Exam 2: Head and Neck Flashcards
1
Q
The sternocleidomastoid when contracted unilateral will result in……
A
contralateral rotation and ipsilateral side bending
2
Q
The sternocleidomastoid when contracted bilaterally will result in……
A
flexion of the neck and (paradoxically) extension if the head already extended
3
Q
______ is frequently encountered when the airflow in the nose in impeded, predisposition to congestion
A
Deviated nasal septum
4
Q
_______ develop off the nasal cavity. They enlarge within the bones of the skull but remain connected to the nasal cavity
A
Air sinuses
5
Q
The lining of the nasopharynx, auditory tube and the middle ear are all innervated by the ______.
A
CN IX: Glossopharyngeal
6
Q
Define Mastoiditis. What can occur if left untreated?
A
a middle ear infection that has spread to the mastoid process.
Meningitis and infection of CNS
7
Q
What connects the right and left lobe of the thyroid gland?
A
Isthmus
8
Q
How many total parathyroid glands are there?
A
4 total, posterior side of the thyroid have 2 each.
9
Q
During any thyroid procedure what must you pay special attention to and why?
A
All 4 parathyroid glands because their product: Parathyroid hormone: cannot be synthetically replaced.
10
Q
Parathyroid hormone is responsible for?
A
Increasing serum calcium levels
11
Q
______ is located posterior to the Pons
A
Cerebellum
12
Q
The wrinkles on the brain forms…..
A
Distinct sulci (grooves) and gyri (bumps) on the surface
13
Q
What is the difference between a contusion and a concussion?
A
Concussion is a contusion plus loss of consciousness
14
Q
Cold or heat pain signals travel faster? Why?
A
Cold, nerves that carry cold signals have myelin versus heat ones do not
15
Q
Anterior circulation of the brain is?
A
Internal carotid artery
16
Q
The olfactory bulb extends off the _____, which connects it to the ______.
A
Olfactory tract
Cerebral cortex
17
Q
The olfactory bulb sends olfactory nerves through the______ of the ethmoid bone to reach the ______.
A
Cribiform plate
superior nasal cavity
18
Q
The retina of the eye is a direct extension of the ______ and as such, is actually part of the ________.
A
Diencephalon
central nervous system
19
Q
The _____ extends away from the brain and induces formation of the lens from epidermal tissue
A
optic cup
20
Q
The _____ sends axons through left and right _______.
A
retina
optic nerves
21
Q
_____ travel through the optic canal. These converge and swap axons at the ______.
A
Right and Left optic nerve
Optic chiasm
22
Q
Where do the Left and Right optic nerves axons synapse? In what part of the brain?
A
lateral genicuate nuclei
Thalamus
23
Q
Where is visual information processed?
A
Occipital lobe
24
Q
What part of the eye is the retina?
A
The back layer of the eye
25
When light enters the eye, what happens?
Give an example.
It becomes a reversed image by the retina
Lower parts of the visual field project on the superior retina and vice versa
26
Describe how the brain perceives the Right and Left sides of the visual field.
The temporal side of the visual field projects to the nasal aspect of the retina and vice versa
27
What happens to the nasal and temporal input on a patient's left side.
Left temporal stays on the left side of the brain
Left nasal crosses to the RIGHT to join the right side optic radiation.
28
What happens to the nasal and temporal input on a patient's right side.
Right temporal stays on the right side of the brain
Right nasal crosses to the LEFT to join the left side optic radiation.
29
How will a lesion of the optic nerve present?
Visual deficits in ONE eye
30
How do impingements/lesions of optic radiation present?
Visual deficits affecting one visual field. Will be in BOTH eyes
Homonymous hemianopia
31
How do lesions in the optic chiasm present?
Loss of bilateral temporal visual field
Bitemporal hemianopia
32
Define bitemporal hemianopia
Loss of bilateral temporal visual field
33
Define homonymous hemianopia
Visual deficits affecting one visual field. Will be in BOTH eyes
34
After the lateral geniculate nuclei, the axons project (Ipsi or contra) laterally on their way to the occipital lobes. They will also separate once again into ____ and ____ optic radiations.
Ipsilaterally
Superior and Inferior
35
_____ see black and white and motion
Rods
36
______ color and fine detail
Cones
37
What are located in the fovea?
Cones
38
What does the lens do as you get closer and closer to it?
Rounds up- Round lens = seeing close
Flat lens = seeing far away
39
What area of the world does your superior retina see?
The ground
40
The superior tract of the optic radiation goes through what lobe?
Parietal lobe
41
The inferior tract of the optic radiation goes through what lobe?
temporal lobe
42
For quadrantanopia, how do you determine where the problem is coming from?
The exact opposite (Superior/Inferior and Right/Left)
43
What does the inferior oblique eye muscle do?
elevate the eye
44
What does the superior oblique eye muscle do?
Depress the eye
45
What nerve innervates the superior oblique?
CN IV: Trochlear
46
What nerve innervates the lateral rectus?
CN VI: Abducens
47
How do you test the superior oblique muscle?
Have the patient look medial then inferiorly
48
How do you test the superior rectus muscle?
Ask the patient to look laterally and then superiorly
48
How do you test the Inferior rectus muscle?
Ask the patient to look laterally and then inferiorly
48
How do you test the inferior oblique muscle?
Ask the patient to look medially and then superiorly
49
What CN lesions presents with double vision when looking down?
CN IV: Trochlear
50
What cranial nerve lesion presents with persistently adducted pupil?
CN VI: Abducens
51
What is the consensual reflex?
When both pupils reaction to the stimulus of one
If only one reacts, indicates a problem
52
If you shine a light in the eye and neither pupil reacts, what is the likely cause?
Problems with CN II: Optic
53
What is the most common aneurysm to cause CN III compression?
posterior communicating artery
54
Loss of parasympathetic innervation of an eye is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure due to what?
pressure from the oculomotor nerve pushed against the dura mater
55
What is unique about the internal carotid artery?
does a U turn/have a U turn shape present
56
When the zonule fibers in the eye relax, what happens?
The lens becomes rounder aka can see up close
57
When the zonule fibers in the eye contract, what happens?
The lens becomes flatter/ more like an oval. aka can see farther away
58
What are the three regions of the trigeminal nerve?
Ophthalmic - V1
Maxilla - V2
Mandibular - V3
59
Where does the ophthalmic nerve exit?
Superior orbital fissure
60
The ophthalmic nerve splits into what branches?
Frontal
Lacrimal
Nasocilary
61
What branches come off of the Frontal nerve?
Supraorbital nerve
Supratrochlear nerve
62
What branches come off the nasocilary nerve?
-Posterior and anterior ethmoidal nerves
-Long and short ciliary nerves
63
Where does the maxillary nerve exit?
Foramen rotundum
64
What two nerves are responsible for sensation to the forehead?
Give the nerve route from the CN
Supraorbital and supratrochlear
CN: V Trigeminal -> Ophthalmic -> Frontal-> Supraorbital and supratrochlear
65
What two nerves are responsible for sensation to the eye?
Long and short ciliary nerves
66
The greater palatine nerve is sensory to....
hard palate
67
The lesser palatine nerve is sensory to....
Soft palate
68
What nerves are sensory to the teeth?
Posterior and superior alveolar
69
Where does the mandibular nerve exit?
foramen ovale
70
What nerve gives sensation to the lower teeth? What is special about it?
Inferior alveolar
Stays in the mandibule until it pops out as the mental nerve
71
The ____ nerve provides sensation to the chin
Mental
72
What nerve provides sensation to the tongue?
Lingual
73
What nerve supplies sensation to the inner cheek?
Buccal
74
What is a common cause of trigeminal neuralgia? What can trigger it?
blood vessel pushing against the nerve
light touch or cold air
75
What branch of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for muscles of mastication?
Mandibular nerve- V3
76
What are the 4 muscles of mastication?
1. Masseter
2. Temporalis
3. Lateral pterygoid
4. Medial pterygoid
77
If there is a problem with the _____ nerve affecting bite strength, when the mouth is actively open, what side will the jaw deviate towards?
Mandibular nerve
deviate TOWARDS the problem side
78
Tensor veli palatini function?
Tenses soft palate
79
Tensor tympani, function?
Keeps the middle ear from shacking violently
80
What are the four rando muscles that are also supplied by the mandibular nerve?
-Tensor veli palatini
-Tensor tympani
- Anterior belly of diagastric
- Mylohyoid
81
Lateral pterygoid, function?
open the jaw
82
Hypoglossus muscle innervation?
CN XII: Hypoglossal
83
Stylohyoid muscle innervation?
CN VII, facial
84
Posterior Belly of digastric muscle innervation?
CN VII: Facial
85
General rule of thumb, facial SENSATION is what nerve?
MOTOR of the face is?
CN V: Trigeminal
CN VII: Facial
86
Where does the facial nerve enter? Where does it exit?
Internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone
Stylomastoid foramen
87
Name the functions of CN VII
-MOTOR to the face
-Sensory to some of the ear
-Taste to anterior tongue
-Innervation to lacrimal, submandibular and sublingual glands
88
What are the six branches of the Facial nerve
1. Temporal
2. Zygomatic
3. Buccal
4. Mandibular
5. Cervical
6. Posterior auricular
89
Where does the facial nerve (and all of its branches) exit?
Stylomastoid foramen
90
Bell's palsy is damage to what cranial nerve?
CN VII: Facial
91
What is indicated if you have a patient that screams Bell's palsy but they can generate wrinkles on BOTH side
indicates CENTRALLY LOCATED lesion within the cortex or brainstem
92
What tiny muscle in the middle ear does the facial nerve innervate? What does de-innervation cause?
Stapedius
Hyperacusis: sounds are abnormally and painfully loud
93
What two parasympathetic nerves come off the facial nerve? and what nerves do they give rise to?
Greater petrosal -> lacrimal nerve
Chorda tympani -> Submandibular and sublingual glands
94
How is taste sensation conveyed?
travels backwards on the chorda tympani nerve
95
Where does CN VIII enter?
Enter: Internal acoustic meatus
96
Where is an acoustic neuroma/schwannoma usually found? What nerves are affected?
Near the internal acoustic meatus
Facial and vestibulocochlear
97
Fluid on the inside of the ear canals is called ?
Endolymph
98
Fluid on the outside of the canals is called?
Perilymph
99
Where does CN VIII exit?
It does not, stays within the temporal bone
100
What nerves innervate the external ear?
V3, VII and upper cervical spinal nerves
101
What nerves innervate the ear canal?
CN VII and X
102
What are the 3 ossicles of the middle ear?
Malleus, incus and stapes
103
What are the crystalline deposits called in the inner ear?
otoliths
104
What are the three semi-circular loops in the ear called?
Utricle- Horizontal
Saccule- Vertical
Ampulla- Rotational
105
The jugular foramen is the exit point for what three nerves?
CN IX: Glossopharyngeal
CN X: Vagus
CN XI: Spinal
106
Name some functions of CN IX. (In order)
1. Sensory to pharynx and middle ear
2. Motor to stylopharyngeus
3. General sensory and taste sensory to posterior tongue
4. Innervates the parotid salivary gland
5. Innervates baroreceptors and chemoreceptors in the carotid vessels
107
What does a lesion of CN IX present with?
Dry mouth due to decreased salivation
108
Where does the CN X exit?
Jugular foramen
109
Name the functions of CN X
- Motor to palate, pharynx, larynx and esophagus
- Sensory to the larynx, esophagus, external ear canal, dura mater of the posterior cranial fossa
- Innervates the aortic baroreceptors
- Motor and sensory to all the thoracic organs, foregut and midgut
110
What would a lesion of CN X present with?
Increased heart rate, decreased gut peristalsis and sounds, decreased secretions from digestive glands
111
What nerves form the pharyngeal plexus? Which one is motor vs sensory?
CN IX (Sensory) and CN X (motor)
112
How do you test CN IX and X?
Check their gag reflex
113
If the patient felt the touch at the back of their throat checking their gag reflex, what nerve is intact?
CN IX: Glossopharyngeal
114
If the patient's throat twitched as a result of checking their gag reflex, what nerve is intact?
CN X: Vagus
115
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by ?
CN IX: Glossopharyngeal
116
All laryngeal muscles are innervated except _____ by what nerve? What is the exception innervated by?
Inferior laryngeal nerve from Recurrent branches of CN X: Vagus
cricothyroid muscle- external branch of superior laryngeal nerve
117
Uvula deviation leans the strong or weak side?
the STRONG side
118
When swallowing, what happens?
The suprahyoid muscles elevate the hyoid bone, closing off the laryngeal opening
119
Do not forget to look at this slide
120
What nerve innervates the larynx? Motor and sensory?
Both by CN X: Vagus
Motor: Inferior laryngeal nerve from recurrent laryngeal nerve
Sensory: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
121
What branch is sensory to the larynx?
Sensory: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
122
What branch is motor to the larynx?
Inferior laryngeal nerve from recurrent laryngeal nerve
123
What muscle is responsible for deepening or heightening the pitch of our voice?
Cricothyroid muscle
124
What nerve is motor and sensory to the esophagus?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
125
What nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle?
External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
126
What is the only muscle that pulls the airway apart?
Posterior cricoaretynoid muscle
127
What part of the body makes the noise that we hear?
Vibrations of the true vocal folds
128
The ______ muscle tilts the thyroid cartilage anteriorly on the cricoid. What does this cause?
Cricothyroid muscle
Raising the voice's pitch
129
What would de-innervation of the cricothyroid cause?
monotone voice
130
***The _____ muscles ABduct the vocal folds. If de-innervation happens unilaterally, what is the result?
Posterior cricoaretynoid muscles
it will cause hoarseness as the loose fold flaps in the breeze
Dr. Ward said to really know this one
131
____ and _____ muscles loosen the vocal folds when they contract. What are they innervated by?
Vocalis and thyroaretynoid
Inferior laryngeal nerve
132
______ and _______ muscles ADduct the vocal folds. Which allows (more/less) air to travel through the larynx
Innervated by?
lateral cricoaretynoid and aretynoid
LESS
Inferior laryngeal nerve
133
The accessory nerve originates from the ______ spinal cord level.
C1-5
134
Axons from the accessory nerve exit the spinal cord and ascend through the ______ and then through the _______.
Foramen magnum
Jugular foramen
135
What muscles does CN:XI innervate?
Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscle
136
Where does CN: XII exit the skull?
Hypoglossal canal
137
What muscles does CN XII innervate?
All the muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus
138
Damage to _____ will cause difficult swallowing
cervical plexus
139
What levels consist of the cervical plexus? What does it innervate?
C1-3
Muscles near the hyoid bone
140
The cervical plexus forms a loop. What is it called?
Ansa cervicalis
141
____ axons also hitchhike on the hypoglossal nerve
C1
142
The cervical plexus carries (motor/sensory) axons from the ......
sensory
neck, ear, clavicles and posterolateral scalp
143
Damage to the cervical plexus can cause _____ ______.
Thyrohyoid tilt
144
What is the function of the Genioglossus?
sticks the tongue out
145
What is the function of the hyoglossus?
Depresses the tongue
146
What is the function of the styloglossus?
Retracts the tongue
147
Intrinsic muscles of the tongue are responsible for? Why?
All the weird movements the tongue can do
because they attach to other muscles, giving them more freedom
148
Palatoglossus is innervated by ?
CN X: Vagus
149
Stylohyoid and Tendon of diagastric muscles are innervated by ?
CN VII: Facial
150
Mylohyoid is innervated by ?
CN V: Trigeminal V3
151
The Geniohyoid is innervated by ?
C1: Ansa Cervicalis
152
Damage to the genioglossus muscle will result in ?
The tongue will point TOWARDS the affected side due to the genioglossus muscle crowding out the weaker side
153
The epiglottis is responsible for ?
Innervated by ?
General sensation and taste
CN X: Vagus
154
Function of the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue ?
Innervation?
General sensation and taste
Glossopharyngeal CN: IX
155
Function of the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue?
Innervation?
General sensation-> Lingual nerve (branch of mandibular nerve V3)
Taste -> Chorda tympani (Branch of facial nerve)
156
What nerve is responsible for taste?
Chorda tympani
157
The part in blue is called ?
What things does it contain?
Anterior Cranial Fossa
Frontal, Ethmoid and Sphenoid Bones
Frontal lobe
Olfactory Bulb (CN I)
158
The part in green is called ?
What does it contain?
Middle Cranial Fossa
Sphenoid and Temporal Bones
Temporal lobe
Optic nerve (CN II)
Pituitary Gland
Hypothalamus
Middle meningeal artery
CN III, IV, V, VI
159
The part in light pink is called ?
Posterior Cranial Fossa
Temporal and Occipital Bone
Pons
Medulla
Cerebellum
CN VII-> XII
160
The chorda tympani hops on the _____ nerve in order to ?
Lingual nerve of V3 to get to sublingual and salivary, taste buds
161
Name the borders of the posterior triangle
Trapezius
SCM
Clavicle
162
What is the orange triangle?
Occipital
163
What is the blue triangle?
Supraclavicular
164
What is the green triangle?
Carotid
165
What is the purple triangle?
Submandibular
166
What is the white triangle?
Submental
167
What are the borders of the occipital triangle?
Trapezius
SCM
Inferior belly of the omohyoid
168
Name the 4 structures that the occipital triangle contains.
1. External jugular vein
2. Cervical Plexus
3. Accessory Nerve
4. Trunks of brachial plexus
169
What are the borders of the Omoclavicular triangle?
Inferior Belly of the omohyoid muscle
SCM
Clavicle
170
What 2 things does the omoclavicular triangle hold?
1. Subclavian artery and vein
2. Supraclavicular lymph node
171
What are the borders of the Anterior triangle?
Midline of the neck
SCM
Inferior border of mandible
172
What are the borders of the submandibular triangle?
Anterior belly of the digastric muscle
Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
Inferior border of the mandible
173
The submandibular triangle contains what 4 important things.
Submandibular gland
submandibular lymph nodes
Hypoglossal nerve
Facial artery and vein
174
What are the borders of the submental triangle?
Anterior belly of digastric muscle
Hyoid bone
Midline of neck (OR) opposite anterior belly of digastric muscle
175
What important structure is found in the submental triangle
Submental lymph nodes
176
What are the borders of the carotid triangle?
Superior belly of omohyoid
SCM
Posterior belly of digastric
177
Name the 8 important structures found within the carotid triangle.
Carotid sheath
- All carotid arteries
- Internal jugular vein
- Vagus nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Accessory nerve
Thyroid gland
Larynx
Deep cervical lymph nodes
178
What are the borders of the carotid triangle?
Superior belly of omohyoid muscle
SCM
Sternohyoid muscle
179
What 2 important structures are within the muscular triangle.
Thyroid gland
Parathyroid gland
180
The flat, paired bones of the skull form from _______ via ______.
somatic mesoderm
intramembranous ossification
181
In children the coronal suture and sagittal suture meet at ?
Anterior fontanelle (soft spot)
182
What does it mean if the anterior fontanelle is sucked in?
The child is dehydrated
183
Before the pterion is formed it is the ____ in children.
Anterolateral or sphenoidal fontanelle
184
Before the asterion is formed it is the ______ in children
Posterolateral or mastoid fontanelle
185
The only true synovial joint of the skull is the _______, allowing the _____ process of the mandible to articulate with the temporal bone. A _______ disc allows smooth movement
temporomandibular joint
condylar
fibrocartilage
186
There are ____ pharyngeal arches in human development. Name them.
5
1
2
3
4
6
there is NO 5
187
Arch 1 is innervated by ? What muscles are derived from it? Bone?
V3
Muscles of mastication
Mandibule
188
Arch 2 is innervated by ? Muscles?
CN VII: Facial
Muscles of facial expression
189
Arch 3 innervates? Muscles?
CN IX: Glossopharyngeal
Stylopharngyeal and muscles of pharynx/palate
190
Arch 4 innervates ? Muscles?
CN X: Vagus
muscles of pharynx/palate
191
Arch 6 innervates ? muscles?
Recurrent branch of CN X
Muscles of phonation (speaking/voice)
192
First groove gives rise to ?
External auditory meatus
193
First pouch gives rise to?
Auditory tube
194
Second pouch gives rise to?
Palatine tonsil
195
third pouch gives rise to ?
Parathyroid gland and thymus
196
fourth pouch gives rise to ?
parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body
197
ultimobranchial body produces ____ ?
Calcitonin releasing cells of the thyroid
198
The 2nd, 3rd and 4th grooves develop into ?
Cervical sinus
199
The ____ develops off the tongue by descending down the neck
thyroid
200
The ear/auricular hillocks develops off of what two arches?
First and Second
201
The external ear, _____, develops from ________ that fuse, migrate and eventually form the mature auricle.
Auricle
Six auricular hillocks
202
Failure of the cervical sinus to obliterate can result in _______
branchial fistulae or cysts.
203
______ are openings from the skin (external) or oral region (internal) that extend to a cervical cyst.
Branchial fistulae (sometimes called branchial sinuses)
204
_____ are isolated, fluid-filled sacs that do not open to either the skin or pharynx.
Branchial cysts
205
Branchial fistula present with ?
Persistent bad breathe
206
Describe how a thyroglossal duct cyst forms
Part of the thyroid tissue lodges along the path, separate from the thyroid gland
207
What is a pyramidal lobe?
an additional lobe on the thyroid gland that extends superiorly along the path of the thyroglossal duct
208
What is the early opening of the GI tract called?
Stomodeum
209
Describe an oblique facial cleft
Failure of medial and lateral nasal prominences to fuse with the maxillary prominences
210
The _____ is connected to the incisive bone, or primary palate, which contributes the _______ to the maxilla and fuses with the rest of the hard palate. Palatine shelves “swivel” to form the rest of the hard palate
philtrum
four incisor teeth
211
If you have a baby with a cleft palate, what difficulties might they have?
latching on the nipple to nurse
212
Cleft lips are failures of the ______ to fuse with the ______.
maxillary prominence
medial nasal prominences
213
Describe holoprosencephaly. What gene is responsible?
Failure of the cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles to separate
Sonic hedgehog
214
What two prominences fuse to form the upper lip?
maxillary and medial nasal prominences
215
The yellow section is what?
Primary palate also called the incisive bone
216
The orange section is called ?
What does it contain?
Occipital triangle
SCM
Inferior belly of omohyoid
Trapezius
217
_____ headache, pain is related to the location and innervation of paranasal _____
Sinus
218
_____ headache: recurring, intense, UNILATERAL pain around the eye and cheek for about 30 minutes
Cluster
219
______ headache: muscle tension and fatigue creating BILATERAL scalp pain, can co-exist with other headaches
Tension
220
_______ headache: variable UNILATERAL headache may or may not have sensory changes
Migraine
221
The "worst headache of my life" can be caused by what 3 major kinds
Epidural hematoma
Subdural hematoma
Subarachnoid hematoma
222
______ hematomas are between dura and arachnoid mater, and are not impeded by suture of the cranial bones. What are they shaped liked?
Subdural
Semilunar (half moon)
223
_______ due to ruptured aneurysms can be difficult to spot since the blood is not confined in any one area but can spread throughout the ______ space. How are these best diagnosed?
Subarachnoid hemorrhages
MRI- due to being able to see the contrast between CSF and blood
224
Vestibular schwannoma causes ???? Which CN is involved?
Sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo
CN VIII (sometimes can involve VII as well)
Note: Sensorineural means hearing loss due to damage to the inner ear or damage to CN XIII
225
Acute neurologic signs for eye pain and visual disturbances points to ???
vascular cause
225
Slowly progressive signs of eye pain and visual disturbances point to ???
Tumor
226
Infection, thrombi or general dysfunction of what four CNs most likely involves the cavernous sinus
CN III, IV, VI and V1
227
Dysfunction of _____ can be caused by aneurysm of the internal carotid artery in the cavernous sinus or increased intracranial pressure
CN VI
228
Dysfunction of _____ is often caused by a space-filling lesion that pushes the _____ nerve against the opposite tectorial notch. This will also lead to increased intracranial pressure.
CN III
229
Temporalis
Origin/Insertion/Function
Temporal fossa
Coronoid process of mandible
Elevate the mandible, particularly the incisors
230
Masseter
Origin/Insertion/Function
Zygomatic Arch
Angle and body of mandible
Elevate the mandible- particularly the molars
231
Medial Pterygoid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Pterygoid plates of sphenoid
Angle and body of mandible
Elevate and medially deviate mandible
232
Lateral Pterygoid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Pterygoid plates of sphenoid
Condylar process and TMJ joint disc
Open and protrude the mandible
233
Superior pharyngeal constrictor
Origin/Insertion/Function
Raphe with buccinator muscle
Occipital bone and pharyngeal constrictors
Constrict pharynx to move bolus of food inferiorly
234
Middle Pharyngeal Constrictor
Origin/Insertion/Function
Hyoid bone
Other pharyngeal constrictors
Constrict pharynx to move bolus of food inferiorly
235
Inferior Pharyngeal Constrictors
Origin/Insertion/Function
Thyroid cartilage
Other pharyngeal constrictors
Constrict pharynx to move bolus of food inferiorly
236
Stylopharyngeus
Origin/Insertion/Function
Styloid process of temporal bone
Pharyngeal constrictors
Elevate and shorten pharynx
237
Muscles of soft palate and uvula
Origin/Insertion/Function
Hard palate and pterygoid plates of sphenoid bone
Same muscle from the opposite side
Separate the nasopharynx and oropharynx
238
Levator Veli Palatini
Origin/Insertion/Function
Cartilage of auditory tube
Soft palate
Separate the nasopharynx and oropharynx
239
Tensor Veli Palatini
Origin/Insertion/Function
Cartilage of auditory tube and pterygoid plates
Soft palate
Separate the nasopharynx and oropharynx
240
Palatopharyngeus
Origin/Insertion/Function
Soft palate
Pharyngeal constrictors
Depress palate and elevate pharynx
241
Palatoglossus
Origin/Insertion/Function
Soft palate
Base of tongue
Depress palate
242
Digastric
Origin/Insertion/Function
Mastoid process of temporal bone
Genu of mandible and hyoid bone
Elevate hyoid bone during swallowing
243
Stylohoid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Styloid process of temporal bone
Hyoid bone
Elevate hyoid bone during swallowing
244
Mylohyoid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Body of right and left mandible
Midline raphe
Elevate hyoid bone during swallowing
245
Sternohyoid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Posterior sternum
Hyoid bone
Depress hyoid bone
246
Sternothyroid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Posterior sternum
Thyroid cartilage
Depress hyoid bone
247
Thyrohyoid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Thyroid cartilage
Hyoid bone
Depress hyoid bone
248
Omohyoid
Origin/Insertion/Function
Superior scapula
Hyoid bone
Depress hyoid bone
249
_____ Contains cardiorespiratory center, pain sensation in head, facial movement, swallowing
Medulla
250
_______ Relay between cortex and cerebellum, muscles of mastication, fine touch of face
Pons
251
_____ Coordination of ongoing motor activity
Cerebellum
252
______ Assists with motor planning, jaw proprioception
Midbrain
253
_____ Day-to-night and seasonal cycles
Epithalamus (pineal gland)
254
______ Primal drives: appetite, sexual, thermoregulation
Hypothalamus
255
_____ Growth, thyroid, water balance, lactation, pregnancy maintenance
Pituitary gland
256
Frontal lobe function
Personality, motor activity, executive impulse control
257
Pre-central gyrus function
Primary motor cortex
258
Parietal lobe function
Perception of senses, mathematics, language
259
Post-Central gyrus function
Primary somatosensory cortex
260
Temporal lobe function
Memory, emotion, hearing, language
261
Occipital lobe function
Vision
262
Corpus callosum function
Sharing information between right and left lobes
263
Longitudinal cerebral fissure function
Separates left and right cortex
264
Central Sulcus function
Separates frontal and parietal lobes
265
Lateral Sulcus function
Separates frontal & parietal lobes from temporal lobe
266
Parieto-occiptal sulcus function
Separates parietal and occipital lobes
267
Calcarine sulcus function
Separates upper and lower aspects of occipital lobe
268
The ______ separates the right & left lobes of the cortex
falx cerebri
269
The _______ separates the occipital and temporal lobes from the cerebellum.
tentorium cerebelli
270
Telencephalon gives rise to ______ and ______
Cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles
271
Diencephalon gives rise to _____ and ______
Thalamus and 3rd ventricle
272
Mesencephalon gives rise to ____ and _____
Midbrain and aqueduct
273
Metencephalon gives rise to _____, ______ and ______
Pons, cerebellum and 4th ventricle
274
Myelencephalon gives rise to ______ and _____.
Medulla and 4th ventricle
275
What is the thinnest tube in the flow of CSF?
Cerebral aqueduct
276
What is the structure called where the CSF exit the 4th ventricle?
At the lateral and median aperture
277
Tuffs of arachnoid mater that allow CSF to leave are called ?
Arachnoid granulations
278
Where does the arachnoid granulations drain into?
Superior sagittal sinus
279
What are the 3 fine touch receptors?
Meissner corpuscles, Ruffini end organs and Merkel cells
280
_____ sense pressure and vibration
Pacinian corpuscles
281
_______ are sensitive to pain and temperature
Free nerve endings
282
DCML conveys what 3 things to the brain
Fine touch, vibration and proprioception
283
Anterolateral/Spinothalamic tract receives what 3 things
Pain, temperature and crude touch
284
Where is the first neuron for DCML?
Posterior root ganglion
285
Name and where is the second order neuron for DCML?
Lower limb = Gracile fasculis
Upper limb = Cunuate fasculis
in the inferior medulla
286
DCML 3rd order neuron are called ?
Location?
Ventral Posterior Lateral Nucleus (VPL)
Thalamus
287
Anterolateral tract are responsible for what 3 things?
Pain
Temperature
Crude touch
288
Anterolateral System decussates ....
in the anterior white commissure
289
Anterolateral system ascends.....
CONTRAlaterally
290
Where does the Anterolateral system synapse?
Synapses almost immediately in the posterior horn
291
Spinothalamic leads to the ???
conscious perception of pain
292
Spinoreticular is responsible for ???
arousal aspects of pain
293
Spinobulbar is responsible for ???
wincing and withdrawal
294
Spinomesencephalic is responsible for ???
pain modulation
295
Spinohypothalamic is responsible for ???
Emotional/autonomic response to pain
296
____ take blood from the cortex to the Superior sagittal sinus
bridging veins
297
______ signals the spinal cord to increase tone to the stretched muscle
Muscle spindles
298
_____ signals the spinal cord to decrease tone to agonist muscles
Golgi Tendon Organs
299
Deeper nervous structures drain to the _____ or ______
inferior sagittal sinus or Basilar vein
300
T/F: The Basilar vein is parallel to the basilar artery.
False, basilar vein is NOT parallel to the artery
301
Blood flows through the straight sinus to join the superior sagittal sinus at the ________
confluence of sinuses
302
Why is the cavernous sinus clinical important?
Because it has lots of nerves traveling through there
303
What connects the anterior and posterior venous blood drainage?
Superior and Inferior petrosal sinuses
304
The Inferior and Superior petrosal sinuses connect with the posterior drainage at the ???
Transverse and sigmoidal sinuses.
Then head down to the internal jugular vein
305
______ is site that is vulnerable to venous infections or an internal carotid artery aneurysm
Right cavernous sinus
306
What is the artery located below the pterion?
Middle meningeal artery
307
This is an example of?
Usually artery or vein?
Epidural hematoma
The blood hemorrhaging into the epidural space pushes the dura away from the skull but cannot separate the dura from the sutures
Usually ARTERIES
308
This is an example of ?
Usually artery or vein?
Subdural hematoma
Between the dura mater and arachnoid, not impeded by the sutures of the cranial bones
usually VEIN
309
What kind of vessel is common in subdural hematomas.
Bridging veins
310
______ bleeds are usually slower than their counter parts
Venous bleeds are slower than arterial bleeds
311
______ most frequently cause subarachnoid hematomas
Ruptured cerebral arteries by burst aneurysms
312
Rupture of vessels inside the brain is a _______.
cerebral hemorrhage
313
______ artery supplies the hip, leg and foot region of the post central gyrus.
Anterior cerebral artery
314
What is the area in Blue? If it is affected, how does it present? What is the technical term for it?
Wernicke's area
CANNOT comprehend, but can speak
Receptive aphasia
315
What is the area in red? If it is affected, how does it present? What is the technical term for it?
Broca's area
Can comprehend, but CANNOT speak
Expressive Aphasia
316
Name some symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome
- results from chronic alcoholism
- confusion, severe memory loss and apathy
- due to poor nutrition- develop thiamine deficiency
- damage to thalamus and parts of the hypothalamus
317
What is circled in purple?
Caudate nucleus
318
What is outlined in red?
Putamen
319
What is outlined in yellow?
Globus pallidus (external segment)
320
What is outlined in green?
Crura of fornix
321
The pathways of Basal Ganglia; the direct pathway _____ motion
INCREASES
322
The pathways of Basal Ganglia; the indirect pathway _____ motion
decreases
323
Parkinsons's is the loss of _______
Substantia nigra
324
The loss of _____ and ______ is Huntington's Disease
Putamen and Caudate Nucleus
325
_____ Inability to make coordinated and accurate movements
Ataxia
326
______ Movements are too short or too long and are adjusted after completion.
Dysmetria
327
______ Inability to make rapidly alternating movements.
Dysdiadochokiesia
328
The venous drainage of the nasal cavity is into the _____ and ______.
anterior facial and ophthalmic veins
329
Arterial bleeding in the nose can be difficult to control due to the multiple vessels feeding into _______
Kiesselbach’s area
330
What is the technical term for a nose bleed?
Epistaxis
331
The ______ is the ONLY place you can directly observe the circulatory system to look for pathology, degeneration, etc
central artery of the retina
332
Anastomosis in the head and neck rely on what two arteries? Both branch of what larger artery?
The facial artery and infraorbital artery
External carotid artery
333
The terminal (forehead) part of ______ artery anastomoses with branches of the ______ artery, which originates from what larger artery?
Facial artery and ophthalmic artery
Internal carotid artery
334
What are the five layers of the scalp?
S= Skin
C = Connective tissue
A = Aponeurosis (tendon between occipitalis and frontalis muscles
L = Loose (areolar) connective tissue
P = Periosteum
335
Blood near the nose & upper lip drains through the ______ to reach the ______
facial veins
jugular veins
336
However, blood near the nose and upper lip can drain through _____ to the _______.
ophthalmic veins
cavernous sinus
337
Dysfunction of what cranial nerves in addition to swelling of the orbit are most common signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis.
cranial nerves III, IV, V1, V2 & VI
338
The Pericervical lymph collar consists of what 5 groups of lymph nodes?
Occipital
Mastoid
Parotid
Submandibular
Submental
339
The superficial fascia of the face and scalp drain into what lymph group?
Pericervical lymph collar
340
After the pericervical lymph collar the fluid goes to ______. Then they are passed to _____.
Superficial cervical lymph nodes
Deep cervical lymph nodea
341
After the deep cervical lymph nodes, they collect ???? and then ?????
Right and left jugular lymphatic trunk
Subclavian veins
342
What are MALT? Give an example. Cellular type?
Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue
Tonsils
Lymphocytes
343
What is the submental lymph node drainage route?
Chin-> middle of lower lip -> tip of tongue -> Submental node
344
What is the submandibular lymph node drainage route?
Rest of lower lip-> Upper lip -> Sublingual gland -> Submandibular node
