Exam 2 part VI Flashcards

1
Q

DOA of atropine IM

A

2-4 hrs

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2
Q

adult dose of scopolamine adult IV/IM

A

0.3-0.6 mg

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3
Q

peds premed dose of scopolamine

A

6 mcg/kg IV/IM

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4
Q

DOA of scopolamine IV

A

30-60 min

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5
Q

DOA of scopolamine IM

A

4-6 hrs

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6
Q

transdermal scoplamine patch is a ____________ mg dose and should be applied __________ hrs prior to surgery

A

1.0; 4

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7
Q

which anticholinergic has the most potent: antisialagogue, sedation, amnestic effects?

A

scopolamine

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8
Q

which anticholinergic has pronounced ocular effects

A

scopolamine

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9
Q

scopolamine transdermal antiemetic onset is within __________ hrs and lasts up to _______________

A

4; 72

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10
Q

amnesia with scopolamine IV is achieved within ___________ minutes and lasts up to ____________ hrs

A

10; 2

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11
Q

antiemetic effects of scopolamine if given IM occurs within ___________ min and lasts up to ____________ hours

A

15-30; 4

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12
Q

Glycopyrolate adult dose premed IV/IM

A

0.1-0.2 mg

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13
Q

pediatric premed dose of glycopyrolate ________________ IV /IM

A

4-8 mcg/kg

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14
Q

onset of glycopyrolate

A

2-3 min

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15
Q

DOA of glycopyrolate IV

A

2-4 hours

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16
Q

DOA of glycopyrolate IM

A

6-9 hours

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17
Q

dose of ipratroprium bromide

A

0.5 mg metered dose inhaler

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18
Q

sugammadex aka __________

A

bridion

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19
Q

sugammadex is for the reversal of what NDMR

A

rocuronium or vecuronium

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20
Q

dose of suggamadex if you have 2/4 TOF twitches

A

2 mg/kg

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21
Q

dose of suggamadex if you have 0/4 twitches in TOF with 1-2 post-tetanic twitches

A

4 mg/kg

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22
Q

dose of suggamadex if you have to reverse a 1.2 mg/kg dose of rocuronium within 3 minutes of administration

A

16 mg/kg

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23
Q

if you administer sugammadex (bridion) you must wait to redose NDMR btwn ______ -________ depending on the dose given and pt renal fx

A

5 min; 24 hours

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24
Q

metabolism of sugammadex

A

no metabolites; 95% excreted in the urine unchanged

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25
half life of sugammadex
2 hours
26
if pt has severe renal failure, what is the 1/2 life of sugammadex
19 hours
27
sugammadex is _______% protein boudn
0
28
contraindications of suggamdex
1. hypersensitivity reactions (skin irritation - anaphylaxis) 2. severe renal impairment with dialysis 3. marked bradycardia
29
MOA of suggamadex
1. modified gamma cyclodextrin 2. forms a roc/vec and reduces the amount of NDMR available to bind to the nicotinic receptor in the NMJ
30
s/e of suggamadex
1. HA 2. N/V 3. pain 4. marked bradycardia 5. Hotension
31
sugammadex is incompatible with what meds
1. zofran 2. verapamil 3. rantinidine
32
dose adjustment of suggamadex is only necessary for ______________ renal dz
SEVERE
33
if uses hormonal (oral / non-oral) contraceptive and you use suggamadex to reverse them in surgery, what should you educate them on?
use a different form of contraception for at least 7 days
34
recovery of NDMR even with suggamadex can be prolonged if the patient is on what medication
toremifene (estrogen receptor antagonist used for metastatic breast cancer in post menopausal women)
35
NDMR + NDMR = __________________ block
augmented
36
SUC + NDMR = _____________________
antagonism of depolarizing block
37
NDMR + anticholinesterase = ____________________
antagonize
38
SUC + anticholinesterase = ______________________
augment
39
what is the preferred site for PNS with emergence
adductor pollicis
40
which electrode is closest to the wrist when using adductor pollicis for PNS
black
41
preferred PNS site for intubation
facial
42
which PNS site is the best site for predicting vocal cord paralysis
facial
43
which PNS site closely mimics upper airway musculature
adductor pollicis
44
which PNS site is the Least reliable site?
peroneal placement
45
with peroneal PNS placement, the black electrode goes where
below the internal malleolus
46
single twitch sends _____________ stimuli over _______ seconds at __________ Hz
1; 0.2; 0.1-1
47
TOF sends ___________ stimuli over ___________ seconds at ____________ Hz
4; 2; 2 (0.5 sec apart)
48
Double burst sends _______________ stimuli over _____________ seconds at __________ Hz
6; 0.8; 50
49
Tetany sends ______________ stimuli for _____________ seconds at _________ Hz
250; 5; 50-100
50
what is the most commonly used PNS mode
train of four
51
double burst is used to determine _____________
fade
52
which PNS twitch mode needs a baseline prior to drug administration
single twitch
53
which PNS twitch mode is qualitative rather than quantitative assessment, thus has limited clinical usefulness
single twitch
54
PNS single twitch can be repeated when?
> 10 seconds
55
with TOF twitches fade as relaxation _________________
increases
56
TOF reflects blockade from _________ to ___________%
70; 100
57
TOF is useful during which parts of anesthesia
onset, maintenance, & emergence
58
TOF and double burst twitch patterns can be repeated in _______________ s
15-Dec
59
T/F: double burst is more sensitive than TOF for the clinical evaluation of fade
TRUE
60
w/ PNS tetany if the contraction is sustained for 5 seconds this indicates what
adequate reversal, but not necessarily complete