Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing > Exam 2 Memorization > Flashcards

Exam 2 Memorization Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Coordination of movement tied with skeletal System

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A

3-15 and tests for level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Divisions of Glasgow

A

Eye movement, motor-response, verbal response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Four Coma Scale

A

Tests four different categories which all range from 1-4. Tests for unconcienceness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cerebral Cortex

A

Location in the brain where people are able to understand language or express thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aphasia:

A

w/o speech caused by injury to cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sensory Aphasia

A

inability to understand written/spoken language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Motor Aphasia:

A

inability to express, write, or speak appropriately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cranial Nerve 1

A

Olfactory, sensory, smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cranial Nerve 2

A

Oculomotor, sensory, visual information to brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cranial Nerve 3

A

oculomotor, motor, extra ocular movement, pupil size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cranial Nerve 4

A

Trochlear: motor: up-down eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cranial Nerve 5

A

Trigeminal: Motor & Sensory: Jaw movement & facial feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cranial Nerve 6

A

Abducens: Motor: lateral eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cranial Nerve 7

A

Facial: Sensory & motor: taste on the front of the tongue: controls facial expression (frown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cranial Nerve 8

A

Auditory Nerve: Sensory: Hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cranial Nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal: Sensory + motor: gag-reflex + taste on the back of the throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cranial Nerve 10

A

Vegus: Sensory + Motor: Swallowing + movement of the vocal cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cranial Nerve 11

A

Spinal Accessory: Motor: Movement of head and shoulders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cranial Nerve 12:

A

Hypoglossal: motor: positioning of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Radiculpathy

A

pain traveling along the nerve line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stenosis:

A

Narrowing of the nerve pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dermopaths

A

Areas of skin applied by nerve fibers from a single spinal route. Different dermatomes tell us where there is breakdown in the nerve pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sensory Receptors

A

Transmit info to spinal chord to the brain for interpretation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Motor Nerves

A

Interrelated to the muscular skeletal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Portion of brain responsible for motor response

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

DTR

A

Deep Tendon Reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Muscle Spindle

A

units in every muscle which controls muscle tone and lengths and changes in muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hypermagnesium

A

Disappearance of DTR. Magnesium Sulfate drip is used for mothers with HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Romberg Test

A

Tests motor nerves through testing balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ADL

A

Activities of Daily Living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Active ROM

A

How much can they do on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Passive ROM

A

How much they can do with assistance (prevents contractures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Contractures

A

permanent shortening of muscles that occurs when the muscle remains inactive for a long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Kyphosis:

A

Exaggeration of the posterior thoracic spine curvature which can be due to osteoporosis. Affects other body systems like breathing because there is more weight on your diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Deterioration of bone mass. Bones get thin and stiff and they shorten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dexascan:

A

determines bone density. Ultrasound of heel, x-ray of spine or hip to determine loss of bone mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bone mineral Density Test

A

Women get this at 40-60 y/o. Test taken at heel where there is dense bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Causes for Osteoporosis:

A

Little/no exercise. Women. Estrogen. Blonde/red-hair. 80% females. Low calcium intake (less than 500mg a day). Long term usage of steroids. Metabolic disorders. Increases risk for fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lordosis

A

Aka: swayback. Increased lumbar curvature. Often in young children. Causes: neuromuscular from hip problems or posture. TX: lumbar/posture management + exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Scoliosis

A

Lateral curvature of the spine. Begin screen for this at age 11-14 or at completion of growth spurts. Treatment with rods if over 40 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Palpation

A

Feel joints, muscles (spasms), bones, warmth, tenderness, edema, resistance to pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Crepitus

A

Popping of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Flexion

A

Decreasing angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Extension

A

Increasing angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hyperextension

A

Overly extending an extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

pronation

A

palms down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

supination

A

palms up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

abduction

A

towards the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

adduction

A

Toward the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

internal rotation

A

Rotation towards the center of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

external rotation

A

rotation away from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Eversion

A

Rotate the ankle away from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Inversion

A

Rotation of the ankle medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Toes pointed toward the sky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Toes pointed downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hypertonicity

A

increase in tightness that leads to spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hypotonicity

A

Flaccidity of the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Atrophy

A

Loss of muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

test for muscle strength

A

test their muscular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Prone

A

Lying on the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Supine

A

Laying on the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

side-lying

A

laying on one side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Sims

A

Laying on the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Fowlers

A

sitting at 80-90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Semi-Fowlers

A

sitting 30-45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Dorsal Recumbent

A

Supine with your knees up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Lithotomy

A

Feet up and knees up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Knee Chest:

A

Downward dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Trendelenburg Position

A

Head below feet. Used for hypotensive pts to increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Bell Palsy:

A

Half the face is paralyzed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Canes

A

Fall at the creases of the hands when arms are limp. Goes on strong side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Walking with cane

A

cane-weakleg-strongleg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

SCD

A

Inflates and delates to compress leg to avoid blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Incentive Spirometry

A

Lung exercise where you breath into a tube. Breath IN. For asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Parasteasia

A

Numbness/tingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Reverse Trendelenburg

A

Helps with breathing for supine only pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

NSADS

A

Could bring about stomach ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

dysphaGIa

A

difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Steroids

A

Prednisone may cause GI bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Enuresis

A

Bedwetting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Flatulence

A

Farting. When this begins after a surgery, you may begin to feed your pt. again

83
Q

nocturia

A

peeing a lot at night

84
Q

Anuria

A

no urine

85
Q

Polyuria

A

excessive urine

86
Q

stress incontinence

A

when stress is placed on the bladder, you pee

87
Q

Hematuria

A

Blood in the urine

88
Q

Pyuria

A

pus in the urine

89
Q

Normal Output

A

1000-2000 mL per 24/h

90
Q

30 mL/hour

A

Notify physician

91
Q

peristalsis

A

stomach pushing stool

92
Q

Abdominal Aortic Aneurism

A

Weakened blood vessel walls that build blood like a balloon. Visible pulsation in stomach

93
Q

Diaphragm

A

use for bowel

94
Q

Bell

A

Use for abdominal aorta for a brewy which is a forceful sound of blood running.

95
Q

Borborigamy

A

hunger sounds

96
Q

Rebound Tenderness

A

pain when you do a deep palpation and then take your hands off right away.

97
Q

Hemacult

A

tests for blood in the stool. Test will appear blue when hemacult depressor is added.

98
Q

Order of Abdominal assessment

A

Inspect, Auscultate, Palpate

99
Q

Vertical and horizontal planes of abdomen

A

Vertical: diploid process and symphysis pubis
Horizontal: across umbilicus

100
Q

RUQ

A

Liver, Gallbladder, Duodenum, Head of Pancreas, Right adrenal glad, right kidney, portions of ascending and transverse colon

101
Q

LUQ

A

Left Lobe of liver, stomach, spleen, body of pancreas, left adrenal and kidney, portions of transverse and descending colon

102
Q

RLQ

A

Cecum, appendix, portions of right kidney, right ovary and Fallopian tube, section of ascending colon, right ureter

103
Q

LLQ

A

portion of left kidney, portion of descending colon, signed colon, left ovary and Fallopian tube, left ureter

104
Q

Anti-Biotics

A

Replace them with probiotics

105
Q

Natural Laxatives

A

Hot water, prune juice, bran

106
Q

Black stool

A

iron or upper GI bleed

107
Q

Red stool

A

Lower GI bleed or hemorrhoids

108
Q

White/Clay stool

A

lack of bile or fats. Seen in sorosis, hepatitis, and liver problems

109
Q

Morphine

A

Slows down bowel function

110
Q

Constipation

A

Straining while pooping and lack of bowl for over three days

111
Q

Diarrhea

A

Increase in # of stools r/t liquid. Malabsorption, digestion, or body cannot digest electrolytes

112
Q

Incontinence

A

Inability to control bowels

113
Q

Distension

A

Too much gas in the stomach that can lead to the expansion of the stomach and blood vessels which can cause breathing problems

114
Q

Fecal impaction

A

Large stool stuck in GI tract but liquid can get around it

115
Q

Sorosis

A

Bleeding of the liver

116
Q

Oliguria

A

Diminished urine output (under 400mL a day)

117
Q

Retention

A

Inability to empty your entire bladder (DM, Prostate)

118
Q

Dysuria

A

Painful urination

119
Q

Pyuria

A

Pus in the urine

120
Q

Kwashiorkor

A

Babies who wane form breasts without proper nutrition or protein intake

121
Q

Marasmus

A

Syndrom deficiency in protein or calories

122
Q

Cachexia

A

Malnutrition/wasting most often r/t cancer

123
Q

Visible Peristalsis

A

Beating of aneurysm

124
Q

Hypoactive Bowel

A

Less than 1 sound every 35 seconds. R/t surgery, NPO, inflammation, fluid imbalance

125
Q

Hyperactive Bowel

A

more than 34 seconds, diarrhea or obstruction

126
Q

Borborygmi

A

Stomach growling due to hunger, bleeding, or anxiety

127
Q

Fluid Output

A

5x a day WA

128
Q

Large Intestine

A

Primary organ for bowel elimination; also absorbs about 1000mL of water every day.

129
Q

Small Intestine

A

Breaks down nutrients through enzymes (proteins/carbohydrates)

130
Q

3 Parts of Small Intestine

A

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

131
Q

When is voluntary bowel function gained

A

22-36mo

132
Q

Decrease in Muscle Tone in adults

A

Leads to constipation or diarrhea

133
Q

Foods that cause constipation

A

Cheese, lean meat, eggs, past

134
Q

Foods that are considered laxatives

A

Fruits, veggies, bran, alcohol, coffee, chocolate

135
Q

Foods that increase flatulence

A

beans, onions, cabbage, cauliflower

136
Q

Antibiotics Affects on the Bowel

A

Green/grey diarrhea

137
Q

Endoscopy

A

Direct visualization of GI. Requires a NPO diet

138
Q

Esophogogastroduadenoscopy (EGD)

A

Looks at the lining of the stomach, esophagus, and stomach

139
Q

Colonoscopy

A

Camera through the large intestine via rectum

140
Q

Sigmoidoscopy

A

Goes only to sigmoid to detect diverticulitis

141
Q

Wireless Capsule Endoscopy

A

Swallowing a camera that takes pictures as it passes through the small GI to check disruption in stomach linings

142
Q

Indirect visualization

A

Non-invasive procedure to see what is going on in the GI

143
Q

KUB

A

Indirect Visualization: abdominal xray

144
Q

VGI

A

Small bowel series: contrast ingested and then an X-ray reveals how the contrast moves through the system. Non-invasive

145
Q

Barium Enema

A

Contrast that is ingested to reveal how the liquid moves through the lower GI

146
Q

Abdominal Ultrasound

A

Looks at the soft tissue organs in the abdomen

147
Q

MRI

A

Most thorough (you can see the blood cells). Radiation is a risk and this is also very expensive

148
Q

Abdominal CT scan

A

Radiation is involved in this procedure and it shows the body in planes

149
Q

Constipation

A

Dry, hard stool or persistency in difficult passage of stool or incomplete passage of stool

150
Q

Antacids

A

White discoloration or speckling in stool

151
Q

Iron Salts

A

Cause black stool

152
Q

Hemoccult

A

Uses a solution of guaiac to test for presence of blood

153
Q

High risk for constipation

A

Pts:
- on bedrest taking constipating medicines
- reduced fluids or bulk in their diet
- depressed
- central nervous system disease or local lesions that cause pain while defecating

154
Q

Oil Retention Enemas

A

Lubricates the stool and intestinal mucosa, easing defection

155
Q

Carminative Enemas

A

Helps expel flatus from the rectum

156
Q

Medicated Enemas

A

Provide medicines that are absorbed through the rectal mucosa

157
Q

Anthelmintic Enemas

A

Destroys parasites

158
Q

NG Tubes

A

Drain the stomach of fluid or unwanted stomach contents, give the stomach a break after surgery, and monitor gastrointestinal bleeding

159
Q

Colostomy

A

Located anywhere along the length of the Large Intestine. The further along in the GI tract, the more solid the stool will be, reusable or disposable, stomadhersive is cut and placed around the stoma to protect the skin from urine or stool

160
Q

Ileostomy

A

Empties from the end of the small intestine. Water is not absorbed so stool is liquid. Cannot be irrigated and pouch must be worn 24/7. Essentially cuts off the entire Large Intestine and can lead to dehydration because 1000mL are no longer being absorbed by the Large Intestine

161
Q

Nasmosis

A

Rejoining a tract after a colostomy

162
Q

Stoma

A

The portion of the intestine that comes out of the body after a colostomy

163
Q

urterostomy

A

Permanent fistula or drainage of a ureter through the abdominal wall

164
Q

ileoloop/ileoconduit

A

ureter drains into a portion of the ileum which forms a “bladder” with an artificial opening into the abdominal wall. A straight catheter can still be placed for drainage of this “bladder”

165
Q

New Stoma Assessment

A

q2h= first 24 hours post op
q4h= 28-72 hours post op
q4-8h=routinely

166
Q

Healthy stoma

A

Highly vascular, beefy red, and smooth

167
Q

Colostomy Care

A

Use clean technique, keep pt free of odors if possible and only allow the appliance to get 1/3 full. Measure I&O

168
Q

Enterostomal Therapist & Wound Ostomoy Continence Nurse

A

Specialize in ostomies

169
Q

Large volume enema

A

500-1000-2000mL given 500-700mL at a time

170
Q

Small Dose Enemas

A

4-6 oz

171
Q

BP and enemas

A

BP goes down due to loss of volume so be careful with orthostatic pts. Also, take BP before you give them an enema

172
Q

Dolhoff Tube

A

Typically used for feeding/medication

173
Q

Peg/GTube

A

tube that goes into the stomach with balloon. This is used for longer term patients

174
Q

Enteral Nutrition

A

Eating through the gut (GI tract or GI tube)

175
Q

Parenteral Nutrition

A

Eating without the gut (through blood)

176
Q

GRE

A

Gastric Residual Volume: is pt absorbing nutrition? How much is in the stomach? Aspirate until there is nothing and if there is less than 200mL notify the physician. Put back what you pulled out

177
Q

Administering meds through feeding tube

A

30mL water, med, 30 mL water

178
Q

Bladder

A

Smooth muscle tissue (detrusor muscle) sac innervated by the ANS. Sphincter guards opening between urinary bladder and urethra

179
Q

Micturition

A

Voiding/emptying a bladder

180
Q

200mL/800mL

A

When we feel the urge to pee/how much liquid our bladder can hold

181
Q

diuretics

A

Prevent reabsorption of water and certain electrolytes in tubules

182
Q

Cholinergic

A

Stimulation contraction of detrusor muscle producing urination

183
Q

Analgesics

A

suppress CNA and diminish effectiveness of neural reflex

184
Q

Polyuria

A

Excessive Urine

185
Q

Dysuria

A

Painful urine

186
Q

Enuresis

A

Bedwtting

187
Q

Anuria

A

Less than 50mL of urine in a day

188
Q

pH of urine

A

4.6-8 (average 5-6)

189
Q

WBC in urine

A

indicates a UTI

190
Q

Specific Gravity

A

Measures the concentration of solutes in the urine. WNL: 1.01-1.025. Dehydration has a higher specific gravity

191
Q

24 Hour Urine Collection

A

Discard first void and keep on ice

192
Q

BUN

A

Measures Urea nitrogen in the blood. Liver metabolism. WNL: 10-20mg/dl

193
Q

Creatinine

A

More sensitive that BUN. Breakdown of skeletal muscle tissue. WNL: F: 0.5-1 M: 0.6-1.3

194
Q

BUS

A

Bladder ultrasound.How much pee is left in the bladder? Used for post void residual

195
Q

KUB

A

xray for kidneys, ureters, and bladder

196
Q

Urodynamic Studies

A

Series of tests used to evaluate how everything is working

197
Q

Cystoscopy

A

Procedure which allows visualization of the bladder lining

198
Q

IVP:

A

Intravenous Pyelogram: IV contrast is xrayed to evaluate the kidneys

199
Q

CAUTI

A

Catheter associated UTI

200
Q

Straight Cath

A

16-18 French is the normal size. Does not stay in. Sterile procedure

201
Q

Retention/Foley Cath

A

Stays in for about three days. 16-18 French. Hook to stationary part of the bed

202
Q

Coude Foley Cath

A

Used for men with enlarged prostates

203
Q

Suprapubic Cath

A

Cath inserted directly into the bladder from the abdomen just about the symphysis pubis. Decreased infection rate

Nursing (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions