Anesthesia Pharm Test 1 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the most popular benzos for IV anesthetics

A
  1. diazepam 2. lorazepam 3. midazolam
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2
Q

structure of benzos

A

heterocyclic ring structure with benzene & diazepene ring

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3
Q

_________________ is the one benzodiazepine that has a imidazole ring as primary structure allowing it to dissolve in aqueous solutions

A

midazolam

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4
Q

midazolam undergoes conformational change once in the blood stream making it more _________________

A

lipophillic

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5
Q

_________________ rose to popularity for their anterograde amnesia, anxiolytic, and sedative effects with miminal s/e

A

benzodiazepines

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6
Q

which benzo has the greatest incidence of causing phlebitis

A

diazepam

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7
Q

benzos are highly _________________, and ___________________ protein bound

A

lipophilic; highly

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8
Q

metabolism of benzodiazepines

A

liver via CYP450

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9
Q

excretion of bz

A

renal

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10
Q

MOA of benzodiazepines

A

bind to allosteric site of GABA-A receptor in the cortex and brainstem causing Cl- channels to open more frequently

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11
Q

CNS effects of benzos

A
  1. dose dependent CNS effect 2. small amount of centrally mediated muscle relaxation 3. higher dose = sedation 4. lower dose = anxiolytic
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12
Q

CV effects of benzo

A
  1. induction dose –> decrease of SVR and BP 2. otherwise HD stable
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13
Q

respiratory effects of benzos

A
  1. depress upper airway reflexes (esp with other sed/opioids) 2. caution in those with OSA/compromised airway
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14
Q

benzos are primarily used for what

A

pre-medication for sedation

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15
Q

which drug is primarily used as pre-medication for sedation

A

midazolam

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16
Q

what drug is typically used as a first line therapy for status epilepticus

A

lorazepam

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17
Q

for peds, if you give midazolam pre-procedure you give ________ mg/kg via __________ route, _________ min prior to procedure

A

0.5; p.o; 30

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18
Q

s/e of benzos

A
  1. irritation and phlebitis 2. delirium in elderly and critically ill
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19
Q

_______________ is a benzodiazepine reversal agent

A

flumazenil

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20
Q

MOA of flumazenil

A

competitive antagonist with high affinity to the “benzo” receptor site on the GABA-A receptor

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21
Q

dose of flumazenil

A

administer 0.2 mg then redose at 0.1 mg as needed

22
Q

typically ________ mg of flumazenil is enough to reverse sedation, but you may need ___________ mg to reverse bz toxicity

23
Q

flumazenil will act within __________ min and has a duration of action of __________ min

A

1-2; 45-90

24
Q

c/i of flumazenil

A
  1. seizure d/o 2. Bz dependance
25
T/F: flumazenil has a short 1/2 when compared to bz
TRUE
26
propofol "SHARP LAD"
1. stimulates GABA 2. hypotension 3. antiemetic qualities 4. respiratory depression 5. pain on injection 6. lipid soluble 7. avoid in allergies 8. decreases CBF and ICP
27
what is the most widely used IV anesthetic drug
propofol
28
T/F: propofol is recognized as "essential medicine"
TRUE
29
what feature of propofol allows for "fast-on, fast-off"
highly lipophillic structure
30
propofol is formulated as an emulsion of ?
soybean oil, glycerol, and egg lecithin
31
all vials of propofol are single use and syringes should be discarded after __________ hours, and vials after __________ hours
6; 12
32
propofol formulation adds what preservatives to reduce the infection risk in the vial?
ETDA + sodium metabisulfite or benzyl alcohol
33
propofol is metabolized in the liver by _____________, _____________, & ______________
CYP2B6; UGTHP4; CYP2C6
34
plasma clearance of propofol is high and exceeds hepatic blood flow, therefore ____________________ metabolism is vital
extra-hepatic sites of
35
what are the extrahepatic sites of metabolism for propofol
lungs and kidneys
36
MOA of propofol
allosterically binds to GABA-A in brainstem and cortex increases the receptor affinity for GABA (thus increasing more GABA to the bind to the receptors)
37
which IV anesthetic can cause a total isoelectric EEG with higher dose
propofol
38
CNS effects of propofol
1. dose dependent anxiolysis 2. sedation 3. amnesia 4. lowers CMRO2, ICP, and CPP 5. aniemetic effect 6. anti-epileptic effect
39
__________________ is used as neuroprotective agent when combined with other agents
propofol
40
CV effects of propofol
induction --> decrease BP, MAP, and CO
41
respiratory effects of propofol
1. bronchodilatory 2. dose dependent apnea 3. decreases TV and response to hypoxia/hypercarbia
42
T/F: in diprivan there is a preservative than can predispose pts to bronchospasm
false; only in generic propofol is there a preservative that predisposes to bronchospasm, not diprivan
43
uses of propofol
1. induction of anesthesia 2. TIVA 3. sedation 4. PONV
44
induction dose of propofol for adults
1-2.5 mg/kg
45
induction dose of propofol in children
2.5-3.5 mg/kg
46
infusion rate of propofol for TIVA
100-200 mcg/kg/min
47
infusion rate of propofol for sedation
25-75 mcg/kg/min
48
dose of propofol infusion for PONV prevention
10-30 mcg/kg/min
49
s/e of propofol
1. pain on injection 2. allergic response 2/2 egg lecithin 3. PRIS
50
PRIS is seen in icu patients on propofol at dose of > ________ mg/kg/hr for more than ___________ hours
4; 48