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Chem 1 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

A drug’s most direct and effective method of delivery to its site of action is:

-Oral administration
-Intramuscular injection
-Intravenous administration
-Aerosol ingestion

A

Intravenous administration

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2
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the absorption of drugs?

-Drug absorption rates may change with age
-Morphine may slow the gastrointestinal motility of a drug
-Liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications
-Crohn’s disease may alter the absorption of some drugs

A

Liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications

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3
Q

Drugs are susceptible to hepatic metabolism, and this increases the concentration of the drug before it reaches the circulatory system.

True
False

A

False

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding drug elimination?

-One drug half-life is the time needed for the drug concentration to increase by half
-Five to seven drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration
-Most medications are administered as a single dose versus a scheduled basis
-Aminoglycoside antibiotics are reabsorbed by the renal tubules

A

Five to seven drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration

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5
Q

The relationship between a drug’s concentration at its target sites and its physiological responses is known as:

-Pharmacokinetics
-Pharmacogenomics
-Pharmacotherapy
-Pharmacodynamics

A

Pharmacodynamics

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6
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning therapeutic drug monitoring?

-It ensures correct drug doses for the expected therapeutic range
-It helps to identify non-compliance of the patient
-It identifies drug-drug interactions if multiple drugs are taken simultaneously
-It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients

A

It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients

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7
Q

A blood draw to determine a peak level of a drug should be drawn:

-One hour after an orally administered dose
-Immediately after drug administration
-90 minutes after an orally administered dose
-Immediately before drug administration

A

One hour after an orally administered dose

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8
Q

CYP450 is a gene that influences the effectiveness of a drug in an individual.

True
False

A

True

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9
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning aminoglycosides?

-They are a class of drugs that is administered in the inpatient setting
-Toxic levels can cause hearing impairment
-They are used to treat gram positive and gram negative infections
-Ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible

A

Ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible

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10
Q

Pharmacokinetics and drug concentration are influenced by which of the following factors?

-Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
-Absorption, bioavailability, excretion, metabolism
-Biotransformation, distribution, excretion, metabolism
-Adaption, distribution, excretion, metabolism

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

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11
Q

Only bound fractions of drugs can interact with the site of action and result in a biological response.

True
False

A

False

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12
Q

Tolerance to drugs could be explained as:

-Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response
-Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to an increased response
-50% of the maximum effect of a drug on the body

A

Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response

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13
Q

This drug is used to treat arrhythmias and CHF.

-Quinidine
-Digoxin
-Disopyramide
-Dilantin

A

Digoxin

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14
Q

This drug may have the adverse effect of “redman syndrome”

-Vancomycin
-Tobramycin
-Amikacin
-Gentamicin

A

Vancomycin

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15
Q

This antiepileptic drug requires hepatic markers to be check frequently due to risk of hepatic dysfunction.

-Carbamazepine
-Phenobarbital
-Phenytoin
-Valproic acid

A

Valproic acid

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16
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs typically are collected as serum samples.

True
False

A

False

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17
Q

Common routes of exposure to toxins are through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and skin.

True
False

A

True

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18
Q

Which specimen type is preferred for analytes demonstrating variation in urinary elimination patterns?

-Random specimen
-Midstream “clean catch” specimen
-First morning specimen
-24-hour collection

A

24-hour collection

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19
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning analysis of toxic agents?

-Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity
-Confirmatory tests report the concentration of the analyte
-Screening tests are a rapid test intended to detect the presence of a substance
-The reference method for most compounds is gas chromatography with a mass spectrometer (GC-MS)

A

Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity

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20
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding blood alcohol measurements except:

-During venipuncture, the skin must be disinfected with iodine or chlorohexidine gluconate
-Plasma and serum are acceptable specimen types for analysis
-When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity
-Specimens should remain capped to avoid evaporation

A

When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity

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21
Q

The affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is 20-25 times greater than oxygen

True
False

A

False

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22
Q

Toxic levels of acetaminophen are associated with

-Ototoxicity
-Nephrotoxicity
-Hepatotoxicity
-Neurotoxicity

A

Hepatotoxicity

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is not true concerning testing for drugs of abuse?

-A two-tired testing approach includes screening and confirmatory testing
-Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity
-Screening tests detect classes of drugs
-GC-MS is the reference method used for confirmation

A

Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity

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24
Q

Which type of toxicology uses the results from animal experiments to predict what level of exposure will cause harm to humans?

-Descriptive
-Mechanistic
-Regulatory
-Environmental

A

Descriptive

25
Q

Which is not a common route of exposure to toxic substances.

-Ingestion
-Intravenous
-Inhalation
-Transdermal absorption

A

Intravenous

26
Q

What phrase best describes what ED50 stands for?

-A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.
-A drug is predicted to have a lethal effect for 50% of the population.
-A drug is predicted to have a negative effect on 50% of the population.

A

A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.

27
Q

Chronic exposure to a toxin always has the same effect as acute exposures.

True
False

A

False

28
Q

Which is not a common specimen type for analysis of toxic agents?

Urine
Blood
Oral fluid
All are common types

A

All are common types

29
Q

Match the alcohol with the common source: Isopropanol

-Rubbing alcohol
-Homemade liquors
-Antifreeze
-Tequila

A

Rubbing alcohol

30
Q

Match the alcohol with the common source: Methanol

-Rubbing alcohol
-Homemade liquors
-Antifreeze
-Tequila

A

Homemade liquors

31
Q

Match the alcohol with the common source: Ethylene glycol

-Rubbing alcohol
-Homemade liquors
-Antifreeze
-Tequila

A

Antifreeze

32
Q

Match the alcohol with the common source: Ethanol

-Rubbing alcohol
-Homemade liquors
-Antifreeze
-Tequila

A

Tequila

33
Q

An alternative test that may be performed in order to estimate ethanol in serum is the osmolality.

True
False

A

True

34
Q

This toxic substance can be found in its organic form in clams and oysters.

-Cadmium
-Cyanide
-Lead
-Arsenic

A

Arsenic

35
Q

This environmental pollutant has been linked to Itai-itai disease.

-Cadmium
-Cyanide
-Lead
-Arsenic

A

Cadmium

36
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase:
Amphetamines

-Stimulant with high abuse potential
-“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
-High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
-Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

Stimulant with high abuse potential

37
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Barbiturates

-Stimulant with high abuse potential
-“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
-High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
-Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer

38
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Benzodiazepines

-Stimulant with high abuse potential
-“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
-High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
-Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety

39
Q

Match the drug with its descriptor phrase: Opioids

-Stimulant with high abuse potential
-“Downer” originally used as sleep inducer
-High demand as sedative and anti-anxiety
-Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

A

Substances capable of analgesia, sedation, and anesthesia

40
Q

Which of the following enzymes is increased in patients with cancer involving bone?

-Amylase
-Alkaline phosphatase
-Neuron-specific enolase
-Gamma glutamyl transferase

A

Alkaline phosphatase

41
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with neuroblastoma?

-CA-15-3
-Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
-CA 125
-Homovanillic acid (HVA)

A

Homovanillic acid (HVA)

42
Q

Which of the following tumor markers is classified as an oncofetal antigen?

-Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
-CA 19-9
-BRCA-1
-hCG

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

43
Q

The utilization of tumor markers is most important for:

-Screening of asymptomatic patients
-Screening for molecular markers
-Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment
-Confirming the presence of cancer

A

Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment

44
Q

Tumor marker methodology include all of the following except:

-Immunoassays
-Gas chromatography
-Immunohistochemistry
-Enzyme analysis

A

Gas chromatography

45
Q

Abnormally low tumor marker concentrations are associated with antigen deficiency and can cause false negative results

True
False

A

False

46
Q

To accurately monitor tumor marker levels of the patient, it is important to use the same methodology each time of testing.

True
False

A

True

47
Q

If tumor cells are found in both the original tumor and also in the regional lymph nodes, this would be classified as stage:

1
2
3
4

A

3

48
Q

This type of tumor marker is valuable in diagnosing neuroblastomas, pituitary and adrenal adenomas.

-Serum protein tumor markers
-Endocrine tumor markers
-Oncofetal antigens
-Carbohydrate antigen tumor markers

A

Endocrine tumor markers

49
Q

These type of tumor markers help to choose between endocrine and cytotoxic therapies.

-Endocrine tumor markers
-Oncofetal antigens
-Cancer antigen tumor markers
-Receptor tumor markers

A

Receptor tumor markers

50
Q

All tumor markers can be used to screen asymptomatic populations.

True
False

A

False

51
Q

Which is not a reason that serial results can be difficult to interpret:

-Assay design
-Variation in reference ranges
-Differences in antibody specificity
-A and B
-All of the above

A

All of the above

52
Q

Which is not something that is a consideration when considering using immunoassay method for tumor markers.

-Hook effect
-Requires more specialized skill and experience
-Assay linearity
-HAMAs

A

Requires more specialized skill and experience

53
Q

Match the tumor with the description: Neuroblastoma

-Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
-Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

A

Common malignant tumor in kids

54
Q

Match the tumor with the description: Pheochromocytoma

-Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
-Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

A

Rare tumor associated with hypertension

55
Q

Match the tumor with the description: Carcinoid

-Common malignant tumor in kids
-Rare tumor associated with hypertension
-Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

A

Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine

56
Q

Which is not an example of an enzyme tumor marker?

ALP
AST
PSA
LDH

A

AST

57
Q

Which tumor marker is used primarily with hepatocelluar carcinoma and testicular cancer?

-Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
-CA-125
-Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)
-Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

A

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

58
Q

Elevations in this tumor marker in CSF may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

-Carbohydrate antigen 19-9 (CA-19-9)
-Immunoglobulin free light chains (FLC)
-Human epididymis protein 4 (HE4)
-Neuron-specific enolase (NSE)

A

Neuron-specific enolase (NSE)

Chem 1 (6 decks)

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