Anesthesia Pharm Test 1 Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different roles of IV anesthetics

A
  1. sedation spectrum 2. anxiolysis 3. hypnotic 4. general anesthesia
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2
Q

what is an IV anesthetic

A

substance that when administered directly to the patient IV it can be used to induce or maintain a state of general anesthesia

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3
Q

define induction

A

transition from a state of awareness to loss of consciousness

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4
Q

what is a sedative

A

agent used to exert an anxiolytic effect by reducing anxiety and causing calmness

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5
Q

what is a hypnotic

A

agent that causes drowsiness as well as the onset and maintenance of sleep

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6
Q

what is a sedative hypnotic

A

drug class that is capable of anxiety relief (sedation) as well as inducing sleep (hypnosis)

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7
Q

T/F: chemical structure is what classifies a medication as a sedative hypnotic

A

false; it is based on clinical use rather than chemical structure

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8
Q

what are the most frequently used classes of IV anesthetics

A
  1. barbiturates 2. nonbarbiturates 3. benzodiazepines 4. miscellaneous (precedex)
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9
Q

characteristics of the “ideal” IV anesthetic

A
  1. rapid and smooth onset and recovery 2. provides analgesia 3. minimal cardiac and respiratory depression 4. water soluble aqueous base 5. anti-emetic action 6. bronchodilation 7. lack of toxicity or histamine release 8. advantageous PK and PD (i.e. reference to therapeutic index)
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10
Q

T/F: propofol is defined as an “ideal” IV anesthetic

A

false; there is no ideal IV anesthetic (bc they all have their s/e and drawbacks)

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11
Q

the vessel rich group (brain, heart, liver, kidney, endocrine glands) are __________% of body mass and recieve _________% of CO

A

10; 75

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12
Q

IV anesthetics ________________ structure allow them to rapidly penetrate the blood brain barrier to exert central effects

A

lipophillic

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13
Q

T/F: IV anesthetics are inactive once they reach the muscle group

A

TRUE

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14
Q

distribution of a propofol bolus has 3 phases, what are they?

A
  1. rapid distribution (alpha phase) 2. slow distribution (beta phase) 3. elimination
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15
Q

the kinetics of propofol (and other IVA infusions) is described by the ___________________

A

three compartment model

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16
Q

describe the three compartment model

A

IVA infusion when administered begins in the central compartment and then distributes peripherally

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17
Q

IVA “steady state”

A

4 half-lives with administration rate = elimination rate

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18
Q

according to the three compartment model, when can the IVA infusion rate be lowered?

A

when the peripheral compartments begin to saturate an appropriate blood concentration

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19
Q

what is context sensitive half time

A

the time to achieve a 50% reduction in concentration after stopping a continuous infusion

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20
Q

__________________ have a pyrimidine center with either a sulfur or an oxygen in the number 2 position

A

barbiturates

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21
Q

barbiturates are associated with incidence of ________________ in 10-60% of patients

22
Q

why did the popularity of barbiturates decline?

A
  1. hang over effect 2. narrow therapeutic index 3. evolution of newer safer drugs
23
Q

what is the oldest IV anesthetic drug?

A

barbiturates

24
Q

addition of a ______________ atom to barbiturates made the drugs more lipid soluble and increased potency

A

sulfur (in place of oxygen) (aka thiobarbiturate)

25
thiopental and methohexital are what types of drugs
barbiturates
26
primary metabolism of barbituates occurs in the ______________, but thiopental has some ____________ metabolism too
liver; renal
27
1/2 life of thiopental
12 hours (10x that of propofol)
28
when a barbiturate is administered as an IV bolus, it exhibits ________________ order kinetics
zero
29
1/2 life of methohexital
4 hours
30
T/F: barbiturates are not ideal as an infusion
true; due to the prolonged context sensitive half life
31
MOA of barbiturates
binds at the barbiturate specific site of the GABA-A receptor in the cortex and brainstem & inhibits excitatory pathways at the NMDA receptor
32
which medication class is neuroprotective due to flow metabolism coupling
barbiturates
33
_______________ is an ideal neuro protectant and anticonvulsant drug, however, at lower doses can be a pro-convulsants
thiopental (barb)
34
which drug is used for ECT due to pro-convulsant effects
methohexital
35
_________________ drugs can decrease CMRO2 by 50% with their "flow metabolism coupling" effects
barbiturates
36
the flow metabolism coupling of barbiturates leads to a reverse steal effect which is ideal for _____________ neuro injuries but not ___________ neuro injuries
focal; global
37
CV effects of barbiturates
1. decrease MAP and CO post induction 2. negative inotropic effects 3. reflex increase in heart rate 2/2 baroreceptor
38
ventilatory response to CO2 2/2 barbiturate administration is noted after _______ minutes
6
39
respiratory effects of barbiturates
1. dose dependent respiratory depression 2. apnea within 1 - 1.5 minutes 3. no bronchodilatory effect
40
thiopental has the risk of __________________ 2/2 histamine release
bronchospasm/laryngospasm
41
induction dose of thiopental in adults
2.5 - 5 mg/kg
42
induction dose of thiopental in children
5-6 mg/kg
43
methohexital induction dose IV
1-2 mg/kg
44
methohexital induction dose if given rectally
25 mg/kg
45
dose of methohexital infusion rate?
50 - 150 mcg/kg/min
46
using ____________ or ____________ as a pre-medication before induction with methohexital or thiopental (barbs) can reduce the required induction dose by _________%
precedex; versed; 50
47
what situations should the barbiturate dose administered be reduced?
1. elderly 2. HF 3. liver failure 4. shock 5. anemia 6. obesity
48
all barbiturates are contraindicated in what patients?
those with intermittent porphyria (exaggerates the sx)
49
erronous thiopental arterial administration can lead to the formation of ______________ which causes ____________ and ______________
crystal; vasospasm; thrombus
50
s/e of methohexital
pain on injection