Exam 1 - Lecture Notes Flashcards

1
Q

gross anatomy / macro anatomy

A

large structures, visible

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2
Q

microanatomy

A

requires a microscope to observe

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3
Q

cytology

A

study of cells, individual cells

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4
Q

histology

A

study of tissue

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5
Q

regional anatomy

A

within a region, often multiple tissues / organs serving coordinated function, complementary

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6
Q

systemic anatomy

A

all structures making up a system

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7
Q

what system?
- hair, skin and nails
- encloses internal body structures, site of many sensory receptors

A

integumentary system

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8
Q

what system?
- cartilage, bones, joints
- supports the body, enables movement

A

skeletal system

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9
Q

what system?
- skeletal muscles, tendons
- enables movement, helps maintain body temperature

A

muscular system

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10
Q

what system?
- brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves
- detects and processes sensory, activates bodily responses

A

nervous system

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11
Q

what system?
- pituitary gland, thyroid gland, pancreas, adrenal glands, testes, ovaries
- secretes hormones, regulates bodily processes

A

endocrine system

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12
Q

what system?
- heart, blood vessels
- delivers oxygen and nutrients to tissues, equalizes temperature in the body

A

cardiovascular system

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13
Q

what system?
- thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, lymphatic vessels
- returns fluid to blood, defends against pathogens

A

lymphatic system

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14
Q

what system?
- nasal passage, trachea, lungs
- removes carbon dioxide from the body, delivers oxygen to blood

A

respiratory system

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15
Q

what system?
- stomach, liver, gall bladder, large intestine, small intestine
- processes food for use by the body, removes wastes from undigested food

A

digestive system

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16
Q

what system?
- kidneys, urinary bladder
- controls water balance in the body, removes waste from blood and excretes them

A

urinary system

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17
Q

what system?
- epididymis, testes
- produces sex hormones and gametes, delivers gametes to female

A

male reproductive system

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18
Q

what system?
- mammary glands, ovaries, uterus
- produces sex hormones and gametes, supports embryo/fetus until birth, produces milk for infant

A

female reproductive system

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19
Q

homeostasis

A

maintaining steady state (via physiological regulation)

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20
Q

structural organization of a body from smallest to largest

A
  • chemical (atoms, electrons, molecules)
  • cell
  • tissue
  • organ
  • organ system
  • organism
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21
Q

what is the smallest independently functioning unit?

A

cell

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22
Q

2+ cells, has a specific function

A

tissue

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23
Q

anatomically distinct with more than 2 tissues

A

organ

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24
Q

a group of organs that perform major function

A

organ system

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25
Q

two types of metabolism

A

anabolism and catabolism

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26
Q

anabolism

A

building up, often using energy

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27
Q

catabolism

A

breaking down, often gaining energy

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28
Q

differentiation

A

cells become specialized/functional

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29
Q

hyperplasia

A

increase in cell number

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30
Q

hypertrophy

A

increase in cell size

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31
Q

4 requirements for life

A
  • oxygen
  • nutrients
  • narrow range of temperature
  • narrow range of atmospheric pressure
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32
Q

3 basic nutrients

A
  • water
  • energy
  • micronutrients
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33
Q

nutrient: energy and examples

A
  • yielding / body building nutrients
  • carbohydrates, fats, proteins
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34
Q

nutrients: micronutrients

A

vitamins and minerals (cofactors for enzymes)

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35
Q

homeostasis

A

maintenance of steady state; especially normal state (set point, normal range)

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36
Q

negative feedback

A

reverses a change, maintains homeostasis

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37
Q

3 basic components of a feedback system

A
  1. sensor
  2. control center
  3. effector
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38
Q

positive feedback

A

augments change, increasing the change

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39
Q

what is more common, positive or negative feedback?

A

negative feedback

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40
Q

is positive feedback considered maintaining homeostasis?

A

NO

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41
Q

how does positive feedback send out signals and amplify them through the body?

A

a 1st messenger binds to a membrane receptor, an effector turns on and activates a 2nd messenger

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42
Q

what do kinases do?

A

phosphorylate things, often to increase activity

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43
Q

after phosphorylation by kinases, the enzyme ______________ will come in and chop off the phosphate to inactivate it

A

phosphodiesterases

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44
Q

homeohesis

A

the orchestrated or coordinated control in metabolism of body tissues necessary to support physiological state (an animal not in normal state)

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45
Q

examples of homeohesis

A
  • gestation
  • lactation
  • growing additonal muscle
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46
Q

body planes: sagittal / longitudinal plane

A

divides left vs right side

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47
Q

body planes: frontal / coronal plane

A

divides anterior (front) vs posterior (rear)

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48
Q

body planes: transverse plane / cross section

A

divides upper vs lower

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49
Q

pleural cavity

A

surrounds lungs

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50
Q

pericardium

A

surrounds heart

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51
Q

peritoneum

A

surrounds organs in abdominal cavity

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52
Q

serous membranes (serosa)

A

thin membranes cover organs, walls

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53
Q

parietal layer

A

covers walls

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54
Q

visceral layer

A

covers organs

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55
Q

fluid-filled cavity

A

serous space (lubricate and reduce friction)

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56
Q

what elements are the body mostly made up of?

A
  • oxygen
  • carbon
  • hydrogen
  • nitrogen
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57
Q

isotopes

A

a nucleus of an element that have a different number of neutrons (oftentimes unstable)

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58
Q

radioactive isotopes

A

the nucleus readily decays giving off subatomic particles and electromagnetic energy

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59
Q

why are radioactive isotopes important in medicine?

A

they are detectable, so they can be used to detect and shrink tumors

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60
Q

stable isotopes

A

do not decay but can be detected by mass spectrometry

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61
Q

3 types of reactions

A
  • synthesis
  • decomposition
  • exchange
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62
Q

dehydration synthesis reaction

A

substrates are combined by the removal of water

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63
Q

synthesis reaction

A

A + B —> AB

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64
Q

decomposition reaction

A

AB —–> A + B

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65
Q

exchange reaction

A

AB + CD —> AC + BD

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66
Q

what factors alter the rate of reactions?

A
  • reactant properties
  • temperature
  • concentration and pressure
  • enzymes and catalysts
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67
Q

how do enzymes and catalysts effect reaction rate?

A

lower activation energy of a reaction

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68
Q

inorganic: mostly lack carbon but always lack ___ and ___

A

C and H

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69
Q

organic: generally carbon containing but always contains ___ and ___

A

C and H

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70
Q

acids

A

donate H+ (proton) in solution

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71
Q

base

A

donates OH- in solution / accepts H+ (protons) in solution

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72
Q

the lower the pH = more ______ = more _____ ions

A

more acidic = more H+ ions

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73
Q

the higher the pH = less ______ = more ______

A

less acidic = more basic

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74
Q

pH of normal body fluids

A

about 7.4

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75
Q

buffer

A

solution of weak acid and its conjugate base

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76
Q

acidosis

A

lower than normal pH

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77
Q

alkalosis

A

more than normal pH

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78
Q

metabolic acidosis

A
  • reactions that generate CO2 or acidic compounds
  • ex: lactic acid buildup
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79
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

low respiratory rate (hypoventilation), CO2 will stay inside the body increasing pH

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80
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

diarrhea and loss of HCl

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81
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

high respiratory rate (hyperventilation) not enough CO2 in the body so it raises blood pH

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82
Q

what happens when your blood pH differs from normal?

A

can cause you to pass out so that the body can fix itself

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83
Q

what is the bicarbonate buffering system and what does it regulate?

A
  • CO2 + H2O <–> H2CO3 <–> HCO3- + H+
  • regulates plasma pH
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84
Q

VFA

A
  • volatile fatty acids
  • short chain fatty acids
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85
Q

what are the three VFAs?

A
  • acetate
  • butyrate
  • propionate
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86
Q

monomers

A

single unit

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87
Q

oligomers

A

few molecules

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88
Q

polymer

A

many molecules

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89
Q

carbohydrates general formula

A

(CH2O)n

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90
Q

5 important monosaccharides

A
  • hexose: glucose, fructose, galactose
  • pentose: ribose and deoxyribose
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91
Q

3 important disaccharides

A

sucrose, lactose, maltose

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92
Q

3 important polysaccharides

A

starch, glycogen, cellulose

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93
Q

how do we store glucose in the body?

A

glycogen

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94
Q

what are the three words used to describe connective tissue?

A

cells, gels, and fibers

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95
Q

what is the “gel” of connective tissue?

A

ground substance

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96
Q

what is ground substance made up of?

A

water stabilized by glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), proteoglycans, and glycoproteins

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97
Q

ground substance

A

a gel-like substance in the extracellular space that contains all components of the extracellular matrix (ECM) except fibers

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98
Q

what is the purpose of ground substance?

A

provide a route for communication and transport by diffusion between tissues

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99
Q

components of ground substance

A
  • mainly water
  • glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
  • proteoglycans
  • glycoproteins
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100
Q

what are glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?

A

polysaccharides that trap water, giving the ground substance a gel-like texture

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101
Q

components of the ground substance are secreted by ___________

A

fibroblasts

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102
Q

loose connective tissue has few ____ and ____, and a large amount of __________ ___________

A

fibers and cells; ground substance

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103
Q

dense connective tissue has a small amount of ____________ __________ compared to fibrous material

A

ground substance

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104
Q

what is this structure?

A

ground substance

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105
Q

what are the common GAGs?

A
  • hyaluronic acid
  • heparan sulfate
  • dermatan sulfate
  • chondroitin sulfate
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106
Q

monoacylglycerides have ___ fatty acid chains

A

1

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107
Q

diglyceride has ____ fatty acid chains

A

2

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108
Q

triglyceride has ____ fatty acid chains

A

3

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109
Q

saturated fats

A

no double bonds, solid at room temperature, higher melting point

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110
Q

unsaturated fats

A

double bonds, fluid at room temperature

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111
Q

phospholipids

A

phosphate group with 1 or more lipid molecules (usually 2 FA tails)

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112
Q

phospholipids have a _____ head and _____ tail

A

polar (hydrophilic) and non-polar (hydrophobic)

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113
Q

how do phospholipids look when they make up the cell membrane?

A

the heads are on the outside and inside of the cells and the tails are in the center

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114
Q

sterols

A

steroid hormones

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115
Q

____________ is the mother compound of steroid hormones

A

cholesterol

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116
Q

name this molecule

A

cholesterol

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117
Q

name this molecule

A

estradiol

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118
Q

name this molecule

A

progesterone

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119
Q

lipid nomenclature: delta system

A
  • carbons counted from the carboxyl (alpha) end
  • (delta=carboxyl end, remember abCD)
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120
Q

lipid nomenclature: omega system

A
  • carbons counted from the methyl (omega) end
  • (omega=methyl, remember oMEga=MEthyl)
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121
Q

trans vs cis fat

A
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122
Q

what is the name of this molecule?

A

PGF2a

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123
Q

what is the name of this molecule?

A

PGE2

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124
Q

what is the difference between PGF2a and PGE2?

A
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125
Q

what does PGE2 do? what drug blocks this from being produced?

A
  • causes inflammation, dilation, pain
  • ibuprofen
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126
Q

in proteins, shape determines ___________

A

function

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127
Q

protein: primary structure

A

sequence of AA

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128
Q

protein: secondary structure

A

beta sheets / alpha helix

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129
Q

protein: tertiary structure

A

further folding and bonding, 3D structure

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130
Q

protein: quaternary structure

A

multiple protein subunits

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131
Q

parts of an amino acid

A
  • amine group
  • carboxyl group
  • R group (side chain)
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132
Q

a ______ bond connects AA

A

peptide

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133
Q

what reaction must occur for a peptide bond to form?

A

dehydration - condensation reaction

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134
Q

name the 5 nitrogenous bases

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine, uracil

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135
Q

purines

A

adenine, guanine

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136
Q

pyrimidines

A

cytosine, thymine, uracil

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137
Q

components of a nucleotide

A
  • one or more phosphate groups
  • pentose sugar (ribose or deoxyribsose)
  • nitrogenous base
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138
Q

nucleoside

A

sugar + nitrogenous base

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139
Q

nucleotide

A

sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate

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140
Q

components of the cell membrane

A
  • phospholipid bilayer
  • cholesterol
  • embedded proteins
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141
Q

integral proteins and examples

A
  • span from the inside of the membrane to the outside of the membrane
  • channel proteins, receptors - ligands, glycoproteins
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142
Q

peripheral proteins

A

on inside or outside of the cell, can attach to integral proteins

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143
Q

glycocalyx

A
  • glycoprotein
  • contributes to cell-cell recognition, communication, and intercellular adhesion
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144
Q

the membrane of cells is selectively permeable. what can pass through?

A

small, non polar (hydrophobic) molecules

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145
Q

passive transport

A

does not require energy

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146
Q

active transport requires ________

A

energy

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147
Q

examples of passive transport

A

diffusion, facilitated diffusion

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148
Q

GLUTS

A

glucose transporters (14 in humans)

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149
Q

osmosis

A

the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane down its concentration gradient

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150
Q

isotonic

A

soluble concentration at equilibrium

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151
Q

hypertonic

A

solute concentration is higher, so the water will leave the cell and the cell shrivels

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152
Q

hypotonic

A

solute concentration is lower, water enters the cell and bursts it

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153
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

flowing from high to lower pressure due to permeability, fluid leaves the vessel

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154
Q

osmotic pressure

A

the opposing force, pulls the blood back into the blood vessel

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155
Q

when hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure (net filtration is positive), meaning…

A

fluid exits the vessel

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156
Q

when osmotic pressure is greater than hydrostatic pressure (net filtration is negative), meaning…

A

fluid flows back into the vessel

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157
Q

active transport can go _______ the concentration gradient

A

against

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158
Q

sodium potassium pump causes _____ Na+ to leave the cell and ____ K+ to enter the cell

A

3 Na+ leave, 2 K+ enter

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159
Q

the sodium potassium pump creates an __________ gradient

A

electrical

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160
Q

symporters

A

moves 2 molecule in the same direction

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161
Q

antiporters

A

moves two molecules in the opposite direction

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162
Q

endocytosis and exocytosis are types of _______ transport

A

active

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163
Q

endocytosis

A

bringing into the cell using an intracellular vesicle

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164
Q

endocytosis: pinocytosis

A

cell drinking (fluid containing dissolved substances)

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165
Q

endocytosis: phagocytosis

A

cell eating (large particles)

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166
Q

endocytosis: recepto-mediated

A

receptors attract certain molecules

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167
Q

exocytosis

A

exiting the cell in a vesicle

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168
Q

cytosol + organelles = __________

A

cytoplasm

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169
Q

organelles in the endomembrane system

A
  • ER
  • Golgi apparatus
  • lysosome
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170
Q

the rough ER is covered in _________

A

ribosomes

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171
Q

what is the main role of the rough ER?

A

protein synthesis (translation)

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172
Q

role of membrane bound ribosomes

A

attached to the ER membrane, synthesis of proteins that move into the ER

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173
Q

the smooth ER lacks ___________

A

ribosomes

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174
Q

role of smooth ER

A

lipid synthesis and stores Ca2+

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175
Q

what are the two sides of the Golgi apparatus and their purpose?

A
  • cis = receives vesicles from the ER
  • trans = releases new vesicles
176
Q

job of the Golgi apparatus

A
  • sort, modify, send to target site
  • post-transcriptional modifications
177
Q

lysosomes

A

large vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes

178
Q

autophagy

A

“self-eating” = destroy damaged organelles

179
Q

phago-lysosomes

A

phagocytizied materiał bacterial/foreign material is transported inside the lysosome to be killed

180
Q

autolysis

A

cell self-destruction (apoptosis)

181
Q

mitochondria

A
  • 2 lipid bilayer membranes
  • produces ATP
  • cite of cellular respiration
182
Q

peroxisomes

A

detoxification

183
Q

peroxisomes transfer H to O forming _____________________ then it’s catalase catalyzes it to 2 H2O + O2 making it harmless

A

hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

184
Q

ROS

A

reactive oxygen species, highly reactive and can damage organelles and molecules

185
Q

which organ has the most peroxisomes?

A

the liver, where detoxification takes place

186
Q

cytoskeleton

A

forms structural framework of cells

187
Q

microtubules are composed of _____________

A

alpha and beta tubules subunits

188
Q

function of microtubules

A

cell motility, mitosis, intracellular transport, cell shape

189
Q

what structures do microtubules form?

A

cilia, flagella, centrioles

190
Q

microfilaments are composed of _____________

191
Q

function of microfilaments

A

cell contraction, movement, transport

192
Q

intermediate filaments are composed of _______

193
Q

functions of intermediate filaments

A

cell shape, structure, anchoring of organelles and cells to each other and the ECM

194
Q

DNA organization

A
  • histones (proteins)
  • nucleosomes (DNA wrapped around histone)
  • chromosomes (chromatin condenses for replication)
195
Q

transcription

A

DNA –> RNA

196
Q

translation

A

RNA —> protein

197
Q

somatic cells

A

body cells

198
Q

cell cycle

A
  1. G1 (gap 1, growth)
  2. S (synthesis of DNA)
  3. G2 (gap 2, grow and prep)
  4. M (mitotic phase, cell divides, mitosis)
  5. Go (rest, no division)
199
Q

5 phases of mitosis

A

PPMAT (prophase, pro metaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase)

200
Q

why are checkpoints important in the cell cycle?

A

they look for errors in DNA replication, proofreading

201
Q

what are cyclins in the cell cycle? what is an example?

A
  • one of the primary classes of the cell cycle control molecules
  • CDK = controls the cell cycle, push it on unless there is a given stop signal
202
Q

tumor supressor genes

A

send stop signals during the cell cycle, they proofread and can trigger self deletion

203
Q

what are oncogenes?

A

genes that are most commonly liked with mutations that cause cancer

204
Q

what is the gaurdian of the genome?

A

p53, tumor suppressor genes

205
Q

what is the most frequently mutated gene in human cancer

A

p53 or TP53

206
Q

if DNA damage is recognized, what two things can a tumor suppressor gene do?

A
  1. fix the damage
  2. eliminate it through apoptosis
207
Q

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2

A
  • tumor suppressor genes
  • breast cancer associated (risks of breast cancer, pancreas, ovarian, and prostate cancer)
208
Q

totipotent

A

early embryos; can become any cell or whole organism

209
Q

pluripotent

A

become any tissue

210
Q

multipotent

A

can differentiate into any cell within a lineage

211
Q

oligopotent

A

can form a few cell types within a lineage

212
Q

unipotent

A

specialized (can only make more of its own cell type)

213
Q

3 types of stem cells

A
  1. embryonic stem cells
  2. fetal stem cells
  3. adult stem cells
214
Q

3 types of adult stem cells

A
  1. hematopoietic
  2. endothelial
  3. mesenchymal (muscle)
215
Q

how do cells differentiate?

A

transcription factors

216
Q

hematopoiesis

A

differentiation of multipotent cells into blood and immune cells

217
Q

hECs

A

human embryonic stem cells (pluripotent)

218
Q

adult stem cells, umbilical cord are ____potent

A

multipotent

219
Q

iPSCs

A

induced pluripotent stem cells, yamanaka factors (4 types)

220
Q

some individuals bank the _____ blood or _______ _______ of their child, storing these sources of stem cells for future use

A

cord blood or deciduous teeth

221
Q

4 tissue types

A
  • epithelial
  • connective
  • nervous
  • muscle
222
Q

brain, spinal cord, and nerves are all examples of _________ tissue

223
Q

lining of GI tract organs and other hollow organs, and skin surface are examples of __________ tissue

A

epithelial

224
Q

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, skeletal muscle are examples of ________ tissue

225
Q

fat and other soft padding tissue, bone, and tendon are examples of _________ tissue

A

connective

226
Q

what are epithelial cells specialized for?

A

exchange or barrier

227
Q

epithelial sheets

A

common, exchange nutrients across it

228
Q

epithelial glands

229
Q

exocrine glands

A
  • ducts
  • deliver to the outside
230
Q

endocrine glands

A
  • no ducts
  • secrete into the extracellular space and bloodstream
231
Q

lumen

A

the open space inside of glands

232
Q

anoikis

A

a process of epithelial cell death after they are isolated or detached

233
Q

why do epithelial cells die after they are isolated or detached?

A

to prevent ectopic growth or attachment

234
Q

main cell type in connective tissue

A

fibroblasts

235
Q

skin: cell types and fiber

A
  • cells: mostly fibroblasts, some keratinocytes
  • major fiber: collagen fibers
236
Q

3 types of muscle tissue

A
  • cardiac
  • smooth
  • skeletal
237
Q

skeletal muscle

A
  • striated, long, individual, multinucleated cells
  • encased by connective tissue
238
Q

epimysium

A

dense irregular connective tissue that surround the entire (smooth) muscle

239
Q

perimysium

A

thinner connective tissue, bundles muscle fibers into fascicles

240
Q

endomysium

A

fine connective tissue, surrounds each muscle fiber

241
Q

smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary?

A

involuntary

242
Q

cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary?

A

involuntary

243
Q

skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary?

244
Q

cardiac muscle

A

composed of branched, cylindrical cells called cardiomyocytes, which are connected by specialized junctions called intercalated discs

245
Q

intercalated discs

A

used in cardiac cells to ensure coordinated contraction

246
Q

smooth muscle

A

spindle shaped, inner circular and outer longitudinal

247
Q

nervous tissue

A

specialized to transmit and receive electrical impulses

248
Q

myelin sheath

A

insulting nerve fibers so it makes conduction more efficient

249
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

makes the CNS myelin

250
Q

schwann cells

A

makes the peripheral myelin

251
Q

neuron: cell body

A

can sense things

252
Q

neuron: axons

A

send information

253
Q

neuron: synapse

A

communicate to the next neuron

254
Q

neuroglia

A

support cells in nervous tissue (astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, schwann cells, microglia)

255
Q

neuroglia: microglia

A

macrophages (remove the damaged neurons and infections)

256
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

antibodies attach the myelin sheath

257
Q

larger objects have a ____ surface area:volume ratio

258
Q

ectoderm

A

outer layer

259
Q

mesoderm

A

middle layer

260
Q

endoderm

A

inner layer

261
Q

what does the ectoderm form?

A

skin, neurons, pigment cells, etc.

262
Q

what does the mesoderm form?

A

muscle, connective tissue, kidneys, RBCs, etc.

263
Q

what does the endoderm form?

A

lining of airways and digestive system, glands, lung cells, thyroid cells, pancreatic cells, etc.

264
Q

through _________ of the embryo, the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm can differentiate

A

gastrulation

265
Q

synovial membranes

A

forms synovial fluid to lubricate joints (fibroblasts secrete hylaronic acid which traps water)

266
Q

examples of epithelial membranes

A
  • mucous membranes
  • serous membranes
  • cutaneous membranes
267
Q

epithelial membranes are anchored by…

A

underlying connective tissue (lamina propria)

268
Q

mucous membranes

A

lines external and secretes mucous

269
Q

serous membranes

A

mesothelium, internal organs (pleura, pericardium, peritoneum)

270
Q

cutaneous membranes

A

skin, stratified squamous, lamina propia; dead keratinized cells

271
Q

the top of the cell is the ______ side, and the bottom of the cell is the _______ side

A

apical; basal

272
Q

parts of the basement membrane

A
  • basal lamina (attachment - glycoproteins/collagen)
  • reticular lamina (connective tissue)
273
Q

where is cilia commonly located in the body?

A

in the airways

274
Q

where is microvilli commonly located in the body?

A

in the intestines

275
Q

3 types of cell junctions

A
  • tight junctions
  • anchoring junctions
  • gap junctions
276
Q

tight junctions

A
  • connect cells, creates a seal
  • creates blood:brain barrier, blood:milk barriers, and zonula occludes
277
Q

zonula occludes

A

tight junction

278
Q

3 types of anchoring junctions

A
  • desmosomes
  • hemi-desmosomes
  • zonula adherens
279
Q

desmosomes: purpose, component

A
  • cell:cell
  • made up of CAMS (cell adhesion molecules)
  • caherin
280
Q

hemi-desmosomes: purpose, component

A
  • cell:ECM
  • integrins
281
Q

zonula adherens: purpose, component

A
  • cell shape
  • attach to actin:contractile
282
Q

gap junction allows _____ __________

A

open passage

283
Q

goblet cells secrete _______

284
Q

goblet cells make the protein _______, which attracts water

285
Q

what type of cell is located in: air sacs of the lungs and the lining of the heart, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels

A

simple squamous epithelium

286
Q

simple squamous epithelium function

A

allows materials to pass through by diffusion and filtration, and secretes lubricating substance

287
Q

what type of cell is located in: ducts and secretory portions of small glands and in kidney tubules

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

288
Q

simple cuboidal epithelium function

A

secretes and absorbs

289
Q

what type of cell is located in: ciliates tissues are in broochi, uterine tubes, and uterus; smooth are in digestive tract and bladder

A

simple columnar epithelium

290
Q

simple columnar epithelium function

A

absorbs; also secretes mucous and enzymes

291
Q

what type of cell is located in: ciliated tissue lines the trachea and much of the upper respiratory tract

A

pseudo stratified columnar epithelium

292
Q

pseudo stratified columnar epithelium function

A

secretes mucus; ciliates will move mucus

293
Q

what type of cell is located in: lines the esophagus, mouth, and vagina

A

stratified squamous epithelium

294
Q

stratified squamous epithelium function

A

protects against abrasion

295
Q

what type of cell is located in: sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands

A

stratified cuboidal epithelium

296
Q

stratified cuboidal epithelium function

A

protective tissue

297
Q

what type of cell is located in: the male urethra and the ducts of some glands

A

stratified columnar epithelium

298
Q

stratified columnar epithelium function

A

secretes and protects

299
Q

what type of cell is located in: bladder

A

transitional epithelium

300
Q

transitional epithelium function

A

allows expansion and stretch of organs

301
Q

melanocytes make _________

302
Q

albinism

A

congenital absence of melanin

303
Q

in albinism, melanocytes are present but lack the enzyme _________

A

tyrosinase

304
Q

endocrine glands secrete:

A

secrete hormones, ductless

305
Q

exocrine glands secrete:

A

secrete saliva, milk, sweat, mucous, digestive enzymes

306
Q

3 modes of secretion

A
  • merocrine
  • apocrine
  • holocrine
307
Q

merocrine secretion

A

exocytosis

308
Q

apocrine secretion

A

cut the top off (apo=apical)

309
Q

holocrine secretion

A

the whole cell bursts

310
Q

connective tissue fibers

A

collagen, elastin

311
Q

3 main categories of connective tissue

A
  1. proper connective tissue
  2. supportive connective tissue
  3. fluid connective tissue
312
Q

what are the two types of proper connective tissue?

A
  • loose CT
  • dense CT
313
Q

what are types of supportive connective tissue?

A

bone and cartilage

314
Q

what are types of fluid connective tissue?

A

blood and lymph

315
Q

what are the two TYPES of cells in the connective tissue?

A
  • fixed cells
  • wandering cells
316
Q

types of fixed cells

A

fibroblasts, adipocytes, osteocytes, mesenchymal cells

317
Q

types of wandering cells

A

immune cells (macrophages, mast cells, lymphocytes, plasma cells, neutrophils)

318
Q

white vs brown adipocytes

A
  • white = unilocular
  • brown = multilocular
319
Q

3 types of connective tissue fibers

A
  • collagen
  • elastic fiber
  • reticular fiber
320
Q

what common structures in the body contain collagen?

A

ligaments, tendons

321
Q

what structure has elastic fiber?

322
Q

what structures have reticular fiber?

A

soft organs: liver, spleen, etc.

323
Q

parenchyma

A

functional part of the organ, blood vessel, and nerves

324
Q

stroma

A

supportive connective tissue

325
Q

function of loose connective tissue

A

protects, insulates, shock absorb, allows diffusion

326
Q

types of loose connective tissue

A

adipose tissue, areolar tissue, reticular tissue

327
Q

two types of dense connective tissue

A
  • regular
  • irregular
328
Q

regular dense connective tissue: structure and examples

A
  • structure: parallel fibers
  • examples: ligaments and tendons
329
Q

irregular dense connective tissue: structure and examples

A
  • structure: direction of fiber is random
  • examples: dermis of skin, arteriole
330
Q

what is the hardest connective tissue?

331
Q

cells in bone

A

osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteocytes, osteoprogenitor, chondroblasts, chondrocytes

332
Q

osteo = _______

333
Q

chondro = ________

334
Q

function of osteoblasts

A

lay down bone

335
Q

function of osteoclasts

336
Q

gels in bone

A

glycoproteins, GAGs

337
Q

fiber in bone

338
Q

what mineral is in bone?

A

calcium phosphate –> hydroxyapatite

339
Q

function of bone

A

provides protection and structural support

340
Q

bones ECM is mostly ________ fibers and its ground substance is _________________

A

collagen; hydroxyapatite

341
Q

endosteum in bone

A

on the inside

342
Q

periosteum in bone

A

on the outside

343
Q

where do osteocytes live in bone?

A

in lacunae (caves in the bone)

344
Q

bone is highly ______________ so it can heal quickly

A

vascularized

345
Q

ossification

A

bone formation

346
Q

2 types of bones

A
  • flat bones
  • long bones
347
Q

flat bones are made by _____________ ossification

A

intramembranous

348
Q

long bones are made by _____________ ossification

A

endochondral (endoCHONDRal = cartilage first).

349
Q

intramembranous ossification

A

mineral deposited with in a membrane template, makes flat bones

350
Q

endochondral ossification

A

mineral is laid down with in a cartilage template, makes long bones

351
Q

bone remodeling is a ___________ process, it is always breaking down and remaking itself

A

continuous

352
Q

bone is ___________ so it can heal fast, while cartilage is ___________ and can typically only heal through surgery

A

vascular, avascular

353
Q

arteriole vs venule structure

A
  • arteriole = smooth muscle so it looks round and muscular
  • venule = no smooth muscle, easily collapses and occludes
354
Q

erythrocytes

A

red blood cells

355
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells

356
Q

Buffy coat

A

the white blood cell layer when you spin blood

357
Q

platelets are used for ___________

358
Q

lymph

A

ECF (no RBCs), delivers absorbed dietary fats through circulation

359
Q

why do people collapse after standing for a long time?

A

lymph is moved by breathing and muscle contraction, so if you don’t move your muscles for an extended period of time it accumulates in the legs/feet causing edema

360
Q

components of lymph

A
  • lymphatic fluid
  • lymphatic vessels
  • lymphocytes
  • lymphoid tissues, organs (spleen, thymus)
361
Q

3 types of cartilage

A
  1. hyaline
  2. fibrocartilage
  3. elastic cartilage
362
Q

hyaline cartilage

A
  • most common
  • strong and flexible
363
Q

template for embryonic skeletal

A

hyaline cartilage

364
Q

rib cage, nose, end of articulated bone are examples of ______ cartilage

365
Q

fibrocartilage and examples

A

tough, thick bundles of collagen

366
Q

elastic cartilage

A

contains elastin with collagen and PGs

367
Q

meniscus of knee, vertebral discs are ________cartilage

A

fibrocartilage

368
Q

pinna of ears, Eustachian tubes, larynx are examples of ______ cartilage

369
Q

melanocytes use __________ mode of secretion

370
Q

melanocytes sit in between the ________ cells of the skin

371
Q

2 main layers of skin

A
  • epidermis
  • dermis
372
Q

beneath the dermis is the _________

A

hypodermis

373
Q

keratinocytes

A

majority of skin cells

374
Q

basal cells

A

proliferating/replicating layer (creates more cells)

375
Q

merkel cells

A

touch receptors (attached to a sensory nerve)

376
Q

melanocytes

A

melanin pigment (skin pigmentation, protects from environment)

377
Q

langerhans cells

A
  • macrophages
  • protects the skin by “eating” infections that come into contact with the skin
378
Q

what makes keratinocytes die?

A

basal cells keep dividing, pushing out keratinocytes, the further pushed out they are the further they are from blood supply, so devoid of nutrients and oxygen they will die

379
Q

what is the lifespan of a keratinocyte?

A

30-40 day lifespan

380
Q

cornification / coenocytes

A

layer of dead cells

381
Q

skin cancer is called ________

382
Q

an important player in UVB-induced apoptosis is the transcription factor ______

383
Q

sebaceous glands produce _________

A

sebum (oily, sticky secretion)

384
Q

acne vulgaris

A

plugged hair follicle or excess sebum secretion, bacteria love it and will make inflammation response causing acne or blackheads

385
Q

when trying to pop a pimple, the _______ layer does NOT have blood vessels, so if you make yourself bleed you have cut into the ____________

A

keratin; epidermis

386
Q

lanolin

A

wax secreted by the sebaceous glands of wool-bearing animals

387
Q

exocrine sweat glands

A
  • most common
  • hypnotic sweat
  • all over body
388
Q

apocrine sweat glands

A
  • large and deep
  • make other compounds
  • associated with hair follicles
389
Q

during cold stress, what happens to the blood vessels?

A
  • heat is retained
  • vasoconstriction (blood goes deep into the body)
390
Q

during heat stress, what happens to the blood vessels?

A
  • heat is dissipated
  • vasodilation (heat loss through radiation and convection)
391
Q

5 cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  • redness (rubor)
  • heat (calor)
  • pain (dolor)
  • swelling (tumor)
  • loss of function (functio laesa)
392
Q

acute

A

short term, very painful

393
Q

chronic

A

pain lasts forever

394
Q

the mast cell is part of the __________ system

395
Q

the mast cell is known for releasing _____________

396
Q

when does the mast cell release histamine?

A

when encountering an antigen they don’t recognize it triggers a response, the mast cell will degranulate releasing histamine causing inflammation

397
Q

main difference between mast cell and basophil

A
  • mast cells are in tissue
  • basophil is in blood
398
Q

mast cell vs basophil

A
  • mast cell: in tissue, many granules, membrane projections, large size, lives months, round nucleus
  • basophil: in blood, few granules, smooth muscle, small size, lives days, lobed nucleus
399
Q

mast cells and basophils arise from a ___________ stem cell precursor in the bone marrow

400
Q

what activates mast cells

A
  • receptor-binding agonists
  • physical activators
  • cell-cell contact
401
Q

what is released from mast cells (stored in granules)

A
  • performed mediators
  • T and B cell ligands
  • newly synthesized mediators
402
Q

steps of healing

A
  1. clotting
  2. healing
  3. angiogenesis
  4. primary union or secondary union
403
Q

angiogenesis

A

replace blood vessels

404
Q

primary union

A

healing a narrow gap (small wound)

405
Q

secondary union

A

healing a gaping wound (big wound)

406
Q

granulation tissue

A
  • primary tissue to fill in a wound
  • appears red and bumpy, highly vascular, made up of macrophages
407
Q

cytokines

A

activate fibroblasts (to make collagen, trigger endothelialization, and help form blood vessels)

408
Q

atrophy

A

wastage, degeneration, decline, loss of mass

409
Q

“old age diseases”

A

heart conditions, type 2 diabetes, cancer

410
Q

nervous system + endocrine system

A

signaling systems

411
Q

nervous system uses ________ and ___________ signals

A

uses electrical and chemical signals

412
Q

endocrine system uses only ___________ signals

413
Q

endocrine _________ produce hormones, transported in ________ (mostly), binds to receptors on _________ cells

A

organs (glands); blood; target

414
Q

why do hormones need receptors on target cells?

A

since hormones are transported by blood a lot of the body is exposed to the hormones, so only the ones with a receptor for the hormone will have a response

415
Q

be able to identify all endocrine glands and identify anatomical structures!!!!!!

416
Q

4 main classes of hormones

A
  • amine hormones
  • peptide hormone
  • protein hormone
  • steroid hormone
417
Q

components of amine hormones

A

amino acids with modified groups

418
Q

components of peptide hormones

A

short chains linked amino acids

419
Q

components of protein hormones

A

long chains of linked amino acids

420
Q

components of steroid hormones

A

derived from the lipid cholesterol

421
Q

examples of amine hormone

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine

422
Q

example of peptide hormone

423
Q

example of a protein hormone

A

human growth hormone

424
Q

examples of steroid hormones

A

testosterone, progesterone

425
Q

list the 4 main classes of hormones from biggest to smallest

A

protein hormone, peptide hormone, steroid hormone, amine hormone

426
Q

which hormones have receptors on the membrane?

A

protein and peptide hormones

427
Q

which hormones have receptors inside the cell / in the cytoplasm?

A

steroid and amino hormones

428
Q

what does the synthesis of norepinephrine and epinephrine look like?

A

tyrosine —-> norepinephrine —(add a methyl)–> epinephrine

429
Q

epinephrine

A

increases heat rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels (also dilates airways)

430
Q

norepinephrine

A

increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessels (also enhances alertness and focus)

431
Q

binding of lipid-soluble hormones

A
  1. hormone diffuses through membrane
  2. binds to receptor in cytoplasm
  3. enters nucleus and triggers gene transcription
  4. transcribed mRNA is translated into proteins that alter cell activity
432
Q

which is faster: steroid hormones to protein hormones?

A

protein hormones are faster

433
Q

Unlike endocrine glands, exocrine glands have ______ to secrete outside the cell

434
Q

Zonula occludens vs zonula adherens

A

Zonula Occludens is a type of tight junction while Zonula adherens is an anchoring junction