Exam 2 - Lecture Notes Flashcards

1
Q

thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) effect

A

stimulate basal metabolic rate

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2
Q

calcitonin effect

A

reduces blood Ca2+ levels

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3
Q

parathyroid hormone effect

A

increases blood Ca2+ levels

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4
Q

aldosterone effect

A

increases blood Na+ levels

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5
Q

cortisol, corticosterone, cortisone effect

A

increase blood glucose levels

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6
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine effects

A

stimulate fight or flight response

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7
Q

insulin effect

A

reduce blood glucose levels

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8
Q

glucagon effect

A

increases blood glucose levels

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9
Q

testosterone effects

A

stimulates development of male secondary sex characteristics and sperm production

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10
Q

estrogens and progesterone effects

A

stimulate development of female secondary sex characteristics and prepare the body for childbirth

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11
Q

the release of adrenal glucocorticoids is stimulated by the release of hormones from the _________ and ________ _________

A

hypothalamus and pituitary gland

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12
Q

the signal to release glucocorticoids is ___________ (inhibited/stimulated) when glucocorticoid levels become elevated causing ________ (negative/positive) signals to the pituitary gland and hypothalamus

A

inhibited; negative

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13
Q

what class of hormones are glucocorticoids?

A

steroid hormones

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14
Q

glucocorticoids are pleiotropic. what are the many effects it can have?

A
  • glucose metabolism
  • chronic stress response
  • anti-inflammatory
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15
Q

main glucocorticoids in mammals

A

cortisol and cortisone

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16
Q

main glucocorticoids in birds and rodents

A

corticosterone

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17
Q

_______ _______ directly accelerates the rate of protein synthesis in skeletal muscles and bones

A

growth hormone

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18
Q

what does IGF-1 stand for?

A

insulin-like growth factor 1

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19
Q

what is activated by growth hormones and indirectly supports the formation of new proteins in muscle cells and bones?

A

IGF-1

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20
Q

GH is one of the most ___________ hormones

A

pleiotropic

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21
Q

the _____ (organ) releases IGF-1, further stimulating growth effects

A

liver

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22
Q

what are the effects of GH?

A
  • glucose-sparing effect
  • growth effects
  • diabetogenic effect
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23
Q

what is the glucose sparing effect of growth hormone?

A

stimulates adipose cells to break down stored fat, fueling growth effects

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24
Q

what are the growth effects caused by growth hormone?

A

it targets bone cells, muscle cells, nervous system cells, and immune cells. It increases the uptake of amino acids from the blood. enhances cellular proliferation and reduces apoptosis.

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25
Q

what inhibits growth hormone?

A

a high levels of IGF-1 is perceived by the hypothalamus and GHIH is released to inhibit the release of GH

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26
Q

where is the thyroid gland located?

A

sits on top of the cartilage of the trachea

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27
Q

where is the parathyroid hormone located?

A

imbedded in the thyroid, located int he back of the thyroid

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28
Q

What is this imaging showing?

A

thyroid follicle cells

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29
Q

a classic __________ feedback loop controls the regulation of thyroid hormone levels

A

negative

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30
Q

increased levels of ____ and ____ inhibits TRH and TSH

A

T3 and T4

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31
Q

_______ is required for synthesis of T3 and T4. a deficiency in it impairs ability to synthesize the hormones leading to severe disorders like goiter.

A

iodine

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32
Q

what disease is this: thyroglobulin accumulates in the thyroid gland follicles increasing the deposit of colloids increasing the overall size of the thyroid gland

A

goiter

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33
Q

what is hyperthyroidism?

A

the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone (T3 and T4). This increases basal metabolic rate making people look very thin and shaky.

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34
Q

what is hypothyroidism?

A

the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone (T3 and T4). This decreases basal metabolic rate causing weight gain due to stored energy.

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35
Q

what hormone does calcitonin regulate?

A

it regulates the parathyroid hormone

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36
Q

how does calcitonin remove Ca2+ from the blood?

A
  • inhibits osteoclasts
  • stimulates osteoblasts
  • reduces Ca absorption from gut
  • increase Ca lass via urine
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37
Q

what class of hormones is T4 and T3?

A

amine hormones

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38
Q

how many iodines does T4 have?

A

4

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39
Q

how many iodines have T3 have?

A

3

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40
Q

which one is more secreted: T3 or T4?

A

T4

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41
Q

which thyroid hormone is a pro hormone?

A

T4

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42
Q

which thyroid hormone is considered biologically active?

A

T3

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43
Q

how are T3 and T4 made?

A

thyroglobulin is synthesized in the follicular cells of the thyroid gland and is secreted into the colloid in the lumen . elsewhere in these cells , iodine , which is required to synthesize thyroid hormones , is taken up by membrane transporters. it is then oxidized to yield its active form bound to tyrosine residues of the protein in thyroglobulin. This forms MIT and DIT which combine to form T3 and T4 precursors. transported these precursors are then endocytosed, resulting in vesicles that combine w/ lysosome where it forms mature thyroid hormones

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44
Q

what is combined to make T3?

A

1 MIT and 1 DIT

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45
Q

what is combined to make T4?

A

2 DIT molecules

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46
Q

thyroid hormone binding protein in the thyroid gland

A

thyroglobulin

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47
Q

thyroid hormone binding proteins in the blood

A
  • thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG - 75%)
  • transthyretin (TTR - 15%)
  • albumin (10%)
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48
Q

formation of MIT and DIT is catalyzed by ________

A

TPO - thyroid peroxidase

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49
Q

formation of T3 at tissue level is catalyzed by ____________

A

deiodinases

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50
Q

deiodination

A

a metabolic pathway that regulates the levels of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) in the body

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51
Q

rT3 - reverse triiodothyronine

A

about 1% of thyroid hormone released, it is metabolically inactive because the “wrong” iodine is cleaved off, its purpose is that it slows down metabolism to conserve energy

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52
Q

what gland does this histology image show?

A

parathyroid gland

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53
Q

what are the two types of cells in a parathyroid gland?

A
  • oxyphil
  • chief / parathyroid cells
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54
Q

what is the purpose of the parathyroid hormone?

A

increase blood Ca levels when they drop too low

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55
Q

the parathyroid hormone produces ___________ to reduce Ca2+ when Ca2+ is too high

A

calcitonin

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56
Q

what two mechanisms are used to constantly maintain blood calcium concentration?

A
  • parathyroid hormone
  • calcitonin
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57
Q

what are the two parts of the adrenal gland?

A
  • cortex
  • medulla
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58
Q

what class of hormones does the adrenal cortex produce?

A

steroid hormones

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59
Q

what class of hormones does the adrenal medulla produce?

A

amine hormones

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60
Q

what are the 3 layers of the adrenal glands cortex? what hormones do they make?

A
  • outer layer = MINERALcorticoids
  • middle layer = GLUCOcorticoids
  • inner layer = androgens
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61
Q

what is the purpose of mineralocorticoids?

A

involved in homeostasis of minerals and water

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62
Q

what is the purpose of glucocorticoids?

A

regulation of glucose metabolism, inflammation, immune function, and stress

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63
Q

what hormones are produced by the adrenal glands medulla?

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine

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64
Q

what is a hormone axes?

A

a hormonal cascade of endocrine pathways that respond to specific stimuli and/or negative feedback loops involving the hypothalamus anterior pituitary gland and target organs/cells (a regulation of the system)

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65
Q

hormone axes are generally ___________ feedback loops

A

negative

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66
Q

HPG axes

A

hypothalamus pituitary gonad

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67
Q

HPT axes

A

hypothalamus pituitary thyroid

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68
Q

what is the half-life of a hormone?

A

the time required for its concentration to decrease to half of its initial concentration

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69
Q

what does t 1/2 stand for?

A

half-life hormone

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70
Q

how are hormones removed from the body?

A

clearance and modification

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71
Q

a hormones half-life is inversely related to its metabolic ___________ rate

A

clearance

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72
Q

if a hormone is cleared slowly is has a _________ half life, if a hormone is cleared quickly is has a ________ half life

A

longer; shorter

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73
Q

afferent

A

the process of carrying signals to the nervous system

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74
Q

efferent

A

the process of carrying signals away from the nervous system

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75
Q

what are the 5 modes of cell-cell communication?

A
  • endocrine
  • autocrine
  • paracrine
  • juxtacrine
  • intracrine
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76
Q

endocrine cell-cell communication

A

hormone signaling, enters the bloodstream

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77
Q

autocrine cell-cell communication

A

cell SECRETES signal and it then detects and responds to itself

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78
Q

paracrine cell-cell communication

A

cells communicating with the neighbor cell, signal diffuses in the extracellular fluid to be detected by the neighboring cell

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79
Q

juxtacrine cell-cell communication

A

cells communicating with the neighbor cell, signal diffuses in the extracellular fluid to be detected by the neighboring cell

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80
Q

intracrine cell-cell communication

A

is NOT secreted, signal is produced and detected in the cell

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81
Q

what color is hemoxylin? what does it bind to?

A
  • purple
  • basophils
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82
Q

what color is eosin? what does it bind to?

A
  • pink
  • acid
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83
Q

what is a chromophore?

A

NO stain

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84
Q

what are the three types of staining in histology?

A
  • acidophils
  • basophils
  • chromophobes
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85
Q

lactotrophs make ________

A

prolactin

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86
Q

somatotrophs make _______

A

GH (somatotropin)

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87
Q

what hormones does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A
  • antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  • oxytocin
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88
Q

oxytocin effect

A

causes uterine contractions, cervical dilation, causes milk letdown, and the love drug

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89
Q

oxytocin receptors in the uterus are _____ until it is near parturition, then they will ______ during parturition. the fetus pushes against the cervix stimulating the release of oxytocin from the pituitary stimulating contractions of the myometrium.

A

low; increase

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90
Q

if lactation and pregnancy occurred at the same time milk would be released but so would the conceptus. how does the body prevent this from happening?

A

oxytocin receptors are inactivated during pregnancy

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91
Q

what is the half life of oxytocin?

A

about 4 minutes, it is a short (acute) signal

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92
Q

what is Pitocin?

A

a synthetic form of oxytocin, used to induce labor

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93
Q

what is the effect of antidiuretic hormone?

A

stimulates water retention in the kidneys (less water excreted in urine)

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94
Q

pituitary endocrine disorders

A
  • galactorrhea
  • acromegaly
  • gigantism/dwarfism
  • cushing’s disease
  • diabetes insipidus
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95
Q

what type of disorder are the following caused by: galactorrhea, acromegaly, gigantism/dwarfism, cushing’s disease, diabetes insipidus ?

A

pituitary endocrine disorders

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96
Q

acromegaly

A

too much growth hormone as an ADULT, they grow out causing large hands, big noses, a big jaw, etc.

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97
Q

gigantism

A

too much growth hormone as a CHILD

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98
Q

why does gigantism increase height while acromegaly does not?

A

gigantism affects children by making them grow taller because their growth plates are not yet fused

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99
Q

thyroid endocrine disorders

A
  • hyperthyroidism / graves disease
  • hypothyroidism / hashimotos disease
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100
Q

what is the disorder that causes the following diseases: hyperthyroidism (graves disease) and hypothyroidism (hashimotos disease) ?

A

thyroid endocrine disorders

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101
Q

what is another name for hyperthyroidism?

A

graves disease

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102
Q

what is another name for hypothyroidism?

A

hashimotos disease

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103
Q

what is graves disease?

A

the autoimmune antibody thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) that mimics TSH causing the thyroid gland to become overactive, leading to hyperthyroidism, and can also cause eye problems, known as Graves’ ophthalmopathy

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104
Q

what is hashimotos disease?

A

an autoimmune disorder where the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism) and a reduced production of thyroid hormones

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105
Q

what is the name of the outer layer of the adrenal cortex zone? what class of hormones does it produce?

A
  • zona glomerulosa
  • mineralocorticoids
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106
Q

what is the name of the middle layer of the adrenal cortex zone? what class of hormones does it produce?

A
  • zona fasciculata
  • glucocorticoids
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107
Q

what is the name of the inner layer of the adrenal cortex zone? what class of hormones does it produce?

A
  • zona reticularis
  • androgens
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108
Q

what is general adaption syndrome (GAS)?

A

the body’s physiological response to stress, occurring in three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

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109
Q

what are the three stages of the general adaption syndrome?

A
  1. alarm reaction
  2. stage of resistance
  3. stage of exhaustion
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110
Q

what is the first stage of general adaption syndrome?

A

alarm reaction, it is the fight or flight, short term

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111
Q

what is the second stage of general adaption syndrome?

A

stage of resistance, the body tries to adapt to the stressor

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112
Q

what is the third stage of general adaption syndrome?

A

stage of exhaustion, leading to health problems including depression, immune suppression, weight gain, etc.

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113
Q

what does RAAS stand for?

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

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114
Q

what is the purpose of RAAS?

A

to increase blood pressure (vasoconstriction and reabsorption in the kidneys)

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115
Q

describe the RAAS from start to finish

A

if there is a drop in blood pressure and fluid volume the kidney will produce renin which will activate angiotensinogen produced by the liver to produce angiotensin 1 which is further activates by ACE (which is produced by the lungs) to produce angiotensin 2. angiotensin 2 targets the blood vessels stimulating vasoconstriction and the adrenal gland which will then produce aldosterone which targets the kidney for reabsorption.

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116
Q

in RAAS, what hormone does the kidney produce?

A

renin

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117
Q

in RAAS, what hormone does the liver produce?

A

angiotensinogen

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118
Q

in RAAS, what hormone does the lungs produce?

A

ACE

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119
Q

in RAAS, what hormone does the adrenal gland produce?

A

aldosterone

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120
Q

what is galactorrhea?

A

hyperprolactinemia (excess prolactin produced), a condition where a person experiences milk production from their breasts outside of pregnancy or breastfeeding

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121
Q

what is cushings disease?

A

too much cortisol (glucocorticoid) due to an overproduction of ACTH

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122
Q

what is diabetes insipidus?

A

a rare disorder that affects the body’s ability to regulate water balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination

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123
Q

what disease causes excessive urination (polyuria), light colored urine, and constant feeling of thirst (polydipsia)?

A

diabetes insipidus

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124
Q

what are the 4 types of diabetes insipidus?

A
  • central
  • nephrogenic
  • dipsogenic
  • gestational
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125
Q

central diabetes insipidus

A

caused by the brain, due to the lack of ADH, this can be due to injury or disease or autoimmune or genetic

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126
Q

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

an issue in the kidney due to no response to ADH, this can be due to some meds, UT block or genetics

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127
Q

dipsogenic diabetes insipidus

A

caused by drinking too much

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128
Q

gestational diabetes insipidus

A

placenta makes too much enzyme that breaks down ADH

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129
Q

what does the pineal gland respond to?

A

light/darkness

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130
Q

what are circadian rhythms?

A
  • biological clock
  • photoperiod
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131
Q

what hormone does the pineal gland secrete? what class of hormone is it?

A
  • melatonin
  • amine hormone
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132
Q

light _______ (inhibits/stimulates) melatonin production and is _________ (lower/elevated) in the dark or low light

A

inhibits; elevated

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133
Q

what is the type of cell that produces melatonin in the pineal gland?

A

pinealocytes

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134
Q

what hormone is most present during the follicular phase?

A

estrogen

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135
Q

what hormone is most present during the luteal phase?

A

progesterone

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136
Q

what does the LH surge cause?

A

ovulation and lutenization

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137
Q

what are the 4 types of pancreatic inslets in the endocrine pancreas?

A
  • alpha cells
  • beta cells
  • delta cells
  • PP cells
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138
Q

what type of hormone do alpha cells produce?

A

glucagon

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139
Q

what type of hormone do beta cells produce?

A

insulin

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140
Q

what type of hormone do delta cells produce?

A

somatostatin

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141
Q

what type of hormone do PP cells produce?

A

pancreatic polypeptide hormone

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142
Q

what are the types of pancreatic inslets that regulate blood glucose?

A
  • alpha cells (glucagon)
  • beta cells (insulin)
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143
Q

what kind of cells make up the exocrine portion on the pancreas?

A

acinar cells

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144
Q

what is the average blood glucose? how does a ruminants blood glucose differ?

A
  • 70-110 mg/dL
  • ruminants have a much lower blood glucose because they do not absorb glucose in the small intestine
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145
Q

_________ is released from beta cells to promote the reduction of blood glucose

A

insulin

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146
Q

_________ is released from alpha cells to promote blood glucose levels

A

glucagon

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147
Q

label these parts of the pancreas

A
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148
Q

beta cells that secrete insulin also secrete _________ which is released with insulin

A

serotonin

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149
Q

what nerve is the connection of brain and the stomach?

A

the vagus nerve

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150
Q

type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

autoimmune disease that attacks beta cells so the source of insulin is lost

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151
Q

type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

acquired, adult onset, insulin resistance because the beta cells keep secreting insulin and they become exhausted

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152
Q

what is IGT?

A

impaired glucose tolerance

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153
Q

which is the normal response? which one is the diabetes response?

A

the left is normal, the right has the delay

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154
Q

what is the ominous octet?

A

eight key pathophysiological defects that contribute to the development and progression of type 2 diabetes mellitus

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155
Q

what are the 7 organs that are apart of the ominous octet?

A

liver, muscles, brain, adipose, kidneys, gi tract, and pancreas

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156
Q

in the pancreas, what cells produce many digestive enzymes and zymogens?

A

acinar cells (exocrine glands)

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157
Q

what are incretins?

A
  • insulin secretions (hormones that act on the pancreas to secrete insulin)
  • GIP and GLP-1
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158
Q

what stimulates incretins release?

A

they are released in response to nutrient ingestion

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159
Q

GLP-1

A
  • glucagon like peptide 1
  • stimulates insulin secretion
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160
Q

what hormones are incretins?

A
  • GLP-1
  • GIP
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161
Q

GIP name. What does it stimulate? What is it triggered by?

A
  • gastric inhibitory peptide
  • stimulate insulin secretion
  • triggered by glucose
162
Q

what effect does GLP-1 have?

A
  • Stimulating the pancreas to release insulin
  • Suppressing the release of glucagon, another hormone that raises blood sugar
  • Slowing down gastric emptying
  • Reducing appetite
163
Q

what effect does GIP have?

A

suppress gastric motility and acid secretion (slow rate of passage and slow digestion)

164
Q

what is segmaglutide the generic name for and what does it mimic?

A
  • ozempic and wegovy
  • mimics GLP-1
165
Q

what brand name drug is approved for type 2 diabetes but NOT approved for weight loss use?

166
Q

what brand name drug is approved for weight loss and is only a once a week injection?

167
Q

what is mounjaro and zepbound?

A

to treat obesity or overweight people with health conditions, mimics GIP and GLP-1

168
Q

what is the somatomedin hypothesis?

A

mediates the effects of somatotropin (GH)

169
Q

what are the reflexes that cause the stimulation of endocrine glands?

A
  • chemical or nervous signals
  • osmoreceptors
  • thermoreceptors
170
Q

what are beta endorphins?

A

opioid receptors (make you feel good), they are associated with hunger, thrill, pain, maternal care, sexual behavior, and reward cognition

171
Q

myoepithelial cell contraction is triggered by ________ which assists in milk meltdown

172
Q

what are the central and peripheral inhibition of milk letdown?

A
  • central: block release of OT
  • peripheral: block binding at target cells
173
Q

to achieve peripheral inhibition _________ which causes vasoconstriction blocks off blood flow to the mammary glands

A

epinephrine

174
Q

where are myoepithelial cells located?

A
  • salivary glands
  • breast
  • lacrimal glands
  • sweat glands
  • tracheobronchial glands
175
Q

oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH) have very similar structures but how are they different?

A

they have completely different functions, for example oxytocin decreases aggression and anxiety which vasopressin increases them

176
Q

what is MSH? what secretes it?

A
  • melanocyte stimulating hormone
  • secreted by pituitary gland
177
Q

different levels of MSH are NOT the major cause of variation of skin color, it is the variation in their hormone __________, so they don’t respond so they do not make melanin

178
Q

how do receptors work?

A

protein that bings a ligand with high affinity and low capacity; must be saturable

179
Q

the target cells of a hormone must express a specific _________ for it

180
Q

hormone-receptor interaction is defined by the ___________ constant also known as the ____________ constant

A

equilibrium; dissociation (Kd)

181
Q

Ka

A

association constant; how it goes on

182
Q

Kd

A

dissociation constant; how it comes off

183
Q

what are hormone binding proteins?

A

they are water soluble globular proteins in the plasma that can carry proteins through the blood

184
Q

what are the hormone binding proteins CBG and SHBG used for?

A

steroid hormones

185
Q

what are the hormone binding proteins TBR, TTR, and albumin used for?

A

thyroid hormones

186
Q

what is insulin triggered by?

A
  • food in the intestine (GIP released)
  • blood glucose
187
Q

main target cells for insulin

A
  • skeletal muscle
  • adipocytes
188
Q

what is the action of insulin?

A

insulin activates a tyrosine kinase receptor, triggering the phosphorylation of substrates the movement of intracellular vesicles containing glucose transporters to the
cell membrane

189
Q

GLUTS move glucose by _________ diffusion

A

facilitated

190
Q

how is glucose stored in animals?

191
Q

how is glucose stored in plants?

A
  • cellulose
  • starch (amylose and amylopectin)
192
Q

what glucose storage in animals has alpha 1,4 main chain and alpha 1,6 branch glycosidic bonds?

193
Q

what glucose storage in plants have alpha 1,4 main chain and alpha 1,6 branch glycosidic bonds?

A

amylopectin

194
Q

what glucose storage in plants has alpha 1,4 glycosidic bonds?

195
Q

what glucose storage in plants has beta 1,4 glycosidic bonds?

196
Q

does insulin stimulate or inhibit glycolysis?

A

stimulates

197
Q

does insulin stimulate or inhibit glucogenesis?

A

stimulates

198
Q

does insulin stimulate or inhibit lipogenesis?

A

stimulates

199
Q

does insulin stimulate or inhibit protein synthesis?

A

stimulates

200
Q

does insulin stimulate or inhibit glucogenolysis?

201
Q

does insulin stimulate or inhibit gluconeogenesis?

202
Q

functions of the digestive system

A
  • digestion of food
  • absorption of nutrients
  • intake food
  • excrete waste
  • sensory organ
  • endocrin/efffector organ
  • immune defense
  • immune defense
  • microbiome
203
Q

what is the hepatic portal system?

A

allows most of the absorbed nutrients to first go to the liver

204
Q

what are the 4 layers of the gi tract?

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • muscularis
  • serosa
205
Q

what are the three components of the mucosa layer?

A
  • lining epithelium
  • lamina propria
  • muscularis mucosal
206
Q

what are the 2 layers of the muscularis?

A
  • inner circular smooth muscle
  • outer longitudinal smooth muscle
207
Q

what is the purpose of epithelial lining?

A
  • protection (stratified squamous)
  • absorption (single layer columnar or cuboidal cells)
  • lubrication (goblet cells)
  • hormone secretion (enteroendocrine cells)
208
Q

what makes up the lamina propria?

A
  • loose CT
  • blood and lymph vessels (MALT)
209
Q

MALT

A

mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

210
Q

what are villi?

A

finger like projections, lots in the mucosa to increase surface area and make it distensible (to stretch)

211
Q

what makes up the submucosa?

A
  • dense irregular connective tissue
  • blood and lymph vessels
  • submucosal glands
  • submucosal plexus
212
Q

which layer is the submucosal plexus located in?

213
Q

what is serosa made up of? where is it located?

A
  • loose connective tube
  • only in the abdominal cavity
214
Q

instead of serosa, the mouth, pharynx, and esophagus have ____________, a dense collagen attachment

A

adventitia

215
Q

what are the differences of the small and large intestine showcased in this image?

A
  • the small intestine has much greater depth in the mucosa for digestion and absorption
  • the large intestine does NOT have villi, but they have crypts for passage, lubrication, and water
216
Q

label this image

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • muscularis
  • serosa
217
Q

what are the 2 broad categories of the GIT nerve supply?

A

intrinsic and extrinsic

218
Q

what is the intrinsic nervous system?

A
  • enteric neurons
  • they are independent from the rest of the system
219
Q

what are examples of enteric neurons?

A
  • myenteric plexus
  • submucosal plexus
220
Q

where is the myenteric plexus located?

A

in the muscularis

221
Q

where is the submucosal plexus located?

A

in submucosa

222
Q

what is the purpose of the myenteric plexus?

A

for motility and peristalsis

223
Q

what is the purpose of the submucosal plexus?

A

it regulates digestive secretions, it detects the presence of food and knows what has been consumed to secrete what it needs

224
Q

what nerve supply ensures that the gut will continue to move after death because it has its own central nervous system?

A

interneurons

225
Q

what is the extrinsic nervous system?

A

the autonomic system (classical CNS) with sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

226
Q

what is the purpose of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

fight and flight (inhibits they intrinsic neurons)

227
Q

what is the purpose of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

rest and digest (stimulates the intrinsic neurons)

228
Q

what nutrients does the GIT blood supply transport?

A

proteins (amino acids) and carbohydrates

229
Q

how are lipids transported from the GIT?

A

by lacteals (lymph vessels)

230
Q

what is the hepatic portal system?

A

veins carry the nutrients to the liver so it is able to process and store them

231
Q

why would someone be cold after a meal?

A

during rest and digest, 25% of the blood flow goes to the gut

232
Q

what is the GIT peritoneum? what is it made up of?

A

the sac around/lining the gut. it is a broad serous membrane sac. made up of stratified squamous epithelium and connective tissue.

233
Q

what are the two layers of the GIT peritoneum?

A
  • parietal
  • visceral
234
Q

what is the parietal peritoneum?

A

lines abdominal walls (keeps the organs together)

235
Q

what is the visceral peritoneum?

A

surrounds the gut organs (separates the organs)

236
Q

what is the greater omentum?

A

fat deposition in the visceral layer of the peritoneum

237
Q

what are the 6 fundamental activities of the GIT?

A
  1. ingestion
  2. propulsion
  3. mechanical/physical digestion
  4. chemical digestion
  5. absorption
  6. defecation
238
Q

what occurs during ingestion?

A

biting, chewing, saliva

239
Q

what occurs during propulsion?

A

swallowing, peristalsis (muscularis)

240
Q

what occurs during mechanical/physical digestion?

A

increases surface area, mastication, insalivation

241
Q

what occurs during chemical digestion?

A

enzymes, acids, salts; reduce what we consume and make it into the nutrients that can be absorbed

242
Q

what is chyme?

A

soup of digesta, contains acid and enzymes

243
Q

what is segmentation?

A

peristalsis of digesta, moving back and forth in the GIT

244
Q

what are long reflexes?

A

extrinsic neurons (they are overriding)

245
Q

what are short reflexes?

A

intrinsic neurons (local)

246
Q

what is a plexus?

A

a network of nerves, blood, or lymph vessels

247
Q

oral cavity / buccal cavity

248
Q

labia

249
Q

gingivae

250
Q

oral vestibule

A

space between the cheeks and teeth

251
Q

fauces

A

the throat, the opening between the oral cavity and oropharynx

252
Q

palate

A

roof of the mouth

253
Q

hard palate vs soft palate

A
  • hard palate is the bony part that separates the oral cavity and oropharynx
  • soft palate is muscular posterior and aids in swallowing
254
Q

uvula functions

A

block trachea during swallowing, secrete saliva, speech, airflow, gag reflex

255
Q

what are the tonsils made up of?

A

lymphoid tissue

256
Q

what is a frenulum? what is a superior labial frenulum, inferior labial frenulum, and lingual frenulum?

A
  • frenulum = reale like tissue that connects
  • superior labial frenulum = connects upper lip and gum
  • inferior labial frenulum = connects bottom lip and gum
  • lingual frenulum = connects tounge to mouth
257
Q

what is the epiglottis function?

A

during swallowing the epiglottis folds down over the larynx preventing food and liquids from entering the trachea

258
Q

the tongue is covered in ________ that are often called the taste buds

259
Q

what are the 3 major salivary glands?

A
  • parotid
  • sublingual
  • submandibular
260
Q

what are the functions of the salivary glands?

A
  • lubricates
  • buffers acids
  • enzymes
  • moistens
261
Q

what causes dental caries?

A

cavities are caused by eating sugar, the bacteria will eat the sugar and produce and acid, the acid can demineralize/break down the teeth causing the dental caries / cavities

262
Q

what are sialolithiasis?

A

salivary stones, they are calcium concretions that block saliva from leaving the gland which is painful

263
Q

what can help remove sialolithiasis?

A

sucking on citrus fruits which increases salivation to remove the stones

264
Q

what are deciduous teeth?

A

baby teeth, teeth that are meant to be lost or shed over time

265
Q

what are the 4 types of permanent teeth?

A
  • incisors
  • cuspids (canines)
  • bicuspids (premolars)
  • tricuspids (molars)
266
Q

what is a crown on a tooth?

A

the top section of the tooth

267
Q

what is the root of the tooth? what does it contain?

A
  • the base, within the gum
  • contains the pulp cavity
268
Q

what does the pulp cavity contain?

A

it contains the blood vessels and nerves

269
Q

what is dentin?

A

hard, mineralized tissue that forms the bulk of the tooth structure. it surrounds the pulp cavity and is located beneath the enamel.

270
Q

what is the hardest substance in the body?

271
Q

what is the hard substance that covers the tooth?

272
Q

what is cementum?

A

glues the enamel to the dentin

273
Q

the tongue is a _______ that helps with the movements and functions of the tongue

274
Q

what are the 2 types of muscles in the gi tract?

A
  • extrinsic muscles
  • intrinsic muscles
275
Q

what are the 3 parts of the pharynx?

A
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • laryngopharynx
276
Q

what is the nasopharynx?

A

the connection to the nasal cavity, gives the ability to breath and speak

277
Q

what is the oropharynx?

A

the connection to the oral cavity that assists in breathing and digestion

278
Q

what is the laryngopharynx?

A

the connection to the larynx which assists in breathing and digestion

279
Q

what is the purpose of the pharynx?

A

coordinates swallowing, breathing and digestion

280
Q

what is the connector between the mouth and stomach?

281
Q

what is the upper esophageal sphincter? what type of muscle is it composed of?

A

controls the movement of food from the pharynx to the esophagus. skeletal and smooth muscle.

282
Q

what is the lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter? what type of muscle is it composed of?

A

controls the movement of food from the esophagus to the stomach. smooth muscles only.

283
Q

what is heartburn?

A

stomach acid in the esophagus

284
Q

what part of the diaphragm allows the esophagus to move through?

A

esophageal hiatus

285
Q

what is deglutition?

A

swallowing

286
Q

what are the three phases of deglutition?

A
  1. voluntary
  2. pharyngeal phase
  3. esophageal
287
Q

what phases of deglutition are involuntary?

A
  1. pharyngeal phase
  2. esophageal
288
Q

describe the voluntary phase of swallowing?

A

you control when you swallow food

289
Q

describe the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?

A

stimulation of the oropharynx receptors that cause the uvula and soft palate to close off the nasopharynx and the laryngeal muscles close off the trachea

290
Q

describe the esophageal phase of swallowing?

A

food enters the esophagus, triggers peristalsis and mucus, the cardiac sphincter relaxes

291
Q

what are the 4 regions of the stomach?

A
  1. cardia
  2. fundus
  3. body
  4. pylorus
292
Q

what is the main function of the stomach?

A

mechanical and chemical digestion

293
Q

what is a pyloric sphincter?

A

connects the stomach to the duodenum

294
Q

what is the purpose of the rugae / folds in the stomach?

A

increase surface area and to have distention

295
Q

what is the greater curvature and lesser curvature of the stomach attached to?

A

the greater momentum and lesser omentum

296
Q

what is the purpose of the inner oblique smooth muscle?

A

ability to vigorously churn and mix food

297
Q

what are the cells of the gastric glands?

A
  • parietal cells
  • chief cells
  • mucous neck cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
298
Q

what do parietal cells secrete?

A
  • HCl
  • intrinsic factor
299
Q

what is the purpose of HCl in the stomach?

A

lowers stomach pH to 1.5-3.5 and assists in acid digestion as it activates pepsin

300
Q

what is the purpose of the intrinsic factor?

A

it is a glycoprotein required for vitamin B12 absorption in the small intestine

301
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

pepsinogen

302
Q

what do mucous neck cells secrete?

303
Q

what do enteroendocrine cells secrete?

A

hormones (gastrin, ghrelin, somatostatin)

304
Q

gastrin: secreted by, stimulated by, target/action

A
  • G cells
  • peptides / AA
  • movements of digesta along the GIT
305
Q

ghrelin: secreted by, stimulated by, target/action

A
  • mucosa
  • fasting
  • hypothalamus / hunger
306
Q

somatostatin: secreted by, stimulated by, target/action

A
  • mucosa and duodenum
  • food, sympathetic stimulation
  • stomach (decrease motility, secretions, emptying), pancreas (decrease secretions), small intestine (decrease absorption and blood flow)

.

307
Q

3 phases of gastric secretion

A
  1. cephalic
  2. gastric
  3. intestinal
308
Q

what is the cephalic phase of gastric secretion?

A

the reflex phase that occurs in the brain, there is NO food in the stomach yet

309
Q

what is the gastric phase of gastric secretion?

A

occurs in the stomach and lasts 3-4 hours, as food enters the stomach stretches and stimulates secretions and contractions

310
Q

what is the intestinal phase of gastric secretion? what are the 2 parts?

A
  • excitatory (chyme is moved into the duodenum stimulating enteric gastrin which increases the flow of gastric juice)
  • inhibitory (the duodenum is full and inhibits secretin and closes the pyloric sphincter)
311
Q

what are the components of the gastric mucosal barrier?

A
  1. mucus
  2. bicarbonate
  3. tight junctions
312
Q

what is the purpose of the gastric mucosal barrier?

A

the mucus-bicarbonate barrier have bicarbonate (HCO3-) to neutralize the acid protecting cells by making a neutral pH

313
Q

what occurs during the mechanical digestive functions of the stomach?

A
  • mixing waves
  • pylorus filtering
  • gastric emptying
314
Q

what does it mean that the gastric emptying is rhythmic? what is it regulated by?

A
  • a little bit is moves through at a time, a metered dose
  • regulated by the duodenum and stomach
315
Q

what occurs during the chemical digestive functions of the stomach?

A
  • lipid digestion
  • protein digestion
  • intrinsic factor
316
Q

what nutrient slows down the stomach emptying?

A

the digestion of lipids

317
Q

how long foes full digestion take?

A

24-72 hours

318
Q

what is pernicious anemia?

A

vitamin B12 deficiency, a chronic illness caused by impaired absorption of vitamin B12 because of a lack of intrinsic factor in gastric secretions

319
Q

what is the treatment for pernicious anemia?

A

a vitamin B12 shot once a month

320
Q

vitamin B12 is required for ______ synthesis, causing organs with rapid cell turnover to be impacted if there is a deficiency of B12

321
Q

pernicious anemia is an example of ____________ anemia, where megaloblasts are large nucleated RBC precursors with non condensed chromatin

A

megaloblastic

322
Q

what is the primary digestive and absorptive organ?

A

small intestine

323
Q

what part of the digestive system is the longest but has the smallest diameter?

A

the small intestine

324
Q

what are the 3 main anatomical features that contribute to the large surface area of the small intestine?

A
  1. plicae circulares
  2. villi
  3. microvilli
325
Q

what are the 3 parts of the small intestine in order from beginning to end?

A
  1. duodenum
  2. jejunum
  3. ileum
326
Q

what part of the small intestine contains the pyloric sphincter?

327
Q

what is the pyloric sphincter?

A

connects the stomach to the small intestine

328
Q

the duodenum makes a C-shape around the __________, an accessory organ of the GIT

329
Q

what is the ampulla of Vater (hepatopancreatic ampulla)?

A

it is where common bile duct and pancreatic duct join dump content

330
Q

what is the sphincter of Oddi (hepatopancreatic sphincter)?

A

it regulates when the ampulla of Vater (hepatopancreatic ampulla) opens and closes to release its contents

331
Q

the exocrine pancreas _________ cells secrete digestive enzymes

332
Q

what ducts form the common bile duct?

A

common hepatic duct + cystic duct

333
Q

what ducts empty into the duodenum?

A

common bile duct + pancreatic duct

334
Q

bile is made in the ________ and flows the the common hepatic duct and cystic duct to the _________ where it is stored

A

liver; gallbladder

335
Q

when food is being digested, bile is released from the gallbladder and flows through the ____________ ______ duct and pancreas into the small intestine

A

common bile

336
Q

what is the purpose of the jejunum?

A

absorption (little digestion)

337
Q

what is the last and longest section of the small intestine that is which with many folds?

338
Q

what is the ileocecal sphincter?

A

where the ileum joins the cecum to connect the small intestine to the large intestine

339
Q

what are the 3 unique features of the mucosa and submucosa for the small intestine to increase surface area and have the most absorption?

A
  1. circular folds/plicae circularis
  2. villi
  3. microvilli
340
Q

where are circular folds / plicae circularis located and what is the purpose?

A
  • end neat mid-ileum
  • forms ridges which cause the chyme to spiral through
341
Q

what is contained within the villi?

A

absorptive cells including enterocytes, arterioles and venules, lacteals

342
Q

what structure is considered the brush border?

A

microvilli

343
Q

what are the two types of intestinal glands?

A
  • crypts of lieberkuhn
  • Brunner’s glands (duodenal glands)
344
Q

what cell has the function of: digestion and absorption of nutrients in chyme

A

absorptive cell

345
Q

what cell has the function of: secretion of mucus

A

goblet cell

346
Q

what cell has the function of: secretion of bactericidal enzyme lysozyme; phagocytosis

347
Q

what cell has the function of: secretion of the hormone intestinal gastrin

348
Q

what cell has the function of: secretion of the hormone CCK (cholecystokinin), which stimulates release of pancreatic juices and bile

349
Q

what cell has the function of: secretion of the hormone glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP), which stimulates the release of insulin

350
Q

what cell has the function of: secretion of the hormone motilin, which accelerates gastric emptying, stimulates intestinal peristalsis, and stimulates the production of pepsin

351
Q

what cell has the function of: secretion of the hormone secretin (stimulates brunners glands)

352
Q

what is the purpose of segmentation?

A

separates chyme and then pushes it back together, mixing it and providing time for digestion and absorption

353
Q

where is segmentation most rapid?

A

in the duodenum

354
Q

the hormone _________ from the duodenum triggers the migration motility complexes (peristalsis)

355
Q

what is the gastroileal reflex?

A
  • digestion in eh stomach triggers segmentation
  • gastrin stimulates ileal motility
356
Q

the chemical digestion in the stomach will ________ the digestion of proteins and carbohydrates and _______ digestion of lipids

A

finish; most

357
Q

why does lactose intolerance occur?

A

lactose draws water and when fermented int eh large intestine creates gas, so without lactase to break down lactose it causes diarrhea and gas

358
Q

what are the segments of the large intestine?

A
  • cecum (+appendix)
  • colon
  • rectum
  • anus
359
Q

which part of the GIT has the function to finish nutrient absorption, absorb water synthesize vitamins, forms feces, and defecation?

A

large intestine

360
Q

what is the ileocecal valve?

A

connects the small intestine and large intestine

361
Q

what are the 4 parts of the colon, in order?

A
  1. ascending
  2. transverse
  3. descending
  4. sigmoid
362
Q

what is the pneumonic to remember the sections of the color in order?

A

ATDS: after this defecate soon
- ascending
- transverse
- descending
- sigmoid

363
Q

in the rectum there are 3 ________ _______ to help separate gas from feces

A

lateral bends

364
Q

what is the difference between the internal anal sphincter and external anal sphincter?

A
  • internal anal sphincter has smooth muscle so it is involuntary
  • external anal sphincter has skeletal muscle so it is voluntary
365
Q

what is the type of epithelium located in the anal canal? why?

A

stratified squamous epithelium, for protection

366
Q

what are 3 unique features of the large intestine?

A
  • teniae coil
  • haustra
  • epiploic appendages
367
Q

what are teniae coil of the large intestine?

A

three bands of smooth muscle to keep it bunched up

368
Q

what are haustra of the large intestine?

A

pouches that are called the feces formation chamber

369
Q

what are the epiploic appendages of the large intestine?

A

fat filled sacs with unknown function

370
Q

what is the image on the left vs the image on the right?

A
  • left: small intestine
  • right: large intestine
371
Q

what features make these two histologies distinguishable?

A
  • small intestine has more enzyme secreting cells that allow the entry of bile and pancreatic juice. there is an increase in surface area with plicae, villi and microvilli.
  • the large intestine has a lot more intestinal glands, enterocytes (for absorption), and global cells (that produce mucus)
372
Q

__________ cells open the tight junctions between epithelial cells and extend probes into the lumen of the large intestine to evaluate the microbial antigens

373
Q

the dendritic cells with antigens then travel to neighboring lymphoid follicles in the mucosa where ___ cells inspect for antigens

374
Q

what are the three types of movements during mechanical digestion of the large intestine?

A
  • haustral contaction
  • peristalsis
  • mass movement
375
Q

gastrocolic reflex

A

when stretch in the stomach and chemicals in the small intestine stimulate colon motility

376
Q

what are the three accessory organs in digestion?

A
  • liver
  • pancreas
  • gallbladder
377
Q

what is the livers digestive function?

A

produces bile

378
Q

what is the gall bladders digestive function?

A

stores/concentrates and releases bile

379
Q

what is the pancreases digestive function?

A

produces pancreatic joule (which contains digestive enzymes and bicarbonate)

380
Q

what is the portal hepatis (hepatic portal)?

A

a vein that carries nutrients from the small intestine straight to the liver

381
Q

what 3 structures make the portal triad of the liver?

A
  • bile duct
  • portal vein
  • hepatic artery
382
Q

what are the 3 main components the make up the liver?

A
  • hepatocytes
  • bile canaliculi
  • hepatic sinusoids
383
Q

what is the main cell in the liver?

A

hepatocytes

384
Q

what is the main function of a hepatocyte?

A

produce bile

385
Q

what is the purpose of the bile canaliculi in the liver?

A

they are canals that carry the bile produced by hepatocytes to the bile duct

386
Q

what is purpose of the hepatic sinusoids?

A

the liver’s unique microvascular structure, is to facilitate the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and other substances between the blood and the hepatocytes

387
Q

kupffer cells

A

specialized macrophages located in the liver (immune cells)

388
Q

stellate cells

A

in the liver they accumulate fat and vitamin A

389
Q

what is the space of disse

A

in the liver, it is the space between the hepatocytes and sinusoidal endothelial cells

390
Q

what type of capillary is found in the liver?

A

sinusoidal capillaries

391
Q

the liver receives oxygenated blood from the ________ _____ and nutrient rich deoxygenated blood from the ______ _______ _____

A

hepatic artery; hepatic portal vein

392
Q

what is fatty liver disease?

A

hepatocytes in the liver accumulate a lot of lipids making it difficult for the cells to function

393
Q

bile production increases when fatty chyme enters the duodenum and stimulates the secretion of the gut hormone __________

394
Q

what are chylomicrons?

A

large, triglyceride-rich lipoproteins produced in the small intestine to transport dietary fats and cholesterol from the intestines to the liver and other tissues via the bloodstream

395
Q

describe the central vein in the liver?

A

a vein located at the center of each hepatic lobule in the liver, collecting blood from the sinusoids and draining it into the hepatic veins, which ultimately lead to the inferior vena cava.

396
Q

pancreatic ______ cells secrete hormones

397
Q

pancreatic ______ cells secrete digestive enzymes

398
Q

the gallbladder stores and concentrates bile by…

A

absorbing water

399
Q

for carbohydrate digestion, what can be absorbed?

A

ONLY monosaccharides (glucose, galactose, fructose)

400
Q

for protein digestion, what can be absorbed?

A

single AA, dipeptides and tripeptides

401
Q

for triglycerides what can be absorbed?

A

monoacylglycerides, glycerol and free fatty acids

402
Q

for nucleic acids what can be absorbed?

A

pentose sugars, phosphates and nitrogenous bases