Exam 2012 Flashcards

0
Q

The antibacterial action of azithromycin is due to its inhibition of bacterial

A. Folic acid synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. DNA replication
D. Cell wall synthesis

A

B. Protein synthesis

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1
Q

The antibacterial action of vancomycin is due to its inhibition of bacterial

A. Folic acid synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. DNA replication
D. Cell wall synthesis

A

D. Cell wall synthesis

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2
Q

Which one of the following drugs is useful for the treatment of bacterial infections due to either MRSA or VRE

A. Penicillin G Benzanthine (Bicillin)
B. Methicillin (Staphcillin)
C. Daptomycin (Cydectin)
D. Dicloxacillin (Dynapen)

A

C. Daptomycin (Cydectin)

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3
Q

Which of the following strategies is being used to develop future drugs that will combat bacterial strains resistant to current drugs

A. Develop new synthetic drugs based on old drugs
B. Search for new natural antibiotics
C. Identify new target proteins from the sequenced genomes of resistant bacteria
D. Target quorum sensing signaling between bacteria
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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4
Q

An antibiotic that kills only Gram negative bacteria is classified as

A. Bacteriostatic, narrow spectrum
B. Bacteriocidal, narrow spectrum
C. Bacteriostatic, broad-spectrum
D. Bacteriocidal, broad-spectrum
E. None of the above
A

B. Bacteriocidal, narrow spectrum

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5
Q

Cancer chemotherapy targets which of the following cell cycle phases

A. DNA synthesis (S phase)
B. Mitosis (m phase)
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

C. Both A and B

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6
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the anticancer activity of tamoxifen(Novaldex) is true

A. Tamoxifen is an anti-androgen and inhibits synthesis of testosterone
B. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that binds to the estrogen receptor
C. Tamoxifen is a taxane and increases stability of microtubules
D. Tamoxifen is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that blocks the epidermal growth factor receptor kinase

A

B. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that binds to the estrogen receptor

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7
Q

Which one of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2

A. Imatinib (Gleevec)
B. Gefitinib (Iressa)
C. Erlotinib (Tarceva)
D. Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

A

D. Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true for cancer chemotherapeutic drugs that block DNA synthesis (s phase)

A. They may be structural analogues of nucleotides
B. They may be structural analogues of molecules needed for the synthesis of nucleotides
C. They may physically bind DNA and deform its structure
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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9
Q

Inhibition of the phosphatase calcineurin is important for the immunosuppressive action of

A. Cyclosporine a (Sandimmune)
B. Tacrolimus (Prograph)
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

C. Both A and B

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10
Q

Azathioprine (Imuran)

A. Inhibits the immune response to foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets
B. Stimulates the response of T cells to cytokines
C. Inhibits translocation of the transcription factor NF – KB to The nucleus
D. Binds to an immunophilin to exert it’s immunosuppressive action
E. Acts as an immunosuppressive by none of the above mechanisms

A

E. Acts as an immunosuppressive by none of the above mechanisms

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11
Q

Daclizumab (Zenapax)

A. Causes cytotoxic destruction of T cells via the complement system
B. Is a purine anti-metabolite
C. Inhibits the immune response to foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets
D. Binds to immunophilin to exert its immunosuppressive action
E. Acts as an immunosuppressive by none of the above mechanisms

A

D. Binds to immunophilin to exert its immunosuppressive action

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12
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept)

A. Inhibits phenazine monophosphate dehydrogenase
B. Simulates export of nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT) from the nucleus
C. Is used to prevent sensitization of Rh negative women carrying an Rh positive fetus
D. Has none of the above actions

A

A. Inhibits phenazine monophosphate dehydrogenase

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13
Q

Based on the FDA’s drug and pregnancy rating scale, a category X-drug

A. Can be consumed only during the latter half of pregnancy
B. Is contraindicated during pregnancy
C. Shows no risks in animal models
D. Shows no risks and controlled studies in humans

A

B. Is contraindicated during pregnancy

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14
Q

A pregnant woman consumes a teratogenic agent during week 30 to 35 of fetal development. Which one of the following fetal defects is most likely to occur?

A. Growth retardation
B. Heart defects
C. Craniofacial defects
D. Vision impairment

A

A. Growth retardation

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding drugs and teratogenesis

A. The placenta acts as a protective barrier, shielding the fetus from harmful toxins
B. Birth retardation is unlikely to occur if toxins are ingested during the second half of pregnancy
C. The greater the drug exposure, the more severe the detrimental effects are on the developing fetus
D. If they drug is not shared teratogenic effects in animal models, the drug will not pose any risk to human fetal development

A

C. The greater the drug exposure, the more severe the detrimental effects are on the developing fetus

16
Q

Cocaine and to back up associated intrauterine growth retardation occurs due to which of the following mechanisms

A. Inhibition of epoxide hydrolase
B. Apoptosis of neural crest cells
C. Restriction of uterine blood vessels
D. Conversion into the teratogenic isomer

A

C. Restriction of uterine blood vessels

17
Q

What drug is a fluoroquinolone that is used to treat inhalational anthrax

A. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
B. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

A

C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

18
Q

What is a highly soluble sulfanilamide used for the treatment of urinary tract infections

A. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
B. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

A

A. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)

19
Q

What is a combination of two drugs trimethoprim and sulfamethizole

A. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
B. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

A

B. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)

20
Q

What is a poorly absorbed sulphonamide used for the treatment of inflammatory bowel disorders

A. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
B. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

A

D. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

21
Q

What is a semi synthetic product of kanamycin with decreased tendency for developing drug resistance

A. Isoniazid (INH)
B.  Gentamicin (Garamycin)
C.  Rifampin (Rifadin)
D. Amikacin (Amiken)
E. Ethambutol (Myambutol)
A

D. Amikacin (Amiken)

22
Q

What inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid, an essential component in mycobacterial cell wall

A. Isoniazid (INH)
B.  Gentamicin (Garamycin)
C.  Rifampin (Rifadin)
D. Amikacin (Amiken)
E. Ethambutol (Myambutol)
A

A. Isoniazid (INH)

23
Q

What is a first-line anti-tuberculosis agent that inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase in prokaryotic cells

A. Isoniazid (INH)
B.  Gentamicin (Garamycin)
C.  Rifampin (Rifadin)
D. Amikacin (Amiken)
E. Ethambutol (Myambutol)
A

C. Rifampin (Rifadin)

24
Q

What is the most commonly used aminoglycoside due to its low cost and reliable antibacterial activity

A. Isoniazid (INH)
B.  Gentamicin (Garamycin)
C.  Rifampin (Rifadin)
D. Amikacin (Amiken)
E. Ethambutol (Myambutol)
A

B. Gentamicin (Garamycin)

25
Q

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics unmerged only recently due entirely to the indiscriminate overuse of antibiotics by humans. True or false?

A

False

26
Q

Nearly 15% of Americans experience some form of allergic reaction to the beta lactam antibiotics. True or false?

A

True

27
Q

Due to its exceptionally broad spectrum of activity, imipenem/cilastatin is recommended for use as a first-line drug of choice for most bacterial infections. True or false?

A

False

28
Q

Amantadine (Symmetrel) targets the M2 protein of the influenza virus. True or false?

A

True

29
Q

For the treatment of herpes simplex virus infections, acyclovir (Zovirax) requires viral by making thymadine for activation. True or false?

A

True

30
Q

Fluconazole (Diflucan) Is used in the treatment of fungal meningitis. True or false?

A

True

31
Q

Amphotericin B (Amphocin) Inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane. True or false?

A

False