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Foundations of Anesthesia 1 > EXAM 2 Review Content > Flashcards

EXAM 2 Review Content Flashcards

1
Q

What is an oxygen cylinder’s max pressure and volume

A

2,000psi and 660L

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2
Q

What is a Nitrous Oxide cylinders max pressure and volume

A

745psi and 1590L

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3
Q

What is a Nitrous Oxide cylinders max pressure and volume

A

745psi and 1590L

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4
Q

When is the spill valve open and closed

A

Closed during inspiration

Open during expiration

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5
Q

The transfilling valve, aka yoke hanger check, aka check valve/outlet check valve, has what function:

A

Prohibits trans filling of other cylinders

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6
Q

The O2 flush valve delivers oxygen at what pressure and volume

A

50psi
35-75L

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7
Q

Describe this TEG

A

Normal

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8
Q

Describe this TEG

A

Anticoagulation or Factor Deficiency

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9
Q

Describe this TEG

A

Reduced platelet count or function

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10
Q

Describe this TEG

A

Primary Fibrinolysis

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11
Q

Describe this TEG

A

Hypercoagulation

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12
Q

Describe this TEG

A

DIC Stage 1: hypercoagulable state with secondary fibrinolysis

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13
Q

Describe this TEG

A

DIC Stage 1: hypercoagulable state with secondary fibrinolysis

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14
Q

Describe this TEG

A

DIC Stage 2: HyPOcoagulable state

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15
Q

In the brain, what is going to determine if fluid stays in the vasculature/pulls into the vasculature or pushes into the interstitium?

A

Blood-Brain Barrier
Sodium is less permeable. Making it the primary determinant over plasma proteins.

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16
Q

You give an isotonic solution into the intravascular space. What is going to happen to that solution?

A

A portion will stay in the intravascular space, but a portion of it, in about 30min, ~75%, will be lost to the interstitial space to reach equilibrium.

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17
Q

HESes are associated with?
Could you pick out what they are not associated with?

A

Kidney injury
Dialysis requirements
coagulopathy
sepsis
and increased mortality

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18
Q

What would be some reliable means for determining where your patient is on the Frank-Starling Curve?

A

● Edema, turgor, mucous membranes, cap refill, auscultate (hands on assessment)
● Pulse contour analysis (PPV >13% fluid responsive, <8% pressor responsive)
● NOT CVP, MAP OR UO

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19
Q

What might happen if you did a volume resuscitation with Normal Saline?

A

Hyperchloremia - Metabolic Acidosis

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20
Q

If you hypoventilated a patient - what would that do to your acid-base balance? Therefore, what would it do to your electrolytes?

A

Create respiratory acidosis –> more calcium and potassium shifts or is released into intravascular fluid.

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21
Q

You need to do an emergent C-Section on an eclamptic patient; what anesthetic drug has an increased risk profile in that circumstance?
(typically because of an electrolyte abnormality)

A

Magnesium potentiates the effects of Nondepolarizing neuromuscular agents. May need extra reversal agent.
Stop mag and reverse with CaCl

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22
Q

If you need to expand the plasma volume in a patient with a traumatic head injury, what fluid would you pick?

A

Hypertonic Saline Solutions of 3% or greater.
Promote volume expansion that mobilize intracellular and interstitial fluid into the vascular space. May protect patients with intracranial hypertension.

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23
Q

Fluid in the capillary bed going from the capillary side to interstitial or interstitial to the capillary. What changes would you expect if the patient had a low cardiac output state?

A

Acute drop in CO due to anesthesia will drop capillary hydrostatic pressure. Creating a net negative pressure pulling fluid INTO the intravascular space.

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24
Q

Calculate a maintenance fluid rate using the 4:2:1 rule.

A

4ml/kg for the first 10kgs
2ml/kg for the second 10kg
1ml/kg for the remaining

If greater than 20kg, add 40 to find the maintenance rate

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25
Q

If you needed to devise a fluid plan for a hypovolemic patient, what fluid would you choose?

A

Isotonic: LR or NS

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26
Q

Your patient is going to have surgery; they’re going to have an incision; what things can lead to evaporative losses?

A

Sweat, Breathing, Surgical exposure of body cavaties

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27
Q

Your patient has Hyperkalemia and you have these EKG changes: Loss of P wave and widening QRS; immediate effective therapy is indicated, what do you administer?

A
  1. IV Calcium Chloride - 10mL of 10% CaCl over 10-min period
    or
    10mL of 10% Calcium Gluconate over 3-5min
  2. IV Sodium Bicarb, 50-100mEq over 10-20min
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28
Q

Which yields more ionized calcium, CaCl or CaGluconate?

A

CaCl = 27mg/mL
Gluconate = 9mg/mL

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29
Q

What is the onset of Calcium Chloride or Calcium Gluconate?

A

1-3 minutes

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30
Q

What is the duration of action of Calcium Chloride or Calcium Gluconate?

A

30-60minutes

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31
Q

Why give calcium for hyperkalemia?

A

Stabilizes cardiac membrane

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32
Q

Bicarbonate administration for Loss of P wave and widening QRS due to hyperkalemia takes how long to take effect?

A

5-10minutes

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33
Q

Bicarbonate administration for loss of P wave and widening QRS due to hyperkalemia lasts for how long?

A

1-2 hours

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34
Q

Bicarbonate administration for Loss of P wave and widening QRS due to hyperkalemia has what mechanism of action?

A

Shifts potassium intracellularly

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35
Q

Your patient has hyperkalemia and Peaked T waves that need prompt therapy; what do you do?

A
  1. Glucose and Insulin Infusion:
    IV of 50mL D50W and five units regular insulin
  2. Urgent hemodialysis
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36
Q

Administration of IV D50W 50mL and five units regular insulin for hyperkalemia takes how long to onset?

A

30 minutes

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37
Q

Administration of IV D50W 50mL and five units of regular insulin for hyperkalemia has a therapeutic duration of?

A

4-6 hours

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of glucose and insulin administration in a hyperkalemic patient?

A

Shifts potassium intracellularly.

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39
Q

What should you do if the patient has hyperkalemia but no EKG changes?

A
  1. Administer potassium-binding resins in GI tract
  2. Promotion of renal excretion via loop diuretics.
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40
Q

How long does oral potassium binding resins take to onset? Have a duration of?

A

Onset: 1-2 hours
Duration: 4-6 hours

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41
Q

Administration of furosemide 40mg for hyperkalemia usually has an onset of? And a duration of?

A

Onset: 15-30 minutes
Duration: 2-3 hours

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42
Q

Pts who should not receive colloids/albumin:

A

Neurotrauma
Endothelial injuries / impaired glycocalyx —> pulm edema, end-organ damage (Sepsis, Lg Vascular Traumas)
Hypocalcemia
Hyperglycemia (DM)

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43
Q

Pts who can receive colloids:

A

-Volume loss not from active bleeding
-Hypovolemic pts with Intact glycocalyx
- Pts with lower capillary oncotic pressure such as liver pts with
hypoalbuminemia

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44
Q

The causes of OR fires are primarily from?

A

Electrocautery - 90%
Lasers - 10%

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45
Q

What percent of OR fires occur during high risk cases involving the head, neck, and upper chest?

A

85%

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46
Q

What percent of OR fires involve the airway? Head and Neck?

A

34% airway
28% head and neck

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47
Q

If you know or suspect patient inhalation injury from toxic fumes: ex - CO, HCL, Cyanide - the patient is at risk for? What should your actions be?

A

At risk for airway edema. Look quickly, if any indication, including airway/voice hoarseness, intubate immediately.
You can always extubate later the same day.

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48
Q

What are the three components of the fire triangle?

A

Fuel Source
Ignition Source
Oxidizer

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49
Q

What are some Fuel Sources in the OR

A

surgical prep and alcohol [Allow to dry!]
petroleum ointments, facial hair, drapes, gloves, breathing circuits, dressings, ETT

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50
Q

What are some Ignition Sources in the OR

A

ESUs, fiberoptics, high-speed drills, laser, monitors, defibs, desiccated soda lime

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51
Q

What are some Oxiders in the OR

A

Air, O2, N2O
in 95% of cases it is O2 because it is heavier than air, and it accumulates around and under drapes

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52
Q

What are some surgical fire prevention strategies

A

-Avoid open air O2 delivery. ETT (closed) or LMA (less closed but more than open)
-Communicate fire sources and if O2 requirements are raising in ESU cases
-Coat facial hair with water-soluble lubricant
-Laser resistant ETTs
-Moistened sponges
-Flame retardant drapes

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53
Q

When using O2 in an ESU procedure. The supplemental O2 should be less than what % and off for how many minutes before ESU use?

A

Less than 30% and off for 1min prior

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54
Q

Anesthesia providers are responsible for what portion of the fire triangle

A

Oxider

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55
Q

What steps should be taken if an airway fire occurs?

A
  1. Stop ventilation and remove ETT
  2. Stop flow of all gases
  3. Remove all other flammable material away from airway
  4. Pour water or saline into airway
  5. Fire extinguisher if water did not clear fire (BC extinguisher)
  6. Assess for airway edema / trauma
  7. Consider steroid admin
  8. Monitor in ICU for 24 hours
  9. Report to joint commission and FDA
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56
Q

To avoid a blow torch effect, what should you NOT do when extubating the patient because of an airway fire?

A

do not squeeze the reservoir bag

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57
Q

Why do O2 devices ignite easily?

A

They contain polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

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58
Q

What does RACE stand for

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish

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59
Q

What does P.A.S.S. stand for

A

Pull pin
Aim at base of fire
Squeeze
Sweep side to side

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60
Q

Laser light differs from ordinary light because of what three things:

A
  1. Monochromatic - single wavelength
  2. Coherent - light oscillates in the same phase
  3. Collimated - exists as a narrow parallel beam
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61
Q

Long wavelength lasers absorb _____ ____ and (do or do not) penetrate deep into tissue

A

Absorb more water and do NOT penetrate deep into tissue

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62
Q

Short wavelength lasers absorb _____ ____ and (do or do not) penetrate deep into tissue

A

less water and DO penetrate deeper into tissue

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63
Q

CO2 lasers require what color eye protection to protect which eye structure

A

Clear lenses - cornea

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64
Q

Nd:YAG lasers require what color eye protection to protect which eye structure

A

Green goggles - Retina

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65
Q

Ruby lasers require what color eye protection to protect which eye structure

A

Red goggles - Retina

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66
Q

Argon lasers require what color eye protection to protect which eye structure

A

Amber goggles - Retina

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67
Q

The decision to transfusion PRBC should be based on?

A

Insufficient DO2 (oxygen delivery)
Hg <6 (almost always); Hg <7 (depends); you are transfusing RBC’s to improve DO2: arterial oxygen delivery, mixed venous, central venous oxygen sat; transfuse if there’s signs of improper DO2: lactate levels, signs of cardiac ischemia: hypotension, tachycardia

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68
Q

Describe the differences between:
Type
Screen
Cross

A

Type: ABO and Rh status.

Screen: Screens for more rare antibodies. [45min]

Cross: “test transfusion” mixes donor blood and patient blood. It greatly reduces the likelihood of transfusion rxn. [45min]

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69
Q

What are 5 procoagulants

A

Coagulation Factors
Collagen
vWF
Fibronectin
Thrombomodulin

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70
Q

What are 4 AntiCoagulant mediators?

A

AntiThrombin III
Protein C
Protein S
Tissue Pathway Factor Inhibitor

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71
Q

What are two vasodilatory mediators

A

Nitric Oxide and Prostacyclin

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72
Q

What are three vasoconstrictor mediators

A

Thromboxane A2
ADP
Serotonin

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73
Q

What are three fibrinolytic mediators?

A

Plasminogen
tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
Urokinase

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74
Q

What kind of mediator is Plasminogen classified as? :

What is its function?

A

Fibrinolytic

Converts to plasmin

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75
Q

What kind of mediator is tPA classified as? :

What is its function?

A

Fibrinolytic

Activates plasmin

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76
Q

What kind of mediator is Urokinase classified as? :

What is its function?

A

Fibrinolytic

Activates plasmin

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77
Q

What are two anti-fibrinolytics?

A

Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor
alpha-antiplasmin

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78
Q

What kind of mediator is Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor

What is its function?

A

Antifibrinolytic

Inactivates tPA and urokinase

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79
Q

What kind of mediator is alpha-antiplasmin classified as? :

What is its function?

A

Antifibrinolytic
Inhibits Plasmin

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80
Q

What factors make up the Extrinsic Pathway

A

Factor 3 - Tissue Factor (Thromboplastin)
Factor 7 - Proconvertin Factor (labile)

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81
Q

Vitamin K is created by? And is it necessary for the formation of which factors?

A

Created from bacteria in the gut and is necessary for the formation (in the liver) of Factors 2, 7, 9, 10

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82
Q

What are two antifibrinolytic (anticlot breakdown) medications?

A

Aminocaproic Acid
Tranexamic Acid (TXA)

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83
Q

The PT lab value will be prolonged when patients have abnormalities or deficiencies in?

A

factors specific to the extrinsic (3 & 7) and common pathways (10, 9?, 2, 1)

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84
Q

What is a normal INR?

A

Apex: ~1
Nagelhout: 1.5-2.5

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85
Q

aPTT is used to evaluate the efficiency of the ____ and the common coagulation pathway. This includes which factors?

A

Intrinsic: 12, 11, 9, and 8
Common: 10, 5, 2, 1 and ultimately 13

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86
Q

Normal ACT

A

Apex: 90-120
Nagelhout: 90-150

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87
Q

ACT is used to measure?

A

Activated Clotting Time. Ability to clot. Also can be used to regulate heparin therapy.

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88
Q

TEGs provide an indication of what 5 processes?

A
  1. Clot Strength
  2. Platelet number and function
  3. Intrinisic Pathway defects
  4. Thrombin formation
  5. Rate of fibrinolysis
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89
Q

What are four very high risk for bleeding procedures? What should the minimum platelet count be?

A

Neurosurgery
Ocular surgery (except cataracts)
Thyroid Surgery
Prostatectomy

75,000-100,000 plts

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90
Q

What is the MABL (maximum allowable blood loss) equation?

A

MABL = EBV x (Starting Hct(or hgb) - Minimum acceptable Hct(or hgb) ) / all of the above divided by initial hematocrit (or hgb) level

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91
Q

Which blood product carries the greatest risk for bacterial transmission?

A

platelets

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92
Q

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) contains?

A

All coagulation factors, especially factors 2, 7, 9, and 10
AND
Albumin (plasma proteins)
Fibrinogen
[Antithrombin 3, Protein C and S (hemostasis equilibrium)]

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93
Q

What lab values may indicate you should administer FFP?

A

PT and/or aPTT prolonged more than 1.5 times normal.
(FFP=Factors 2,7,9,10. Albumin. Fibrinogen.)

Long INR

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94
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains?

A

Factor 8 and 13.
Fibrinogen
vWF
Fibronectin

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95
Q

Describe Type 1 and 2a vWF disease and how you would treat it before surgery?

A

Mild-moderate reduction in vWF production. Treated with Desmopressin (0.3mcg/kg)
Cryo if there is no response or availability of Factor 8 concentrate.

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96
Q

Describe Type 2b and 3 vWF disease and how you would treat it before surgery?

A

vWF is not produced or doesn’t work correctly.
Bleeding patients with type 3 should be given vWF/Factor 8 concentrate or Cryo.
Desmopressin will not work.

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97
Q

What coagulation lab values would you expect in a patient with Hemophilia A? What would be the treatment before surgery?

A

PTT increased and PT normal

Mild - can try DDAVP (vWF carries factor 8 around)
Factor 8 Concentrate before surgery
Cryo (has more Factor 8) > FFP
Recombinant Factor 7 last-ditch effort

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98
Q

What coagulation lab values would you expect in a patient with Hemophilia B? What would be the treatment before surgery?

A

PTT increased and PT normal. Remember Factor 9 is on intrinsic pathway.

Factor 9 - Prothrombin Concentrate Complex
FFP

Recombinant Factor 7 last-ditch effort
NOT desmopressin. Has no effect on Factor 9

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99
Q

Lab Values Consistent with DIC

A

Decreased Platelets [less than 100]
Decreased Fibrinogen [under 150]
Decreased AntiThrombin [less than 80%]

Increased D-Dimer [over 500]
Increased PT[over 14] or aPTT[over 32]

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100
Q

What is the universal FFP donor and acceptor?

A

Donor: AB

Acceptor: O

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101
Q

Pt needs surgery. You have a patient taking Warfarin, INR is high, what do you do?

A

If you have time: Vitamin K to reverse (takes a few hours)

If it’s emergent: FFP or Prothrombin Complex Concentrate

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102
Q

What extrinsic factor is produced in the liver?

A

Factor 7
Produced in the liver. Vitamin K required for synthesis

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103
Q

What are the factors of the final common pathway

A

10, 5, 2, 1, and 13

104
Q

What are the intrinsic factors

A

12, 11, 9, 8

105
Q

How does Heparin work?

A

It binds to antithrombin and accelerates its anticoagulant ability 1,000 fold. (remember ATIII corrals 12, 11, 10, 9 and 2)

Inhibits intrinsic, common pathway, and plt function

106
Q

Pt looks to be in DIC. You need to administer something before OR, what are three things you could choose from?

A

FFP
Plts
Cryo

107
Q

Injured blood vessel - what mediators are released

A

Procoagulants
and
Thromboxane A2
ADP
vWF

108
Q

Patient needs a craniotomy, what is the minimal plt value needed

A

75,000-100,000

109
Q

How do you transfuse a woman of childbearing years?

A

Give O neg to prevent Rh+ antibodies develop

110
Q

Disease description of hypercoagulable state

A

HIT type 2
DIC
Vasooclusive crisis SCD

111
Q

How much does Hgb and Hct change after one unit PRBC

A

1 hgb unit
2-3% Hct

112
Q

Describe HIT Type I

A

Non-Immune Mediated
Onset typically 1-4 days start of heparin
Mild thrombocytopenia <100,000
Often resolves spontaneously
Not associated with thrombosis and death

113
Q

Describe HIT type II

A

Immune Mediated - IgG
Onset typically 5-14 days after start of heparin
Severe thrombocytopenia < 60,000
Does not resolve spontaneously - heparin should be stopped
Associated with thrombosis and mortality

114
Q

What are the effects of being banked on blood?

A

Decreased 2,3-DPG
Decreased ATP
Decreased pH (acidosis)
Hypocalcemia
Increased Potassium - Hyperkalemia
Impaired shape/morphology
Hemolysis
Absence of factors 5 and 8
Increased proinflammatory mediators

115
Q

Recommendations for PRBC infusion for adults PRBC:Pt blood loss ratio

A

1mL PRBC for every 2mL blood loss

116
Q

In an MTP, what is the recommended plasma:PRBC infusion ratio

A

1:1-2

117
Q

In an MTP, what is the recommended plt:PRBC infusion ratio

A

1 plt per 6 PRBC

118
Q

How does MTP of banked blood change the oxyhemoglobin curve

A

Left Shift. Decreased 2,3 DPG and conversion of citrate to sodium bicarb leads to alkalosis.

Hgb holds on to oxygen longer, delaying release into tissues.

119
Q

What organization is responsible for the compressed gas cylinders?

A

Department of Transportation

120
Q

What organization is responsible for the scavenger system?

A

OSHA
occupational safety and health administration

121
Q

Normal working pressure of gas machine?

A

50 psi

122
Q

What is the DISS? How does it work?

A

Diameter Index Safety System

The pipeline inlet for the fresh gases (oxygen, air, n20) has different sizes/threads that only correspond to the appropriate gas tubing. And a check valve ensures unidirectional flow.

123
Q

The pipeline pressure gauges should read about what psi?

A

50 psi

124
Q

Who sets the standards for the required components of the anesthesia machine?

A

ASTM
American Society for Testing and Materials

125
Q

What monitors for low oxygen pressure in the anesthesia machine?

A

oxygen pressure failure device

126
Q

What pressure system does the oxygen pressure failure device (failsafe device) reside in?

A

intermediate pressure system

127
Q

The oxygen pressure failure device (failsafe device) will not alarm in the setting of?

A

pipeline crossover
crack in glass flow meter

128
Q

What are the two components of the oxygen pressure failure device (failsafe device) that prevent a hypoxic mixture?

A
  1. Threshold alarm: sounds when oxygen pipeline pressure falls below 30psi
  2. Pneumatic system: reduces or stops the flow of n20 when the pressure in the oxygen pipeline falls below 20psi
129
Q

Will your machine alarm if it switches to cylinder oxygen instead of the pipeline if you accidentally leave the cylinder valve open?

A

No!

130
Q

Max Service pressure for oxygen cylinder

A

1900 psi (2,000 acceptable for calculations)

131
Q

Max Service Pressure for Nitrous Oxide

A

745psi

132
Q

Max service pressure for air

A

1900psi

133
Q

A full oxygen tank contains how many Liters of oxygen

A

660L

134
Q

How do you calculate how much time you have left on an oxygen cylinder at a given flow rate?

A

Tank Capacity / Full Tank (service) pressure

=

contents remaining (L) / current gauge pressure

This gives you Liters remaining. Then take the Liters remaining divided by the flow rate (L/min) to give you how many minutes you have left before the tank expires

135
Q

Is nitrous oxide stored as a liquid or gas?

A

Liquid and turns to gas when close to empty (1/4 left)

136
Q

At what rate of N20 would create frost on its wall or freeze the valve?

A

4L/min

137
Q

Anesthesia machines will have at least how many minutes of battery if loss of power occurs

A

30 minutes

138
Q

The traditional flowmeter (Thorpe Tubes) are the beginning of what system? It controls and measures the fresh gas flow that travels towards the?

A

Low-pressure system

Vaporizers and common gas outlet

139
Q

Describe the Link-25 Proportioning System to prevent a hypoxic mixture

A

A mechanical system linking N2O and O2 with a chain around the flow meter knobs. It prevents a serious hypoxic mixture by limiting the ratio of N20 and O2 to a 3:1 ratio.

140
Q

Oxygen Flush can supply how much oxygen?

A

35-75 L/min flow

141
Q

Thorpe Tubes / Flow Meter Tubes are in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

Low Pressure System

142
Q

Cylinder Pressure Regulators are in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

High Pressure System

143
Q

Hanger Yokes are in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

High-Pressure System

144
Q

Pipeline inlets are in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

Intermediate Pressure System

145
Q

Vaporizers are in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

Low-Pressure System

146
Q

Flow Meter Valves are in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

Intermediate Pressure System

147
Q

Oxygen pressure failure device (aka oxygen failsafe device) is in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

Intermediate Pressure System

148
Q

Oxygen Flush Valve is in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

Intermediate Pressure System

149
Q

Cylinder Pressure Gauge is in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

High-Pressure System

150
Q

Common Gas Outlet is in which pressure system of the anesthesia gas machine?

A

Low-Pressure System

151
Q

List the 5 tasks of oxygen in the anesthesia gas machine

A
  1. O2 Pressure Alarm
  2. O2 Pressure Device
  3. O2 Flowmeter
  4. O2 Flush Valve
  5. Ventilator Drive Gas
152
Q

The bourdon pressure gauge on an oxygen cylinder reads 500psi. If the flow rate is 2L /min, how much time do you have left?

A

660L/2000psi = Contents remaining/500psi

contents remaining / 2L = minutes left

83minutes

153
Q

Who developed the Anesthesia Machine Pre-Use Checkout Procedures

A

FDA

154
Q

What is the purpose of the oxygen failsafe device?

A

to monitor for (and protect against) low oxygen pressure in the anesthesia machine

155
Q

The oxygen failsafe device will alert you to what 3 problems?

A
  1. Depleted O2 tank
  2. A drop in pipeline pressure
  3. Disconnected O2 supply hose
156
Q

What is another name for the oxygen failsafe device?

A

Oxygen Pressure Failure Device

157
Q

What is the difference between the oxygen pressure device and the hypoxia prevention safety device regarding nitrous oxide?

A

OPD is a failsafe device. It shuts off and/or proportionally reduces Nitrous Oxide flow if O2 pressure drops below 20psi

HPSD is a proportioning device. Prevents you from setting a hypoxic mixture with the flow control valves.

158
Q

If asked to calculate the total tidal volume delivered to the patient, including FGF coupling, what are the steps?
FGF = 4/L min
I:E= 1:2
RR: 10/min
Vt: 500

A

633mL

159
Q

What hazards are associated with activating (pushing) the oxygen flush valve during a procedure?

A
  1. Risk of Barotrauma
  2. Patient awareness
160
Q

What could occur if the first-stage oxygen regulator in the anesthesia machine is faulty?

A

Depletion of oxygen tank

The first-stage regulator allows the preferential use of the pipeline oxygen when the higher pressure in this system is sensed. This regulator prevents the use of cylinder oxygen even if it is left on. But if the regulator is faulty, you would deplete the cylinder because it has a higher pressure than the pipeline.

161
Q

What is the best indicator of anesthesia circuit disconnect?
A. Absence of CO2 waveform
B. Low expired tidal volume
C. Decreased minute ventilation
D. Set pressure threshold not reached

A

A

162
Q

What is the equation for desflurane vaporizer % when changing altitude

A

Required Dial Setting = (sea level v/v% x 760) / current barometric pressure

163
Q

When using mechanical veniltation, the low inspiratory pressure alarm should be set to?

A

within 5cm H2O below peak pressure
thus detecting disconnection and minor to moderate leaks

164
Q

What are 2 reasons the positive pressure alert system may alarm?

A

Expiratory Valve Malfunction (ventilator spill valve)
Faulty unidirectional valve

165
Q

What is the pumping effect?

A

Anything that causes gas that has already left the vaporizer to re-enter the vaporizing chamber.

166
Q

What can create the pumping effect?

A

Positive Pressure Ventilation

167
Q

What 2 functions does the drive gas on a pneumatic ventilator serve?

A
  1. It compresses the bellows
  2. It opens and closes the ventilator spill valve
168
Q

What is the position of the ventilator spill valve during inspiration?

A

Closed. This ensures that the tidal volume goes to the patient and not to the scavenger

169
Q

How does an ascending bellows move during inspiration

A

it falls

170
Q

Will a descending bellow fill during a circuit disconnect?

A

Yes - it can fill with entrained room air

171
Q

How is gas flow delivered in volume-controlled ventilation

A

Inspiratory flow is held constant during inspiration.

172
Q

If airway resistance rises or lung compliance decreases, then PIP will?

A

Peak Inspiratory Pressure will increase

173
Q

What are the fixed factors in Volume Controlled Ventilation

A

Tidal Volume
Inspiratory Flow Rate
Inspiratory Time

174
Q

What are the fixed factors in Pressure Controlled Ventilation

A

Peak Inspiratory Pressure
Inspiratory Time

175
Q

What is the dependent variable in Volume Controlled Ventilation

A

Peak inspiratory Pressure

176
Q

What are the dependent variables in Pressure Controlled Ventilation

A

Tidal volume
Inspiratory Flow

177
Q

Situations where PCV is better than VCV

A

Patient has low compliance: Pregnancy, Obesity, Laparoscopy, ARDS

High PIP would be dangerous: LMA, Neonate, Emphysema

Need to Compensate for a Leak: LMA, Uncuffed ETT in children

178
Q

What modes of mechanical ventilation are best suited for laryngeal mask airway?

A

SIMV (synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation)
PSV (pressure support ventilation)

179
Q

Describe Pressure-Control Ventilation with Volume Guarantee (PCV-VG)

A

PCV-VG offers the benefits of pressure control ventilation but also guarantees a predetermined tidal volume while applying the minimum required pressure.
(useful because sometimes laparoscopic surgery or patient positioning can change the tidal volume a patient can take)

180
Q

Describe Pressure-Support Ventilation (PSV)

A

Augments spontaneous breaths with a pre-set amount of pressure support. No machine-initiated breaths unless there is a back-up rate if apnea is detected (PSV-Pro)

181
Q

What is the difference between CPAP and PSV

A

CPAP delivers a continuous amount of pressure throughout the respiratory cycle. Augments inspiration and reduces airway collapse during expiration.

PSV only applies pressure to the circuit when the patient initiates a breath: Used to support spontaneous breaths by decreasing the patient’s effort during inspiration. It helps increase tidal volume, reduce the workload of respiratory muscles, and improve ventilation efficiency

182
Q

Describe Biphasic Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP)

A

two levels of pressure are set
P1 = inspiratory positive airway pressure
P2 = expiratory positive airway pressure

Basically, it combines PSV and CPAP

183
Q

What is the ideal mesh size for CO2 absorbent?

A

4-8 mesh

184
Q

To maintain constant pressure inside the breathing circuit, the scavenger must only remove an amount of gas equal to?

A

Fresh gas flow minus the volume of gas lost due to the patient’s oxygen consumption

185
Q

The APL valve controls?

A

The amount of gas that remains in the circuit and the amount that is released to the scavenger during spontaneous ventilation

186
Q

The ventilator spill valve determines?

A

The amount of gas that remains in the circuit and the amount that is released to the scavenger during mechanical ventilation

187
Q

Does an Open scavenger system have an active or passive scavenging interface?

A

Active Only. Suction provides the negative pressure. If this is occluded, gas leaks into the OR via the scavengers open windows

188
Q

An open scavenging interface interacts with the OR environment. What happens if too much or too little suction occurs?

A

If there is too much suction, room air is entrained(pulled) into the system.

If there is too little suction, the scavenge system will release its contents into the OR environment.

189
Q

Does a closed scavenging interface an active, passive, or either scavenging system?

A

Can be either

190
Q

What does a closed scavenging interface require for a passive scavenging system?

A

A positive pressure relief valve - to prevent barotrauma in the event of distal obstruction

191
Q

What valves must be present in a closed scavenging system with an active interface?

A

Both a positive and negative pressure relief valve.
This protects against excess negative pressure by entraining room air if there is too much negative pressure and releasing contents into the OR if there is too much positive pressure.

192
Q

What is the most common cause of low circuit pressure?

A

Circuit Disconnect at the Y-piece
The second most common - leak around the carbon dioxide absorbent

193
Q

According to OSHA, recommended standards what is the Maximum accepted level of exposure to halogenated agents with and without nitrous oxide in use?

A

2ppm Halogenated Gases
When nitrous is in use, 0.5ppm halogenated and 25ppm nitrous

194
Q

What circuit contains a reservoir bag but does not allow rebreathing of exhaled gases?

A

Semiopen

195
Q

Can SIMV be set to a pressure control or a volume control?

A

Yes. Can do either.

196
Q

Where do the high-pressure and intermediate-pressure systems in the AGM interface?

A

At the pressure regulators between cylinders and pipeline

197
Q

What things shorten the lifespan of the CO2 absorber?

A

Prolonged FGF - desiccation
Not shaking the canister to mix up the granules creating a channeling effect.
Not having absorber on the inspiratory limb

198
Q

What is the optimal granule size of CO2 absorbents?

A

1/8 - 1/4 in.

199
Q

What is the water content of SodaLime

A

Absorbents are manufactured to have a water content between 13% and 20% by weight.

200
Q

Spit some facts about SodaLime

A

Turns purple (ethyl violet) when pH <10.3
Desiccation increases byproducts
-Sevo –> compound A
- Des and Iso –> CO
Majority Ca(OH)2
Does not regenerate - my change back to white

201
Q

What DISS connections are on an anesthesia workstation?

A

Air, N2O, O2
and
Scavenger suction

202
Q

If you had to go in and check a machine quickly/emergently. What three things would need to be checked?

A

Suction
Back-up ventilation equipment
High-Pressure Leak Test - to ensure positive pressure ventilation is available

203
Q

What does a semi-closed breathing circuit have in common with a closed breathing circuit?

A

Some amount of rebreathing
Both have reservoirs

204
Q

You’re in the middle of a case. Pt is starting to get tachycardic and HTN. You turn up your gas but your agent is actually going down. What do you think is going on?

A

Gas empty
Patient Disconnect
Vaporizer Leak
-o ring
-loose filler cap

205
Q

Your bellows collapse. What would and what wouldn’t cause that?

A

Disconnect
Failure of negative pressure relief valve
Open spill valve

206
Q

You lose your oxygen source, your pipeline source. But you have a piston-driven machine. What steps do and don’t you have to take?

A

You do not need to ventilate manually.
Open cylinders and phone a friend.

207
Q

Your patient becomes disconnected. What are multiple ways you might know that? What would not tell you if they become disconnected or not?

A

Low TV alarm
● Low PIP alarm
● Drop off of Co2 waveform
● No auscultation
● No chest rise or fall
● Reservoir bag not filling/emptying
● Deflated bellows (exhalation in standing)
● Late is low pulse ox

O2 analyzer will not alarm with a patient disconnect

208
Q

You have a certain kind of patient. Plan your anesthetic for your anesthesia workstation.

A

● Smoke inhalation or MH → want high FGF with no rebreathing → semi-open
● Pediatrics → low airway resistance → Mapleson

209
Q

Vent settings: VC; RR 6, TV 500, I:E ratio 1:4. How much time does pt spend inspiring

A

60/5 = 12sec

210
Q

Excess gasses & agents are managed through the use of:

A

● Scavenger
○ Via ventilator relief valve (aka spill valve) on bellows
○ Via APL valve on spontaneous ventilation
● CO2 absorber

211
Q

Taking patients to the CT, plan O2 for the trip, need 30 min. E-Cylinder, 10L/min, need how much pressure in O2 tank minimum?

A

total capacity (L) / total pressure

Minutes x L/min
30min x 10L/min = 300L

Plug into formula to find psi instead of Liters

Needed capacity (L) / required pressure

300L/ ? pressure

909psi

212
Q

The Law of Conservation of Electrical Charge states:

A

The total amount of electrical charge in the universe is constant. Charges are “simply” transferred.

213
Q

Charges that move are what chemical species and what is their charge?

A

Negatively charged electrons.

214
Q

What is electricity?

A

The flow of electrons - electron movement

215
Q

All electrical charges have an associated:

A

force field

216
Q

Stationary electric charges possess potential energy measured in joules. What is an example of a medical device that holds potential energy?

A

Defibrillator

217
Q

What is a conductor?

A

Any substance that permits the flow of electrons. Most metals are due to mostly empty electron shells.

218
Q

What is an insulator?

A

Any substance that does not allow the flow of electrons. Non-metallic.

219
Q

Can insulators hold a charge?

A

Yes. It can hold a static charge. ex: defibrillator charging

220
Q

What is an electrical current

A

The amount (magnitude) of charge flowing per unit time.

221
Q

What is resistance in terms of electricity?

A

The energy required to push electrons through a material

222
Q

What is an electrical circuit?

A

Electrical charge flowing through a closed path

223
Q

What is a Direct Circuit (DC). Give an example

A

Current flows in one direction only.
Ex: Energy commonly battery powered

224
Q

What is an Alternating Circuit (AC)
Give an example

A

Current periodically changes direction.
Ex: Derive energy from wall outlets or AC generators

225
Q

Describe a Series Circuit

A

There is only one path that the current can take. Voltages and resistances are additive.

226
Q

Describe a Parallel Circuit, give an example

A

Current can take more than one path. A unique current will flow through each resistor independently.
ex: household ciruits

227
Q

What is electrical power?

A

Power is the rate at which energy is expended or consumed

228
Q

What two variables impact Ohm’s Law

A

Resistance and Conductance

229
Q

What does Ohm’s Law describe?

A

the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided all physical conditions and temperatures remain constant.

230
Q

Power consumed by am electrical circuit is measured in?

A

Watts

231
Q

What is a semiconductor? What makes them “popular”?

A

Materials with conducting properties between those of insulators and conductors. The ability to control conductivity by the addition of small amounts of impurities “doping agents”

232
Q

Semiconductors are most commonly prepared from?

A

Silicon

233
Q

What are two types of semiconductors and what are they doped with?

A

P-Type: Positive type. Electron poor material composed of silicon and doped with Boron.

N-Type: Negative type. Electron rich material composed of silicon doped with Arsenic.

234
Q

What are diodes?

A

Electrical current elements that have a large conductance in one direction and a smaller conductance in the reverse direction.

235
Q

How is Spectroscopy used for in healthcare?

A

Analysis of blood work and oxygen pulse oximetry.

236
Q

Substances in spectroscopy absorb complementary color, red absorbs??

A

Greeeeen

237
Q

Beer’s Law describe the relationship between what three factors?

A

Absorptivity
Concentration of analyte
increasing the distance

238
Q

What is transmittance?

A

Fraction of light passing through a sample. Influenced by intensity of the light.

239
Q

What factors influence the strength of a shock?

A

The path of the current
The magnitude of the current
The duration of contact

240
Q

What devices can produce an electric shock?

A

EVERY energized device or electrical circuit has the potential for producing an electric shock

241
Q

What is a Macroshock

A

A relatively large amount of current flows through the body potentially resulting in injury or death

242
Q

What is a Microshock?

A

A relatively small current is delivered externally and finds is way to the heart via a low-resistance pathway

243
Q

A shock as little as _____ can casue ventricular fibrillation

A

100 uA

244
Q

What are 3 modern electrical safety devices?

A

Polarized plugs
Three-pronged grounded plugs
Ground Fault Circuit Interrupters (GFCIs)

245
Q

How do Fuses and Circuit Breakers provide safety?

A

Designed to prevent too much current from flowing because of a short circuit or circuit overlaid.

Fuse: contains a metal strip that heats up due to the resistance of the metal to the electrical current. If current exceeds the rated value of the fuse, metal strip will melt and stop current flow. Must be replaced.

Circuit: Same principle as fuse but metal bends instead of melts. Can be reset.

246
Q

What are three items in the OR that use three-pronged plugs and grounded outlets?

A

IV pumps
Anesthesia Gas Machine
Cell Saver

247
Q

Ground Fault Circuit Interrupters are usually used where?

A

Near water sources

248
Q

To further reduce the likelihood of shock in the OR, most ORs use what kind of circuits?

A

Isolated Ungrounded Electrical Circuits
simply referred to as Isolated Circuits or Ungrounded Circuits

249
Q

To make an Ungrounded Circuit, what is required?

A

An isolation transformer. Works through electromagnetic induction. No direct connection between the primary circuit [electrical source] and secondary circuit [site of electrical use].

250
Q

What are Line Isolation Monitors

A

Indicates isolation circuit has been compromised. However, allows circuit to remain functional.

251
Q

How do you identify the faulty piece of equipment setting off the line isolation monitor?

A

Sequentially unplugging one piece of equipment at a time until the indicated current on the LIM drops below the limit and silences.

252
Q

What are the two types of Electrosurgery methods

A

Unipolar: requires grounding pad to complete circuit. Current passes through the body to grounding pad.

Bipolar: Utilizes two closest-spaced electrodes. Current flows between them and not through the rest of the body.

253
Q

Thermal destruction of tissue through ESU creates what % of air contaminants

A

95% water
5% particulate matter, volatile gases, and microorganisms.

254
Q

CO2 lasers produce contaminants equal to 3-6 cigarettes by burning how much tissue?

A

Only 1 gram!

255
Q

Pacemakers are an electrical shock risk. What should be placed on them during surgery?

A

Magnet. Interrogate before and after surgery.

Foundations of Anesthesia 1 (24 decks)

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