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PHA 430 - Immunopharmacology and Biotechnology > Exam 2 - Cytokines (part 2) > Flashcards

Exam 2 - Cytokines (part 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What does CSF stand for?

A

Colony Stimulating Factors

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2
Q

T/F: Colony Stimulating Factors are a family of glycoproteins.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

Colony stimulating factors support _____ colony formation.

A

Colony stimulating factors support HEMATOPOIETIC colony formation.

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4
Q

Name the cytokines that stimulate hematopoiesis.

A

COLONY STIMULATING FACTORS (CSFs)

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5
Q

What are colony stimulating factors also known as?

A

Blood-forming cytokines

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6
Q

T/F: Colony stimulating factors support the survival, proliferation, and maturation of Hematopoietic Progenitor Cells.

A

TRUE

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7
Q

What function do CSFs modulate?

A

CSFs modulate the function of MATURE EFFECTOR CELLS

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8
Q

T/F: CSFs include only lineage specific cytokines.

A

FALSE

-CSFs include both lineage specific and multipotential cytokines

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9
Q

What term describes cytokines that only acts on one type of cell?

A

Lineage specific

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10
Q

What term describes cytokines that act on more than one type of cell through proliferation, maturation, etc.?

A

Multipotential

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11
Q

T/F: CSFs protect patients from infection and allow increase in cytotoxic agents.

A

TRUE

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12
Q

CSFs prevent ______ - ______ neutropenia.

A

CSFs prevent CHEMOTHERAPY-INDUCED neutropenia.

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13
Q

When do CSFs stimulate heamopoiesis?

A

In BONE MARROW FAILURE

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14
Q

CSFs promote cell _____.

A

CSFs promote cell DIFFERENTIATION.

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15
Q

Do CSFs assist in marrow transplantation?

A

YES

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16
Q

What is effector cell function?

A

What a cell does

-CSFs augment effector cell function

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17
Q

T/F: CSFs stimulate monocyte’s anticancer effects.

A

TRUE

-Increase tumor killing ability of monocytes

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18
Q

What does G-CSF stand for?

A

Granulocyte-CSF (colony stimulating factor)

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19
Q

What secretes G-CSF?

A

Macrophages, Endothelium, and Leukocytes

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20
Q

What does ADCC stand for?

A

Antibody Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity

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21
Q

One function of IgG is ____.

A

One function of IgG is ADCC.

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22
Q

G-CSF is considered a ____ ____ cytokine.

A

G-CSF is considered a LINEAGE SPECIFIC cytokine.

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23
Q

What does G-CSF stimulate?

A

NEUTROPHILS ONLY

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24
Q

T/F: Granulocyte-CSF is responsible for the survival of eosinophils.

A

FALSE

-Granulocyte-CSF is responsible for the survival of NEUTROPHILS

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25
Q

G-CSF stimulates ____ ____ to produce neutrophils and then direct their migration to the peripheral blood.

A

G-CSF stimulates BONE MARROW to produce neutrophils and then direct their migration to the peripheral blood.

26
Q

What is a growth factor for the proliferation, differentiation, effector function, and survival of neutrophils?

A

G-CSF

27
Q

T/F: G-CSF causes proliferation of endothelial cells.

A

TRUE

28
Q

T/F: G-CSF decreases the phagocytic activity of neutrophils.

A

FALSE

-G-CSF enhances the phagocytic activity of neutrophils

29
Q

Does G-CSF cause ADCC?

A

YES

-It causes antibody-mediated cellular toxicity by neutrophils

30
Q

Name the drug that is a G-CSF.

A

Filgrastim

31
Q

What type of cytokine is Filgrastim?

A

G-CSF

32
Q

How is Filgrastim produced?

A

By recombinant DNA technology

33
Q

Who receives Filgrastim?

A

Pts receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy for advanced cancer

34
Q

What does Filgrastim cause in terms of neutropenia?

A

A dose-dependent amelioration of neutropenia associated with cancer-chemotherapy.

35
Q

Filgrastim has been well tolerated and may reduce the ____ and ____ rate associated with chemotherapy.

A

Filgrastim has been well tolerated and may reduce the MORBIDITY and MORTALITY rate associated with chemotherapy.

36
Q

What does Filigrastim do to cytotoxic agents?

A

It permits the used of high doses of cytotoxic agents and a greater anti-tumor response

37
Q

What is the name of the drug that stabilizes neutrophils?

A

Filgrastim

38
Q

What does GM-CSF stand for?

A

G - Granulocyte

M - Macrophage

39
Q

What does granulocyte mean?

A

NEUTROPHILS

40
Q

What cell types produce GM-CSF?

A

Macrophages, T cells

-Also: mast cells, fibroblasts, endothelial cells

41
Q

What does GM-CSF do?

A

It stimulates stem cells to produce neutrophils and monocytes
-Monocytes migrate into tissues and differentiate into macrophages

42
Q

T/F: GM-CSF cytokines are multilineage cytokines.

A

TRUE

43
Q

What type of cytokine is Sargramostim?

A

GM-CSF

44
Q

What kind of side effects does Sargramostim exhibit?

A

Flu-like symptoms

45
Q

T/F: Sargramostim is a human recombinant GM-CSF.

A

TRUE

46
Q

When does Sargramostin exhibit beneficial effects?

A

On bone marrow function in pts getting high dose chemo in the setting of autologous bone marrow transplantation as well as in the treatment of advanced cancers

47
Q

What disease states has Sargramostim been used for to stimulate bone marrow function?

A
  • AIDS
  • Myelodysplastic Syndrome
  • Aplastic Anemia
48
Q

What do high doses of Sargramostim result in?

A
  • Weight gain
  • Generalized edema
  • Hypotension
49
Q

GM-CSF causes _____ -_____ asymptomatic eosinophilia.

A

GM-CSF causes DOSE-DEPENDENT asymptomatic eosinophilia.

50
Q

What produces IL-11?

A

BONE MARROW STROMA

51
Q

What does IL-11 activate?

A
  • B cells
  • Plasmacytomas
  • Hepatocytes
  • Megakaryocytes
52
Q

IL-11 plays a role in ____ ____ proliferation and increases ____ levels after chemo.

A

IL-11 plays a role in BONE CELL proliferation and increases PLATELET levels after chemo.

53
Q

T/F: IL-11 does not modulate antigen-antibody responses.

A

FALSE

-IL-11 does modulate antigen-antibody responses

54
Q

What cell types does IL-11 promote differentiation in ?

A
  • Progenitor B cells

- Megakaryotes

55
Q

Name the drug that is an Interleukin-11 drug.

A

Oprelvekin (Neumega)

56
Q

____ is recombinant human IL-11.

A

OPRELVEKIN is recombinant human IL-11.

57
Q

What is Oprelvekin used for?

A

To stimulate bone marrow to induce PLT production in pts on chemo

58
Q

When Oprelvekin administered?

A

SC

6-24 hours after chemo

59
Q

What side effects does Oprelvekin have?

A
  • Flu-like
  • Fluid retention
  • Tachycardia
  • Edema
  • N/V
  • SOB
60
Q

What is Oprelvekin used to treat?

A

PLT deficiency (cancer, genetic abnormality)

PHA 430 - Immunopharmacology and Biotechnology (9 decks)

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