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Nutrition And Disease > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

An animate or inanimate object that serves as a long term habitat and focus of dissemination for an infectious agent

A

Reservoir

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2
Q

An individual or object from which an infection is actually acquired

A

Source of infection

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3
Q

Reservoir for Cryptosporidium parvum

A

Cattle

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4
Q

Source of infection for crypto parvum

A

Water

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5
Q

Exampe of a case where the reservoir and source are the same

A

Syphilis (humans are reservoir and source)

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6
Q

Objects that are able to transfer disease organisms

A

Fomite

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7
Q

Any live animal that transmits an infectious agent from one host to the next. Typically used to describe arthropod reservoirs

A

Vector

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8
Q

Vector type that actively participates in the pathogen’s life cycle

A

Biological vector

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9
Q

Vector type that is a passive participant in the transmission of disease

A

Mechanical

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10
Q

Spread of disease through a population from one infected individual to another (can be indirect or direct)

A

Horizontal Transmission

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11
Q

Spread of disease from parent to offspring via placenta, sperm, milk or ovum (always direct)

A

Vertical transmission

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12
Q

Example of direct contact transmission

A

Cat to human ringworm

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13
Q

Cat to human to cat is an example of what type of transmission?

A

Indirect contact transmission

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14
Q

A sneeze or a cough from infected to uninfected individuals is an example of what type of transmission?

A

Direct Airborne (aerosol) Transmission

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15
Q

A sneeze that contaminates a ventilation system that eventually infects animal/human is an example of what type of transmission?

A

Indirect Airborne (Aerosol) Transmission

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16
Q

Toxoplasma gondii and listeria monoctogenes are examples of diseases spread through which mode of transmission?

A

Placental

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17
Q

In placental transmission, the microbe can cross the placenta and enter the ____ ____ and spread disease

A

Umbilical vein

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18
Q

Placental transmission depends upon the ______ _____ and the ______ involved

A

Gestation stage and the microbe involved

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19
Q

Fomites spread disease through _______ transmission

A

Indirect

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20
Q

Bedding with E coli is an example of which type of transmission?

A

Fomites

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21
Q

Arthropods (vector transmission) spread disease through ______ transmission

A

Indirect

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22
Q

Disease classification that has severities and duration between acute and chronic. Accounts for some forms of anthrax.

A

Subacute Disease

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23
Q

Term for someone who studies the factors that determine the frequency and distribution of disease within populations

A

Epidemiologist

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24
Q

The number of new cases of disease in a defined population over a specific time period as compared to the general healthy population i a certain time period (typically over a year)

A

Incidence (morbidity rate)

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25
Q

Total number of cases in a population compared to the entire population

A

Prevalence

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26
Q

Formula for determining prevalence

A

Total number of cases in a population divided by the total number of individuals in a population X 100

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27
Q

Term for a disease always present within a population of a geographic area

A

Endemic disease

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28
Q

Disease affecting animals of specific geographic area. Constantly present in specific animal community but occurs in small number of cases

A

Enzootic disease

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29
Q

Term for disease with few isolated cases of disease in a widespread area in an unpredictable manner

A

Sporadic

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30
Q

Term for a sudden onset and widespread outbreak within a group

A

Epidemic disease

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31
Q

Term for a widespread disease in a population of animals other than humans. Spread rapidly, simultaneously affecting a large number of animals in a region

A

Epizootic disease

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32
Q

Term for a disease that is a widespread epidemic usually across continents

A

Pandemic Disease

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33
Q

Term for a widespread epizootic disease

A

Panzootic disease

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34
Q

United Nations organization for monitoring zoonoses

A

WHO (The World Health Organization)

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35
Q

What is the World Health Organization responsible for?

A

Promoting cooperation of health care among nations

Carry out disease control and eradication

Improve quality of human/animal life

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36
Q

This organization sends out teams of epidemiologists to investigate outbreaks and assist with bringing the outbreak under control

A

WHO

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37
Q

United States agency that functions to assist state and local health department in all aspects of epidemiology

A

CDC

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38
Q

Primary federal agency for conducting and supporting medical research

A

National Institutes of Health (NIH)

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39
Q

Line of defense that limits access to the internal tissues and organs of the body

A

First line of defense

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40
Q

What are the anatomic properties of the first line of defense?

A

Unbroken skin, Mucous membranes, Hairs and cilia

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41
Q

The second line of defense is composed of _______ and _______ protection

A

cellular and chemical

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42
Q

Fever stimulating chemical that could be bacteria, virus or parasites

A

Pyrogen

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43
Q

What are the benefits of Fevers?

A

Inhibit replication

Stimulate WBCs to destroy microbes, reduce iron available for bacterial replication

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44
Q

What are the disadvantages of fevers?

A

Increase HR, increased caloric demand, seizures, dehydration

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45
Q

Causitive agent of Anthrax

A

Bacillus anthracis

Non-motile, gram +, endospore forming bacilli

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46
Q

Conditions in which anthrax multiplies

A

60 degrees, heavy rainfall

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47
Q

Animals most commonly associated with the epizootic form of anthrax

A

Cattle, bison and deer (typically a disease of herbivores)

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48
Q

What are the three forms of anthrax?

A

Peracute, Acute and Chronic

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49
Q

Form of anthrax presenting with ataxia, dyspnea, trembling or sudden death. (Typically do not show any signs)

A

Peracute Anthrax

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50
Q

Form of anthrax in ruminants that produces localized edema, typically in the neck, thorax and shoulders.

A

Chronic anthrax

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51
Q

Form of anthrax causing lingual and pharyngeal edema and/or hemorrhage of the pharyndeal and cervical lymph nodes in swine

A

Chronic anthrax

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52
Q

Why should necropsies never be performed on animals suspected to have anthrax infection?

A

Spores form when exposed to oxygen

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53
Q

How are anthrax endospores destroyed?

A

Autoclaving, boiling for 30 minutes, expose to dry heat at 140 degrees for 3 hours, chemical disinfection at high concentration for a long period of time, cremation

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54
Q

Treatment for bite wounds

A

Clean, irrigate, debride, antibiotics (within 24 hours)

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55
Q

Disease also known as “Bang’s disease”, Contagious abortion, Matta Fever, or Mediterranean fever

A

Brucellosis

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56
Q

What species is resistant to Brucellosis?

A

Cats

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57
Q

Brucellosis in cattle is uncommon due to what in the US?

A

Vaccinations

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58
Q

Common transmission of Brucellosis to humans is from what species?

A

Sheep and goats

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59
Q

In what states is Brucellosis more prevalent?

A

Texas, California, Virginia and Florida

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60
Q

What are the mechanical vectors for Brucellosis?

A

Contaminated food, water and exretement

Ingestion of bacteria present in large animals in aborted fetuses and uterine discharges

Sexually transmitted fluids

Open wounds, conjunctiva or inhalation

Ingestion of contaminated milk

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61
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Brucellosis?

A

Brucella are engulfed by neutrophils and are carried in the lymphatic fluid to the lymph nodes, blood and organs

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62
Q

Clinical signs of Brucellosis

A

Spontaneous abortion, inability to conceive, inflammation of sex organs, death

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63
Q

What are methods of diagnosis of Brucellosis?

A

Gram stain

Culture

Serum Agglutination and ELISA

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64
Q

Treatment for Brucellosis?

A

Not attempted. Many recover from disease signs but infection remains. Infected animals are often eliminated.

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65
Q

How can Brucellosis be managed?

A

Vaccination and testing before breeding

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66
Q

What is the most common cause of acute infectious diarrhea?

A

Campylobacteriosis

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67
Q

Disease also known as vibriosis and vibrionic abortion

A

Campylobacteriosis

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68
Q

Disease that produces endotoxins that invade jejunum, ileum and colon as well as hemorrhagic legions

A

Campylobacteriosis

69
Q

Disease that causes hepatitis in poultry and abortion in ruminants

A

Campylobacteriosis

70
Q

What is the treatment for Campylobacteriosis?

A

7-28 day antibiotic treatment

71
Q

Infection found in almost all anaerobic environments, gram positive and endospore forming bacilli

A

Clostridial infections

72
Q

Infection associated with botulism, c-diff, and tetanus (uncommon in the US)

A

Clostridial infections

73
Q

Disease causing rapidly fatal motor palysis

74
Q

Disease common in chickens causing flaccid paralysis of legs, wings, eyelids and neck

75
Q

Disease with lower cases in cattle causing drooling, inability to urinate, dysphagia and death

76
Q

What species are resistant to Botulism?

A

Dogs, cats and pigs

77
Q

Sheep become infected with this disease via eating infected rabbits

78
Q

In horses, this disease causes death, stilted gait, muscular tremors, dysphagia, constipation

79
Q

What species is most sensitive to Cl Tetani?

80
Q

What species are most resistant to Cl tetani?

A

Dogs, cats and birds

81
Q

How are clostridial infections diagnosed?

A

ELISA, gram stain, tissue culture, and history

82
Q

How is clostridium treated?

A

Antibiotics and antitoxins

No treatment depending on species of clostridium due to ineffectivity based on severity of infection

83
Q

Disease that causes diamond shaped lesions

A

Erysipellas

84
Q

During what seasons is Erysipeloid most prominent?

A

Summer or early fall

85
Q

How is Erysipelas transmitted?

A

Wounds and ingestion of contaminated feces

86
Q

Disease that produces enzymes that dissect tissues

A

Erysipelas

87
Q

How are pigs treated for Erysipelas?

A

Antiserum and antibiotics

Chronic infections may require culling

88
Q

What species infected with Erysipelas are treated with Penicillin?

A

Birds and sheep

89
Q

Disease also known as malleus?

90
Q

Disease causing SQ nodules, and is a fatal skin and respiratory disease affecting horses, donkeys and mules

91
Q

What is the causative agent of Glanders?

A

Burkholderia mallei

92
Q

Disease that produces toxins that interfere with energy production, lysis of cell membranes and cell death

93
Q

What are the three forms of Glanders?

A

Acute, chronic and latent

94
Q

How is Glanders diagnosed?

A

Culture, PCR, ELISA, and Mullein test

95
Q

Why is treatment of Glanders not recommended?

A

Potential spread to humans

96
Q

How is Glanders managed/controlled?

A

Infected animals should be euthanized. No vaccine exists.

97
Q

Disease excreted in urine, parturition fluids and contaminated water and soil

A

Leptrospirosis

98
Q

Disease seen more during summer and fall, with high incidence in tropical areas

A

Leptospirosis

99
Q

What occurs during the acute or early phase of Lepto?

A

enters the blood stream and multiplies in the kidney - also enter the ceberospinal fluid

100
Q

What occurs during the subacute or second phase of Lepto?

A

Blood infection resolves, endotoxin produced leads to decrease red blood cells and tissue injury

101
Q

How is Lepto diagnosed?

A

Urinalysis, culture (6 weeks in the dark), agglutination, ELISA, PCR

102
Q

Treatment for this disease is only efficient if initiated early.

A

Leptospirosis

103
Q

Disease also known as “circling disease”

A

Listeriosis

104
Q

Disease occuring primarily in newborn infants, elderly patients and immunocompromised people

A

Listeriosis

105
Q

Disease that may be present in the intestinal tract of 1-10% of humans

A

Listeriosis

106
Q

Causitive agent of listeriosis

A

Listeria monocytogenes

107
Q

What is the peak time for listeriosis?

A

Between February and April

108
Q

What are the reservoirs for Listeriosis?

A

soil and intestinal tract

109
Q

What kind of transmission of listeriosis occurs in ruminants?

A

Vertical transmission

110
Q

Disease that binds to epithelial cells of the GI tract, triggers phagocytosis

A

Listeriosis

111
Q

What occurs after neurological symptoms of listeriosis?

112
Q

How can listeriosis be managed?

A

Feed high quality feed, isolate infected animals

113
Q

Disease also known as shipping fever in cattle and snuffles in rabbits

A

Pasteurellosis

114
Q

Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of what bacterial disease?

115
Q

What are the three forms of plague?

A

Bubonic, Pneumonic, and septicemic

116
Q

Approximately 50% of cats contract what form of plague?

117
Q

What can be used to treat plague?

A

Streptomycin and tetracycline combination

118
Q

How is the plague diagnosed?

A

Fluorescent antibody test, aspirate lymph node, PCR

119
Q

Disease causing food poisoning

A

Salmonellosis

120
Q

What are the 3 forms of salmonellosis?

A

Septicemia, Acute enteritis, chronic enteritis

121
Q

Primary reservoirs of salmonellosis

A

Poultry, livestock and reptiles

122
Q

What diseases are caused by strep?

A

Scarlet fever, pneumonia, strangles, mastitis

123
Q

Antibiotic of choice for strep infections

A

penicillin

124
Q

Disease also known as deer fly fever or rabbit fever

125
Q

Francisella tularensis is the causitive agent of what disease?

126
Q

Treatment for Tulameria

A

Streptomycin and tetracycline

127
Q

Disease also known as Goat bloat fever or Query fever

128
Q

Disease commonly seen in slaughterhouse workers in the 1940s

129
Q

Coxiella burnetti is the causitive agent of what disease?

130
Q

Q fever is seen worldwide except what country?

A

New Zealand

131
Q

How is Q fever diagnosed?

A

Can not be cultured.

ELISA test

Complement fixation

132
Q

What is the treatment for Q fever?

A

Tetracycline

133
Q

Disease typically infected and spread by hard ticks

134
Q

How is Q fever transmitted?

A

Inhalation, direct or indirect contact with infected animals or dried excretions (milk or amniotic fluid), ticks

135
Q

In what disease does pregnancy stimulate the replication of bacteria in reproductive and mammary gland tissues

136
Q

Disease also known as black measles and spotted fever?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

137
Q

600-800 cases in humans a year in the US

138
Q

What are the main hosts of RMSF?

A

Arthropods

139
Q

Clinical signs of petichia may indicate what bacterial disease?

140
Q

Disease common in dogs 3 years old or younger, most commonly contracted between March and October

141
Q

Dog showing low platelet counts, moderate leukocytosis with a left shift (increase in band neutrophils) may have what disease?

142
Q

Treatment for RMSF

A

Tetracycline or Doxycycline

Chloremphenicol (pregnant and puppies less than 6 months)

143
Q

Fungi type that are chemically and genetically similar to animals which makes it challenging to treat

A

Eukaryotic

144
Q

How is fungi classified?

A

Reproduction and presence of hyphae

145
Q

Type of fungi that are either yeast or mold

146
Q

What two types of fungi are animals not generally tolerant?

A

True pathogens and opportunistic pathogens

147
Q

Fungi that can infect healthy animals

A

True pathogens

148
Q

Fungi that present in low numbers in animals that cause disease when the host environment is altered

A

Opportunistic

149
Q

Fungi that cause ringworm

A

Trichophyton and microsporum

150
Q

Fungi that cause chrombastomycosis

151
Q

Fungal disease that invades body tissues and tends to be dimorphic fungi- blastomyces

A

Systemic mycoses

152
Q

Normally harmless fungi that cause disease when host is compromised - candida

A

Opportunistic fungi

153
Q

Non contagious fungi respsonsible for tinea crursis (ringworm of groin/jock itch)

A

Epidermophyton

154
Q

Nutrient source for dermatophytosis

155
Q

Most common dermatophytosis worldwide (92% in children less than 10)

A

Tinea pedis

156
Q

Fungal growth and spore formation within the hairshaft (ex. trichophyton tonsurans and T violaceum)

157
Q

Fungal growth producing spores on the outside of the hairshaft (microsporins)

158
Q

Dermatophytes most commonly affecting cattle

A

T Verrucousm

159
Q

Subcutaneous fungal disease also known as rose gardener’s disease

A

Sporotrichosis

160
Q

Fungal disease common in intact male cats

A

Sporotrichosis

161
Q

Disease commonly seen in north central and south eastern US (including OH) that causes granulomatous nodules in lungs and on skin

A

North American Blactomycosis

162
Q

Amphotericin B and ketoconazole are treatment options for which fungal disease?

A

North American Bastomycosis

163
Q

Disease also known as Ohio Valley Fever or Darling’s disease

A

Histoplasmosis

164
Q

Histoplasmosis is seen everwhere except which continent?

165
Q

This disease is benign after inhalation of small amounts but becomes severe overnight

A

Histoplasmosis

166
Q

Ketoconazole is used to treat what fungal disease?

A

Histoplasmosis

167
Q

Disease also known as Valley Fever, San Joaquin Fever and California Disease

A

Coccidiodomycosis

168
Q

Disease that resembles tuberculosis, favors habitats with high carbon and salt content

A

Coccidiodomycosis

169
Q

Fluconazole is used to treat what fungal disease?

A

Coccidiodomycosis

Nutrition And Disease (7 decks)

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