Exam 1 Book Questions Flashcards

1
Q

the smallest independently functioning unit of an organism is a(n) ___________.

A

cell

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2
Q

a collection of similar tissues that performs a specific function is an _________.

A

organ

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3
Q

the body system responsible for structural support and movement is the _____________.

A

skeletal system

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4
Q

metabolism can be defined as the ___________________.

A

sum of all chemical reactions in an organism

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5
Q

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an important molecule because it ______________.

A

stores energy for use by body cells

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6
Q

cancer cells can be characterized as “generic” cells that perform no specialized body function. thus cancer cells lack __________.

A

differentiation

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7
Q

humans have the most urgent need for a continuous supply of _______.

A

oxygen

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8
Q

which of the following statements about nutrients is true?
a) all classes of nutrients are essential to human survival
b) because the body cannot store any micronutrients, they need to be consumed nearly every day
c) CHO, lipids, and proteins are micronutrients
d) macronutrients are vitamins and minerals

A

b) because the body cannot store any micronutrients, they need to be consumed nearly every day

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9
Q

C.J. is stuck in her car during a bitterly cold blizzard. her body responds to the cold by _________________.
a) increasing the blood to her hands and feet
b) becoming lethargic to conserve heat
c) breaking down stored energy
d) significantly increasing blood oxygen levels

A

c) breaking down stored energy

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10
Q

after you eat lunch, nerve cells in your stomach respond to the distention (stimulus) resulting from the food. they relay this information to _____________.

A

a control center

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11
Q

stimulation of the heat-loss center causes ___________.
a) blood vessels in the skin to constrict
b) breathing to become slow and shallow
c) sweat glands to increase their input
d) all of the above

A

c) sweat glands to increase their output

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12
Q

which of the following is an example of a normal physiologic process that uses a positive feedback loop?
a) blood pressure regulation
b) childbirth
c) regulation of fluid balance
d) temperature regulation

A

b) childbirth

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13
Q

what is the position of the body when it is in the “normal anatomical position”?

A

standing upright, facing forward, with arms at the sides, palms facing forward, legs parallel, and feet flat on the floor, with toes pointing straight ahead

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14
Q

to make a banana split, you halve a banana into two, long, thin, right and left sides along the ____________.

A

longitudinal plane

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15
Q

the lumbar region is ____________.
a) inferior to the gluteal region
b) inferior to the umbilical region
c) superior to the cervical region
d) superior to the popliteal region

A

d) superior to the popliteal region

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16
Q

the heart it within the _________.

A

mediastinum

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17
Q

in 1901, Wilhelm Rontgen was the first person to win the Nobel Prize for physics. For what discovery did he win?

A

x-ray

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18
Q

which of the following imaging techniques would be best to use to study the uptake of nutrients by rapidly multiplying cancer cells?
a) CT
b) MRI
c) PET
d) ultrasonography

A

c) PET

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19
Q

Which of the following imaging studies can be used most safely during pregnancy?
a) CT scans
b) PET scans
c) ultrasounds
d) X-rays

A

c) ultrasounds

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20
Q

what are the two major disadvantages of MRI scans?

A
  • high cost
  • the need for shielding magnetic signals
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21
Q

Together, just four elements make up more than 95 percent of the body’s mass. These include _________.

A

oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

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22
Q

The smallest unit of an element that still retains the distinctive behavior of that element is an __________.

A

atom

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23
Q

The characteristic that gives an element its distinctive properties is its number of __________.

A

protons

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24
Q

a molecule of ammonia contains one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen. These are linked with ___________.

A

polar covalent bonds

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25
Q

when an atom donates an electron to another atom, it becomes ____________.

A

an ion

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26
Q

a substance formed of crystals of equal numbers of cations and anions held together by ionic bonds is called a _______.

A

salt

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27
Q

which of the following statements about chemical bonds is true?
a) covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds
b) hydrogen bonds occur between two atoms of hydrogen
c) bonding readily occurs between non polar and polar molecules
d) a molecule of water is unlikely to bond with an ion

A

a) covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds

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28
Q

the energy stored in a foot of snow on a steep roof is ________ energy.

A

potential

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29
Q

the bonding of calcium, phosphorus, and other elements produces mineral crystals that are bond in bone. This is an example of a ___________ reaction.

A

synthesis

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30
Q

AB —> A+B is a general notation for an _________ reaction.

A

decomposition

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31
Q

___________ reactions release energy

A

catabolic

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32
Q

Which of the following combination of atoms is most likely to result in a chemical reaction?
a) hydrogen and hydrogen
b) hydrogen and helium
c) helium and helium
d) neon and helium

A

a) hydrogen and hydrogen

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33
Q

chewing a bite of bread mixes it with saliva and facilitates its chemical breakdown. This is most likely due to the fact that __________.
a) the inside of the mouth maintains a very high temperature
b) chewing stores potential energy
c) chewing facilitates synthesis reactions
d) saliva contains enzymes

A

d) saliva contains enzymes

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34
Q

CH4 is methane. This compound is __________.
a) inorganic
b) organic
c) reactive
d) a crystal

A

b) organic

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35
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be found evenly distributed in water in a homogenous solution?
a) sodium ions and chloride ions
b) NaCl molecules
c) salt crystals
d) red blood cells

A

a) sodium ions and chloride ions

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36
Q

Jenny mixes up a batch of pancake batter, then stirs in some chocolate chips. As she is waiting for the first few pancakes to cook, she notices the chocolate chips sinking to the bottom of the of the clear glass mixing bowl. The chocolate chip batter is an example of a ____________.
a) solvent
b) solute
c) solution
d) suspension

A

d) suspension

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37
Q

A substance dissociates into K+ and Cl- in solution. the substance is a _________.
a) acid
b) base
c) salt
d) buffer

A

c) salt

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38
Q

Ty is three years old and as a result of a “stomach bug” has been vomiting for about 24 hours. His blood pH is 7.48. What does this mean?

A

Ty’s blood is slightly alkaline

39
Q

C6H12O6 is the chemical formula for a ________.
a) polymer of carbohydrate
b) pentose monosaccharide
c) hexose monosaccharide
d) all of the above

A

c) hexose monosaccharide

40
Q

What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel?
a) glucose
b) glycogen
c) galactose
d) glycerol

A

a) glucose

41
Q

which of the following is a functional group that is part of a building block of proteins?
a) phosphate
b) adenine
c) amino
d) ribose

42
Q

a pentose sugar is part of the monomer used to build which type of macromolecule?
a) polysaccharides
b) nucleic acids
c) phosphorylated glucose
d) glycogen

A

b) nucleic acids

43
Q

a phospholipid ___________.
a) has both polar and non polar regions
b) is made up of a triglyceride bonded to a phosphate group
c) is a building block of ATP
d) can donate both cations and anions in solution

A

a) has both polar and non polar regions

44
Q

in DNA, nucleotide bonding forms a compound with a characteristic shape known as a ___________.

A

double helix

45
Q

Uracil _______.
a) contains nitrogen
b) is a pyrimidine
c) is found in RNA
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

46
Q

The ability of an enzyme’s active sites to bind only substrates of compatible shape and charge is known as ___________.

A

specificity

47
Q

because they are embedded within the membrane, ion channels are examples of __________.
a) receptor proteins
b) integral proteins
c) peripheral proteins
d) glycoproteins

A

b) integral proteins

48
Q

the diffusion of substances within a solution tends to move those substances _______ their __________ gradient.

A

down; concentration

49
Q

ion pumps and phagocytosis are both example of __________.
a) endocytosis
b) passive transport
c) active transport
d) facilitated diffusion

A

c) active transport

50
Q

choose the answer that best completes the following analogy: diffusion is to _______ as endocytosis is to _________.

A

osmosis; pinocytosis

51
Q

choose the answer that best completes the following analogy: cytoplasm is to cytosol as a swimming pool containing chlorine and flotation toys is to _______________.

52
Q

the rough ER has its name due to what associated structures?

53
Q

which of the following is a function of the rough ER?
a) production of proteins
b) detoxification of certain substances
c) synthesis of steroid hormones
d) regulation of intracellular calcium concentration

A

a) production of proteins

54
Q

which of the following is a feature common to all three components of the cytoskeleton?
a) they all serve to scaffold the organelles within the cell
b) they are all characterized by roughly the same diameter
c) they are all polymers of protein subunits
d) they all help the cell resist compression and tension

A

c) they are all polymers of protein subunits

55
Q

Which organelle produces large quantities of ATP when both glucose and oxygen are available to the cell?

A

mitochondria

56
Q

the nucleus and mitochondria share which of the the following features?
a) protein-lined membrane pores
b) a double cell membrane
c) the synthesis of ribosomes
d) the production of cellular energy

A

a) protein-lined membrane pores

57
Q

which of the following structures could be found within a nucleolus?
a) chromatin
b) histones
c) ribosomes
d) nucleosomes

A

c) ribosomes

58
Q

place the following structures in order from least to most complex organization: chromatin, nucleosome, DNA, chromosome

A

DNA, nucleosome, chromatin, chromosome

59
Q

which of the following is part of the elongation step of DNA synthesis?
a) pulling apart the two DNA strands
b) attaching complementary nucleotides to the template strand
c) untwisting the DNA helix
d) none of the above

A

b) attaching complementary nucleotides to the template strand

60
Q

which of the following is not a difference between DNA and RNA?
a) DNA contains thymine whereas RNA contains uracil
b) DNA contains deoxyribose and RNA contains ribose
c) DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars
d) RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded

A

c) DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars

61
Q

transcription and translation take place in the _________ and _________, respectively.

A

nucleus; cytoplasm

62
Q

how many “letters” of an RNA molecule, in sequence does it take to provide the code for a single amino acid?

63
Q

which of the following is not made out of RNA?
a) the carriers that shuffle AA to a growing polypeptide strand
b) the ribosome
c) the messenger molecule that provides the code for protein synthesis
d) the intron

A

d) the intron

64
Q

Which of the phases in the cell cycle is characterized by preparation for DNA synthesis?

65
Q

a mutation in the gene for a cyclin protein might result in which of the following?
a) a cell with additional genetic material
b) cancer
c) a cell with less genetic material than normal
d) any of the above

66
Q

what is the primary function of tumor suppressor genes?

A

stop certain cells from dividing

67
Q

arrange the following terms in order of increasing specialization: oligopotency, pleuripotency, unipotency, multipotency

A

pleuripotency, multi potency, oligopotency, unipotency

68
Q

which type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells?

A

hematopoietic

69
Q

what multipoint stem cells from children sometimes banked by parents?

A

fetal stem cells

70
Q

which of the following is not a type of tissue?
a) muscle
b) nervous
c) embryonic
d) epithelial

A

c) embryonic

71
Q

the process by which a less specialized cell mates into a more specialized cell is called ____________.

A

differentiation

72
Q

differentiated cells in developing embryo derive from ____________.

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

73
Q

which of the following lines the body cavities exposed to the external environment?
a) mesothelium
b) lamina propria
c) mesenteries
d) mucosa

74
Q

in observing epithelial cells under a microscope, the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narrow, and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell. the specimen is what type of epithelial tissue?

A

a) columnar

75
Q

which epithelial tissue lines the interior of blood vessels?

A

simple squamous

76
Q

which type of epithelial tissue specializes in moving particles across its surface and found in airways and lining the oviduct?

A

stratified columnar

77
Q

the ____________ exocrine gland stores its secretion until the glandular cell ruptures, whereas the _________ gland releases its apical region and reforms.

A

holocrine; apocrine

78
Q

connective tissue is made of which of three essential components?

A

cells, ground substance (gels), and protein fibers

79
Q

under a microscope, a tissue specimen shows cells located in spaces scattered in a transparent background. This is probably a ___________.
a) loose connective tissue
b) a tendon
c) bone
d) hyaline cartilage

A

d) hyaline cartilage

80
Q

which connective tissue specializes in storage of fat?

A

adipose tissue

81
Q

ligaments connect bones together and withstand a lot of stress. what type of connective tissue should you expect ligaments to contain?
a) areolar tissue
b) adipose tissue
c) dense regular connective tissue
d) dense irregular connective tissue

A

c) dense regular connective tissue

82
Q

in adults, new connective tissue cells originate from the ____________.

A

mesenchyme

83
Q

in bone, the main cells are __________.

A

osteocytes

84
Q

striations, cylindrical cells, and multiple nuclei are observed in ___________.
a) skeletal muscle only
b) cardiac muscle only
c) smooth muscle only
d) skeletal and cardiac muscle

A

a) skeletal muscle only

85
Q

the cells of muscles, myocytes, develop from ____________.

86
Q

skeletal muscle is composed of very hard working cells. which organelle do you expect to find in abundance in skeletal muscle cell?

A

mitochondria

87
Q

the cells responsible for transmission of the nerve impulse are _________.

88
Q

the nerve impulse teasels down an ______, away from the cell body.

89
Q

which of the following central nervous system cells regulate ions, regulate the uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier?
a) microglia
b) neuroglia
c) oligodendrocytes
d) astocytes

A

a) microglia

90
Q

which of the following processes is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?
a) redness
b) heat
c) fever
d) swelling

91
Q

when a mast cell reacts to irritation, what chemical does it release?

92
Q

atrophy refers to ________.

A

loss of mass

93
Q

individuals can slow the rate of aging by modifying all of these lifestyle aspects except for ________.
a) diet
b) exercise
c) genetic factors
d) stress

A

c) genetic factors