufficiency in growth signals
c. Sustained and abiogenesis
d. Invasion and metastasis
A

d. Invasion and metastasis

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10
Q

What must cancer cells do to survive when they metastasize and begin to grow into a large tumor at a new site?

a. Establish a blood supply 
b. Differentiate to match the new tissue
c. Enter the lymphatic system 
d. Turn on telomerase
A

a. Establish a blood supply

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11
Q

Thyroid hyperplasia happens when the body perceived an increase in functional need. If the body no longer perceives the need, the thyroid returns to its normal size. This phenomenon happens happens because thyroid function is controlled by:

a. Cyclins
b. A negative feedback loop
c. Contact inhibition 
d. Growth factor-inhibiting microRNAs
A

b. A negative feedback loop

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12
Q

Which of the following classes of proteins puts “brakes” on the cell cycle?

a. Growth factors
b. Cyclins
c. CDKIs
d. Signal transuding proteins
A

c. CDKIs

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13
Q

Tumor progression occurs because:

a. Selective pressures act on tumor cells
b. Genomic instability increases over time
c. Subclones that have advantageous mutations outcompete others 
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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14
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with HBV and HCV infection?

a. Gastric
b. Hepatic
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma
d. Cervical cancer
A

b. Hepatic

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15
Q

Fever seen in cancer patients is caused by cytokines released by cancer cells and macrophages activated by the presence of the cancer. Which of the following cytokines would cause fever?

a. IL-2 and IL-4
b. TGF-β and TGF-α
c. IL-1 and TNF-α
d. FGF and VEGF
A

c. IL-1 and TNF-α

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16
Q

The incidence of Klinefelter’s syndrome has been related to parental exposure to radiation and:

a. Paternal age
b. Maternal age
c. Incomplete penetrance
d. Point mutations
A

b. Maternal age

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17
Q

PKU has complete penetrance and the frequency for male and females to present with the mutant phenotype is equal. Offspring may express the phenotype even if neither parent does. What type of inheritance pattern does PKU follow?

a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-linked recessive
d. Mitochondrial
A

b. Autosomal recessive

18
Q

Which of the following alpha-1antitrypsin genotypes would have the worst phenotype?

a. MS
b. SZ
c. MM
d. ZZ
A

d. ZZ

19
Q

Which of the following disorders is caused by a loss of catabolic enzyme in the lysosome?

a. Huntington’s disease
b. Galactosemia
c. Myclonic epilepsy 
d. Tay-Sach’s disease
A

d. Tay-Sach’s disease

20
Q

Which metabolic pathway is disrupted when GALT is mutated?

a. Galactose metabolism 
b. Ganglioside catabolism 
c. Phenylalanine metabolism 
d. Hemoglobin formation
A

a. Galactose metabolism

21
Q

What is the result of a nonsense mutation?

a. Premature stop codon 
b. Change in amino acid
c. Change in reading frame
d. Trisomy
A

a. Premature stop codon

22
Q

Mutations in the gene for Factor VIII result in which condition below?

a. Abnormal bleeding 
b. Epileptic seizures
c. Sleep apnea
d. Leukemia
A

a. Abnormal bleeding

23
Q

Bill has an aneurysm that was the result of a problem during his embryonic development. The developmental issue was not caused by any genetic problems present in either gamete that joined to form the embryo. Based on the information that you have, what is the best term to describe Bill’s aneurysm?

a. Hereditary 
b. Congenital 
c. Autosomal dominant
d. Sex-linked
A

b. Congenital

24
Q

The mutation that results in the “Philadelphia” chromosome in CML is the result of:

a. Deletion
b. Translocation
c. Gene amplification
d. Inversion
A

b. Translocation

25
Q

Percivall Plott discovered that chimney sweeps had increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin because of constant contact with soot. This soot was the leftover ash and debris from the combustion of coal, and it did not need to be chemically changed to cause problems. What type of carcinogen was the soot?

a. Radiation 
b. Microbial
c. Indirect chemical 
d. Direct chemical
A

d. Direct chemical

26
Q

Tumor suppressor governor genes like _____ control important cell cycle “stop” points.

a. RB
b. p53
c. RAS
d. EGFR
A

a. RB

27
Q

Cancer cells often lack contact inhibition behavior. This problem is related to which hallmark of cancer?

a. Sustained angiogenesis
b. Evading apoptosis
c. Insensitivity to anti-growth signals
d. Self-sufficiency of growth signals
A

c. Insensitivity to anti-growth signals

28
Q

The first step in metastasis is:

a. Angiogenesis
b. Adhesion
c. Invasion
d. Liberation
A

d. Liberation

29
Q

The mutation of a microRNA so that it binds to a mRNA to which it did not bind before contributes to transformed phenotypes by:

a. Hypomethylation of the genome
b. Reduced tumor suppressor gene expression 
c. Increased growth factor expression 
d. Canging protein folding
A

b. Reduced tumor suppressor gene expression

Something is going to be reduced when microRNA binds. Not necessarily tumor suppressor

30
Q

Which of the following immune cells would recognize and kill a transformed cell that was not expressing MHC I molecules?

a. B cell
b. CTL
c. NK cell
d. Neutrophil
A

c. NK cell

31
Q

The bridge-break-fusion cycle encourages what important factor that helps cancer to develop?

a. Chemical carcinogens
b. Genomic instability 
c. Viral oncogenesis
d. Avoidance of apoptosis
A

b. Genomic instability

32
Q

How would you diagnose a cytogenetic disorder?

a. Karyotype analysis
b. Serology 
c. HLA typing 
d. Ultrasound
A

a. Karyotype analysis

33
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome occurs when two specific things occur together. These two things are:

a. Maternal deletion and maternal imprinting of Prader-Willi genes
b. Paternal deletion and maternal imprinting of the Prader-Willi genes
c. Maternal imprinting of the Prader-Willi genes and pattern imprinting of the Angelman 		    gene
d. Maternal and paternal deletions in the Angelman genes
A

b. Paternal deletion and maternal imprinting of the Prader-Willi genes

34
Q

Which protein is involved in evading apoptosis?

a. Telomerase
b. RAS
c. p53
d. Proteases
e. BCL-2
f. VHL
A

e. BCL-2

35
Q

Which protein is involved in insensitivity to anti-growth signals?

a. Telomerase
b. RAS
c. p53
d. Proteases
e. BCL-2
f. VHL
A

d. Proteases

36
Q

Which protein is involved in self-sufficiency of growth signals?

a. Telomerase
b. RAS
c. p53
d. Proteases
e. BCL-2
f. VHL
A

b. RAS

37
Q

Which protein is involved in limitless replicative potential?

a. Telomerase
b. RAS
c. p53
d. Proteases
e. BCL-2
f. VHL
A

a. Telomerase

38
Q

Which protein is involved in invasion or metastasis?

a. Telomerase
b. RAS
c. p53
d. Proteases
e. BCL-2
f. VHL
A

d. Proteases

39
Q

Which protein is involved in sustained angiogenesis?

a. Telomerase
b. RAS
c. p53
d. Proteases
e. BCL-2
f. VHL
A

f. VHL

40
Q

Choose the correct description for the pedigree below.

a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Mitochondrial
d. X-linked recessive

A

d. X-linked recessive

41
Q

Which of the following is a protein that can be used to monitor or detect gastrointestinal cancers?

a. Prostate specific antigen 
b. Carcinoembryonic antigen 
c. Alpha fetoprotein 
d. H. pylori
A

b. Carcinoembryonic antigen