Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Osteochondrosis

A

Process of abnormal bone and cartilage formation

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2
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)

A

Lesions that penetrate the joint surface, creating inflammation and effusion

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3
Q

Bone formation

A

Chondrocytes form calcified columns in hypertrophic zone

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4
Q

What forms Primary Spongiosa?

A

Osteoblast using calcified columns

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5
Q

What is the pathophysiology of OCD?

A

Failure of blood vessels to penetrate the calcified cartilage
Occlusion of canals
Epiphyseal necrosis due to mechanical shearing, stress concentration, blunt trauma, or repeated damage

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6
Q

What is the pathophysiology of OCD at a young age?

A
Thickened cartilage
Cyst-like changes
Degeneration of cartilage 
Uncalcified cartilage not vascularized 
Cracks in pathological cartilage
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7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of OCD in an adult?

A

Subchondral fibrosis
Fibrocartilage covers the defect
Sclerosis of subchrondral bone
Osteophyte formation

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8
Q

What is the etiology of OCD?

A

Genetics
Nutrition
Trauma
Combo of factors

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9
Q

What are the genetic causes of OCD?

A

Rapid growth potential
familial tendencies
Mostly in males

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10
Q

What are the Nutrition causes of OCD?

A
Decreased Ca and Increased P
Excess zinc 
Copper deficit 
Vitamin A and D deficiency 
High protein diet 
High caloric intake
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11
Q

What are the clinical signs of OCD?

A
Insidious to acute onset 
Lameness
Decreased ROM 
Pain on manipulation 
Synovial effusion 
Bog spavin for tarsal crural joint 
Bilateral
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12
Q

Where do you find Equine OCD?

A
Tibiotarsal joint (Hock)
Stifle 
Fetlock 
Cervical vertebrae
Shoulder
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13
Q

What is the most common place for Equine OCD?

A

Tibiotarsal joint

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14
Q

Where do you find Equine OCD in the tibiotarsal joint?

A
Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia 
Lateral trochlear ridge 
Medial trochlear ridge
Medial malleolus 
Lateral malleolus
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15
Q

Where do you find Equine OCD in the stifle?

A

Lateral trochlear ridge
Medial trochlear ridge
Medial femoral condyle (cyst)

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16
Q

Where do you find Equine OCD in the fetlock?

A

Sagittal ridge of MC III
Caudal eminence of P1
P1 or MC III cyst

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17
Q

How do you treat Equine OCD?

A
Rest 
Intra-articular medication 
Surgery - Arthrotomy
Joint supplements
Chondroprotective agents
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18
Q

What are the goals of joint therapy for OCD?

A
Decrease joint inflammation 
Decrease cartilage degradation 
Decrease pain 
Maintain/improve athletic performance
Promote longevity 
improve quality of life
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19
Q

What are the chondroprotective agents for Equine OCD?

A
Glucosamine 
Chondroitin sulfate
Hyaluronic acid 
Polysulfated glycoaminoglycans
Anti inflammatory drugs - NSAID, corticosteroids
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20
Q

What are the advanced surgical options for Equine OCD?

A

Cartilage resurfacing
Osteochondral dowel grafts
Autologous chondrocyte transplantation
Gene therapy

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21
Q

Engineered matrix

A

Harvested matrix from the abattoir and then decellularized to reduce rejection.
Seed the matrix with chondrocytes

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22
Q

Gene therapy

A

IL-1 antagonist can insert the antagonist into the joint

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23
Q

What are the advantages of Arthroscopy?

A
Minimal joint trauma
Joint evaluation 
Remove debris
Chip Removal 
Infection reduced
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24
Q

What are the disadvantages of Arthroscopy?

A

Equipment cost

Set up time

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25
Q

What is the Egress canula used for?

A

to flush out debris

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26
Q

Where is the most common place for chip fractures of the carpus?

A

distal radial carpal bone

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27
Q

Where is the place for chip fractures of the carpus?

A

Distal radial carpal bone
proximal intermediate carpal bone
distal lateral ridge

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28
Q

Laparoscopy

A

a procedure done with a laparoscope a thin lighted tube used to look inside the abdomen. A type of endoscope but with a tiny video camera

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29
Q

What are the advantages of Laparoscopy?

A

Rapid return to function
Relatively noninvasive
quick to perform

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30
Q

What are the disadvantages of Lapraroscopy?

A

Expense of equipment
Skill of surgeon
Video image is 2D

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31
Q

What are the indications for Laparascopy?

A
Chronic weight loss 
Colic 
Intraabdominal hemorhage 
Peritonitis
Neoplasia 
Adhesiolysis 
Vaginal-uterine tears
Rectal tears
Rectal prolapse
Mesocolic ruptures
Gastric ruptures
Abdominal abscesses
Uterine artery ruptures
Orchidectomy 
Ovarioectomy 
Granulosa Cell Ovarioectomy 
Colopexy 
Cystorraphy 
Cystotomy 
Inguinal herniorrhaphy 
Removal of infected umbilical remnants
Evaluation of pleural cavity
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32
Q

What are the landmarks for standing laparoscopy?

A

Tuber coxae
18th rib
Internal abdominal oblique muscle

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33
Q

What are the complications of Laparoscopy?

A

Post Op discomfort due to carbon dioxide creating carbonic acid
Hemorrhage of the caudal epigastric artery + vein
Local incision infection

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34
Q

GIA

A

Gastro-intestinal Anastomosis

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35
Q

ILA

A

Intra Luminal Anastomosis

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36
Q

TA

A

Thoracoabdominal

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37
Q

LDS

A

Ligating Dividing Stapler

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38
Q

EEA

A

End-to-End Anastomosis

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39
Q

When do you use the LDS?

A

mesentery of the bowel

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40
Q

LDA

A

Left Displaced Abomasum

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41
Q

What are the causes of LDA?

A

Abomasal atony
Decreased rumen volume
calving
Abomasum changes in dimension, position or volume

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42
Q

What are the causes of Abomasal atony that cause LDA?

A

increased abomasal VFA
hypocalcemia
metritis
mastitis

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43
Q

When would a cow most likely be affected with LDA?

A

Last 3 months of gestation

First 3 months of lactation

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44
Q

How does the LDA move?

A

Transverse

Leftward

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45
Q

What are the clinical signs of LDA?

A

Refuse grain
Normal temp
still passing feces
Tympany in left flank

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46
Q

How do you surgically treat an LDA?

A

Right flank omentopexy
Left flank abomasopexy
Right paramedian abomasopexy
Closed suture or bar technique

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47
Q

What are the nerve block options of Right Flank Omentopexy?

A

Proximal paravertebral block
Distal paravertebral block
Inverted L block
Line block

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48
Q

What are the indications for Digit Amputation?

A
Severe penetration of sole 
Septic arthritis of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints 
Septic tenosynovitis
flexor tendon necrosis 
Pedaal osteomyelitis
Phalangeal luxation 
distal phalanx fracture 
Severe DJD of the distal interphalangeal joint
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49
Q

Describe Septic Arthritis of DIP Joint

A

Periosteal reaction
Asymmetric swelling of soft tissues
Bony lysis around joint

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50
Q

What is the treatment for Septic Arthritis of DIP Joint?

A

Digit Amputation or surgical arthrodesis

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51
Q

What are the treatment options for Chronic Septic Arthritis of DIJ in cattle?

A

Facilitated ankylosis
Arthrotomy and Curettage
Amputation
Culling

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52
Q

Clinical signs of Septic Arthritis of DIJ

A

Swelling
Draining tract
Laceration
Puncture

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53
Q

What structures are involved in Septic DIJ in cattle?

A
P2
P3
Navicular bursa/bone 
DDFT/sheath 
PIJ
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54
Q

How do you diagnose Septic Arthritis of DIJ in cattle?

A

PE
Probing of draining tract
Fistulogram
Radiographs

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55
Q

What are the advantages of Digit Amputation?

A
Rapid surgery 
Inexpensive 
Good short term results 
All affected tissues are removed 
Rapid return to production
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56
Q

What are the disadvantages of Digit Amputation?

A

Expected production life decreased
Poor response in heavier animals
Poor cosmetic result

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57
Q

What is important to note about Digit Amputation?

A

Less successful on the medial digit of the thoracic limb
Less successful on the lateral digit of the pelvic limb
Less successful with increasing body weight

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58
Q

What is the complications of digit Amputation?

A

Rapid breakdown of supporting structures:

Disrupting of soft tissues, cruciate ligaments, interdigital ligaments, and flexor tendons

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59
Q

How do you treat Acute septic Arthritis of DIJ?

A

IA Lavage with LRS and 0.9% NaCl
IA antibiotics
Systemic antibiotics

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60
Q

What is the cause of Septic Arthritis of DIJ?

A
Pododermatitis
White Line disease
Peri-articular wound 
Interdigital wound 
Interdigital necrobacillosis
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61
Q

How do you Facilitate Ankylosis?

A

Treat infection
Remove the articular cartilage
Immobilize

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62
Q

What are the advantages of Ankylosis?

A

Longer productive life
Better ambulation
Improved longevity

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63
Q

What are the disadvantages of Ankylosis?

A

Expense
Slow return of production
Prolonged treatment/recovery

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64
Q

Why choose surgical anklylosis?

A

Value of animal
Weight of animal
Digit affected
Longer production potential

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65
Q

When is Surgical Anklyosis recommended?

A

Heavy animals
Hind lateral digit sepsis
Front medial digit sepsis

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66
Q

What is the Common cause of hindlimb lameness?

A

Bone Spavin

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67
Q

Bone Spavin

A

DJD of distal intertarsal and tarsometarsal joints

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68
Q

Describe Sickle Hocked

A

“Camped under”

Poor conformation

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69
Q

What is a common western performance horse conformation problem?

A

Cow Hocked

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70
Q

What are the five basic joints of the tarsus?

A
Tibiotarsal joint 
Proximal intertarsal joint 
Distal intertarsal joint 
tarsometatarsal joint 
talocalcaneal joint
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71
Q

Grade 1 Bone Spavin

A

very small osteophyte distolateral central tarsal bone

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72
Q

Grade 2 Bone Spavin

A

a small osteophyte proximal dorsolateral MT III

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73
Q

Grade 3 Bone Spavin

A

a medium osteophyte distomedial central tarsal bone

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74
Q

Grade 4 Bone Spavin

A

a large osteophyte proximal dorsolateral MTIII bone

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75
Q

Cause of Bone Spavin

A

Chronic repetitive compression, torsion and shear strains

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76
Q

Surgical Treatments for Bone Spavin

A

Ankylosis

Cunean Tenectomy

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77
Q

Medical treatment for Bone Spavin

A
Intra-articular medications: 
Corticosteroids
Chondroprotectives 
Autologous anti-inflammatories 
Phenylbutazone 
Exercise adaptation 
Corrective shoeing
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78
Q

How do you cause Mechanical Ankylosis?

A

Drill out joints using drill bit

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79
Q

How do you cause Chemical Ankylosis?

A

70% Ethanol

MIA (Monoiodoacetate)

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80
Q

What is the post-operative care for drilling of a joint?

A

Phenylbutazone
Bandaging x2 weeks
Hand walking x 2 weeks post op
Light riding 3-4 weeks post op

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81
Q

Laser Facilitated ankylosis

A

destroys cartilage by superheating and vaporizing synovial fluid

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82
Q

How do you treat the fracture of the first phalanx?

A

Internal fixation with screws + cast

Place 1st screw proximally in order to align articular surface

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83
Q

When would you perform a fetlock arthrodesis?

A

Complete rupture of SDF, DDF, and suspensory ligament
Septic arthritis
Fractures of the medial and lateral sesamoid,cannon bone, P1

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84
Q

Treatment of Splint Bone fractures?

A

Rest
Segmental ostectomy
Removal of distal portion
ORIF

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85
Q

Treatment of Proximal splint fractures?

A

Wound management
Removal of loose fragments
Internal fixation

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86
Q

What is the surgical treatment for Splint fractures?

A

Removal of fracture fragments
Removal of residual distal splint bone
Internal fixation of proximal fragment if the removal of greater than 2/3 distal splint
Segmental Ostectomy

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87
Q

What is important to remember about internal fixation?

A

If plating a splint bone DO NOT engage MCIII!

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88
Q

What are the causes of Splint Exostosis?

A

Direct trauma

ligamentous inflammation

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89
Q

What is the conservative treatment for Splint Exostosis?

A

Rest
NSAIDs
Local DMSO/ or infiltration with corticosteroids

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90
Q

What is the surgical treatment for Splint Exostosis?

A

Linear incision over site with en bloc removal

Segmental ostectomy

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91
Q

How do you prevent bucked shins?

A

Allocate more training efforts to regular short distance breezing and less long distance galloping

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92
Q

What is the medical treatment for bucked shins?

A
Distal/proximal metaphyseal regions 
Rest 
NSAIDs
Reduced exercise program 
Radiographic monitoring
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93
Q

What is the surgical treatment for Bucked shins?

A

Osteostixis + screw

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94
Q

What are the causes of Proximal sesamoid bones?

A

Excessive tension from suspensory

Trauma

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95
Q

What are the most common fracture of the proximal sesamoid bones?

A

Apical fractures

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96
Q

What is the treatment for Apical sesamoid fracture?

A

Arthroscopic removal

Internal fixation of large fragments

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97
Q

What type of fracture requires internal fixation?

A

Midbody sesamoid fracture

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98
Q

What do you use to fixate Midbody sesamoid fracture?

A

Lag screw

Circumferential cerlage wire

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99
Q

What is superior to wire fixation?

A

Screw fixation with arthroscopic guidance

100
Q

What is the treatment for Abaxial sesamoid fracture?

A

If intra-articular = arthroscopic removal

If extra-articular = conservative management

101
Q

How do you create Teaser animals?

A

Vasectomy/Epididectomy

Penile-prepuce translocation

102
Q

What causes the Muscular contraction for erection?

A

Bulbospongiosus

Ischiocavernosus

103
Q

What drugs can be used for Extension of the penis?

A

Xylazine

Acepromazine

104
Q

What methods are used to castrate?

A

Newberry Knife
Elastrator
Callicrate
Burdizzo

105
Q

What causes Ulcers of the preputial orifice?

A

Hair clipped too short
Urine accumulates
Urease-producing organisms producing ammonia
Ulceration and secondary infection

106
Q

Decubital ulcer in rams

A

Show rams that are overweight, little exercise, recumbent

107
Q

What is the treatment for decubital ulcers in rams?

A

surgical excision

108
Q

Phimosis

A

inability to extend penis

109
Q

Paraphimosis

A

Inability to retract penis

110
Q

How do you treat minor constriction/cicatrix?

A

Make longitudinal incision

suture transversely

111
Q

How do you treat persistent frenulum?

A

surgically

Slaughter offspring due to heritability

112
Q

What do you perform for penile anesthesia?

A

Pudendal nerve block
Dorsal penile nerve block
Local infiltration

113
Q

How do you treat penile warts?

A

Use the commercial skin wart vaccine

114
Q

How do you diagnose Erection failure?

A

caavernosography

115
Q

What does Entropium cause?

A

corneal ulceration/perforation

116
Q

What technique do you perform for squamous cell carcinoma of the lower eyelid?

A

Sliding flap technique

117
Q

What are the layers of the cornea?

A
Tear film 
Corneal epithelium 
Corneal stroma
Descemet's membrane 
Endothelium
118
Q

What are the clinical signs of Keratitis?

A

Blepharospasm
Epiphora
Corneal edema
Cornea opacity

119
Q

Treatment of undermined ulcer

A

Swab away the bacteria and fungus from the edge of the ulcer
use a specialized curette to scrap the superficial epithelium

120
Q

How do you treat a deep corneal ulcer?

A

Conjunctival pedicle flap

121
Q

Staphyloma

A

Aqueous humor washes into the anterior chamber and carries the iris into the gap in the cornea

122
Q

Endophthalmitis

A

infection of the laceration inside the eye

123
Q

What is the treatment for Endophthalmitis?

A

Enucleation

124
Q

Iridocyclitis

A

inflammation of the iris

125
Q

What is the cause of Equine recurrent uveitis?

A

Unknown

Autoimmune: Bacteria, Virus or Parasite

126
Q

Clinical signs of Equine recurrent uveitis

A
Photophobia
Blepharospasm
Lacrimation
conjunctivitis
Cornea
oedema
vascularization 
Hypopyon 
Miosis
Posterior synechiae
127
Q

Uveitis

A

Inflammation of the entire vascular tunic

128
Q

Treatment for Equine Recurrent Uveitis

A
Phenylbutazone
Atropine 
Dark Stall
Topical corticosteroids
Vitrectomy
129
Q

Why do you remove supernumerary teats?

A

Prevent mastitis
Interfere with milking
Cosmetics

130
Q

How do you remove supernumerary teats?

A

Pincer emasculatome + Simple interrupted suture

131
Q

Thelotomy

A

Full-thickness incision through wall of teat

132
Q

What instruments do you use for Thelotomy?

A
Lichty teat knife
Spiral teat curette
Hugs teat tumor extractor 
Cornell teat curette
Alligator forceps
133
Q

When do teat lacerations commonly happen?

A

First month of calving

134
Q

What is important to remember about teat lacerations?

A

‘The closer they are to the base the better the blood supply is the better the healing”

135
Q

Angular Limb deformities

A

postural deformities in the frontal place of the limbs with either lateral or medial

136
Q

How far should the front and hind limbs need to be apart normally?

A

one hoof

137
Q

Carpus valgus

A

limbs bend medially inward

138
Q

What are the causes of Carpus valgus?

A
Periarticular laxity 
Incomplete ossification of carpal bones
Hypothyroidism 
Overloading of the limb 
Physeal trauma
Physeal infection
139
Q

Cellulose acetate overlay steps

A
  1. radiograph
  2. trace bone outlines
  3. bisect long bone axis or place lines through joint space
  4. measure angle
140
Q

Medical Treatment for Carpus Valgus

A

stall rest
hoof trimming + Dalmer shoes
PVC pipe splint or cast

141
Q

Surgical treatment for carpus valgus

A
Hemicircumferential periostal transection and elevation (periosteal stripping)
Growth retardaton (transphyseal bridging) 
Corrective osteotomy (closing wedge osteoectomy or step osteeoctomy)
142
Q

What are the causes of Rectal tears?

A

Iatrogenic from the animal straining against the operator’s hand and arm
Spontaneous post foaling
Enema
Meconium extraction with forceps

143
Q

Where are most rectal tears?

A

dorsally

144
Q

How do you prevent rectal tears?

A

Copious lubrication
Adequate restraint
Sedation
Muscle relaxant

145
Q

Diagnosis of rectal tears

A

Sudden release of pressure
sudden ability to palpate abdominal organs distinctly
Blood on sleeve

146
Q

Grade 1 rectal tear

A

Mucosa and submucosa torn

147
Q

Grade 2 rectal tear

A

muscular layer disrupted

Mucosa and submucosa may prolapse into defect and provide site for fecal impaction

148
Q

Grade 3a rectal tear

A

all layers except serosa

149
Q

Grade 3b rectal tear

A

involved mesorectum and retroperitoneal tissue

150
Q

Grade 4 rectal tear

A

All layers into abdomen

May be associated with prolapse of small colon or small intestine through defect

151
Q

Initial treatment of rectal tears

A
Treat septic shock and peritonitis - Antibiotics, Flunixin, and fluids
Reduction of rectal motility 
Epidural anesthesia 
Gentle packing of rectum 
Referral
152
Q

What is the non surgical treatment for Grade 1 or 2 rectal tear?

A

Antibiotics and Flunixin

153
Q

What is the non surgical treatment for Grade 3 rectal tear?

A

Frequent removal of feces

Peritoneal lavage

154
Q

What is the surgical repair for rectal tear?

A

Direct suture repair
Temporary indwelling rectal liner
Loop colostomy

155
Q

Which type of colostomy is easy to reverse and perform?

A

Loop Colostomy

156
Q

Where is the location of the loop colostomy?

A

High left flank
Low left flank
ventral midline

157
Q

What are the complications of the Loop Colostomy?

A

Dehiscence

Infection

158
Q

In what animal is rectal prolapse common?

A

Young feedlot cattle

159
Q

What are the predisposing factors of rectal prolapse?

A
Any breed, sex or age
Altered pressue gradient 
Decreased sphincter tone 
Constipation
Diarrhea
Colitis
Cystitis
Dystocia
Excessively short tail cropping of sheep
160
Q

Type 1 Rectal Prolapse

A

only mucosa projects through anus

161
Q

Type 2 Rectal Prolapse

A

Prolapse of all layers of rectum

162
Q

Type 3 Rectal Prolapse

A

Small colon intussuscepts into rectum

163
Q

Type 4 Rectal Prolapse

A

Rectum/Colon intussusception through anus

164
Q

Clinical signs of Rectal Prolapse

A

Mucosal mass protruding from anus

165
Q

Management of Rectal Prolapse

A

Eliminate predisposing factors
Eliminate straining
Soothe mucosa
Resolve prolapse

166
Q

Rectal Prolapse treatment

A
Caudal epidural anesthesia 
Perirectal Injection of iodine 
Purse string suture 
Submucosal resection 
Stair step amputation/ amputation after through and through sutures
167
Q

What is the treatment for type IV rectal prolapse?

A

Celiotomy
Resection
Anastomosis

168
Q

Why would you perform a perirectal injection of iodine for rectal prolapse?

A

causes irritation and swelling anus to hold the rectum in

169
Q

What is the main concern for Type IV rectal prolapse?

A

tear in the mesentary due to the colon protruding and stretching the blood supply

170
Q

Wha do you use to replace the rectal prolapse?

A

Caudal epidural
Clean prolapse with hypertonic saline or Glycerol
Lidocaine jelly
Reduce prolapse

171
Q

When would you perform a submucosal resection for the treatment of rectal prolapse?

A

Necrotic, Ulcerated,

traumatized mucosa

172
Q

Which amputation technique reduces the risk of stricture formation with rectal prolapse?

A

Stair step amputation

173
Q

What are the clinical signs of Esophageal Choke?

A
Bloat 
Salivation 
Coughing/Retching Nasal discharge
Extended head and neck 
Protruding tongue
174
Q

How does esophageal choke cause bloat?

A

Type 1 vagal indigestion

175
Q

How do you diagnose Esophageal choke?

A

Endoscopy
Radiography with contrast
Esophagography
Ultrasound

176
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for Esophageal choke?

A

Pharyngeal trauma

Rabies

177
Q

What are the causes of Esophageal Choke?

A
Foreign body obstruction
Hedge apple 
potato
Cabbage 
beets
turnips 
corn
sharp foreign body
178
Q

What are the complications Esophageal Choke?

A

Unable to eructate = bloat
Loss of saliva = metabolic acidosis
Aspiration pneumonia

179
Q

What is the medical treatment for esophageal choke?

A

Manual retrieval
Wire snare
Push into rumen

180
Q

What is the initial treatment for Esophageal Choke?

A

Decompress rumen with a needle and suction or Red devil trocar
Hold off feed and water until resolved

181
Q

What are the layers of the Esophagus?

A

Adventitial layer
Muscular layer
Submucosa
Mucosa

182
Q

What are the associated structures with the esophagus?

A
Recurrent laryngeal nerve 
Carotid sheath 
Vagosympathetic trunk 
Tracheal lymphatic trunk
Deep cervical lymph node
183
Q

What are the challenges associated with esophageal surgery?

A
"Dirty" procedure 
No serosal layer 
Constant movement 
Constant suture line tension 
Proximity of laryngeal nerve
184
Q

What should you place in a ruminant that will be off feed for 24-48 hours?

A

Rumen Fistula

185
Q

What is the surgical treatment for esophageal choke?

A

Cervical Esophagotomy

186
Q

What layers provide tensile strength for esophageal closure?

A

Mucosa/submucosa

187
Q

What contributes to the complications post op for esophageal surgery?

A

lack of serosa

188
Q

What should you do if the tissues of the esophagus are compromised caudal to the repaired esophagus?

A

Esophagostomy

189
Q

What is a better alternative for Esophagostomy in ruminants?

A

Rumenostomy

190
Q

Temporary Rumen Fistula

A

Immediate relief of chronic bloat

Direct feeding into the rumen

191
Q

What are the indications for Rumenostomy?

A

Chronic bloat
Foreign body
Reticular abscess
Type II vagal indigestion

192
Q

How do you diagnose that you have abomasal or omasal dysfunction?

A

Measure chloride in the rumen

193
Q

How would you remove fluid from the rumen?

A

Gravity

Kingmand tube

194
Q

What is the closure for the Rumenotomy?

A

2 layer inverting closure

195
Q

What are the clinical signs of Right sided heart failure from Traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

A

Distended jugular
Brisket edema
Tachypnea

196
Q

What is the murmur associated with Traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

A

washing machine murmur

197
Q

What are the clinical signs of Traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

A
washing machine murmur 
febrile 
painful 
Distended jugular 
Brisket edema
Tachypnea
198
Q

What is the treatment for Traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

A
Oxytetracycline 
Drain pericardial effusion
Pericardectomy 
Rib resection 
Foreign body removal
Procaine Penicillin G
Exploratory Surgery in the right flank
199
Q

What is the sequelae to Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis?

A

constrictive pericarditis

200
Q

What are the clinical signs of cleft palate in calves?

A

milk nasal discharge

201
Q

What plants cause Cleft palate?

A

Poison hemlock

Tobacco

202
Q

What are the causes cleft palate?

A

Iatrogenic via oropharyngeal medications

Congenital or acquired

203
Q

How do you treat tongue laceration?

A

tourniquet on the tongue with wedge resection

204
Q

How do you treat Intersucking or Cross sucking?

A

Nose ring

Cut the lateral aspect of the tongue on the underside to reduce curling of the tongue

205
Q

What is the #1 cause of heifer mastitis?

A

Cross suck/ Intersucking

206
Q

How do you treat a torn nose ring?

A

infraorbital block and figure 8 suture pattern to fix the nasal septum

207
Q

How do you treat lumpy jaw?

A
Surgical resection of bone masses
PPG injections 
Oral tetracyclines 
Antibiotics impregnated beads
Sodium iodide
208
Q

What arteries and nerves should you be careful of when dehorning cattle?

A

Cornual Artery and nerve

209
Q

What anesthesia and analgesia should be used when dehorning?

A

2% lidocaine
Flunixin Meglumine
Meloxicam

210
Q

What are the chemical methods of dehorning?

A

Caustic paste

211
Q

What is the thermal method of dehorning?

A

Dehorner (Cautery)

212
Q

What is the cutting method of dehorning?

A
Tube 
Scoop/gouge 
Keystone 
Power
Ob Wire
213
Q

What is the best method for dehorning?

A

Genetic removal!

BREED IT OUT!

214
Q

What method of dehorning can be used on calves less than 8 weeks old?

A

Tube gouge dehorner

215
Q

What method of dehorning can be used on calves 3 months to 1 year old?

A

Scoop “barnes dehorner”

216
Q

What method of dehorning can be used on large horns?

A

Keystone dehorner

217
Q

What nerves must you block for dehroning goats?

A

Infratrochlear

Lacrimal

218
Q

When should you dehorn buck kids?

A

3-5 days

219
Q

When should you dehorn doe kids?

A

5-7 days

220
Q

What are the complications of dehorning?

A

Hemorrhage

Infection

221
Q

How do you treat hemorrhage from dehorning?

A

“pulling” or ligating the arteries

222
Q

What are the clinical signs of infection from dehorning?

A

Febrile
Lethargic
inappetant
malodorous discharge

223
Q

What is the most common complications to dehorning?

A

Sinusitis

224
Q

What is the most common sinus affected by dehorning?

A

Frontal sinus

225
Q

What are the clinical signs of sinusitis?

A
Nasal discharge 
Discharge from dehorning site 
Facial distortion 
Halitosis 
Dull sinus percussion
226
Q

What is the most common bacteria causing sinusitis?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

227
Q

What is the treatment for sinusitis?

A

Open drainage and lavage
Trephine holes in sinus
Lavage with LRS, 0.9% NaCl

228
Q

What is the medical management for Arytenoid chondritis?

A

Sodium iodide

229
Q

What is the surgical treatment for Arytenoid chondritis?

A

Laryngotomy- sharp excision of cricoid and 3 rings

230
Q

Tracheostomy

A

Emergency procedure
Incision at junction of cranial and middle 1/3 of neck
Split paired muscles
incise annular ligament

231
Q

Describe Ulcers of the hoof

A

Inflammation of the corium
Blood and fluid exudate
with compression of corium by P3

232
Q

How do you treat a solar ulcer?

A

Expose the ulcer by finding the ulcer margins and removing the horn
NSAIDs
Local infiltration of regional anesthesia

233
Q

How do you diagnose a Chronic sole abscess?

A

Radiographs

Fistulogram

234
Q

What nerves can be blocked for regional anesthesia of the rear leg?

A

Superficial peroneal nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
Medial and lateral plantar nerve

235
Q

How do you treat a Sole Abscess?

A
Dish sole to redistribute weight 
Trim affected claw size 
Debride sole 
Raise the diseased digit with a hoof block
retain block 4-6 weeks
236
Q

Why do you use a hoof block?

A

Reduce weight bearing on abnormal claw

237
Q

Vertical Fissue - “Sandcrack”

A

Damage to periople
Usually of front lateral claw
In older animals with high BCS

238
Q

How do you treat an infected Sandcrack?

A

Pare horn
open tract
drain purulent material

239
Q

How do yo treat a Sandcrack with granulation tissue?

A

Debride
Open tract
Apply block to sound hoof

240
Q

How do you treat Sandcrack?

A

Wire together

Add copper sulfate + Polymethylmethacrylate to disinfect and seal

241
Q

“Corns”

A

Interdigital hyperplasia
Fibrous mass between the digits due to chronic irritation in high BCS animals
can become ulcerated and painful

242
Q

How do you treat “corns”?

A
Removal 
Sedation 
Tourniquet with IV block or Local block 
treat underlying cause if infected 
allow to heal by second intention
May wire toes together to reduce spread of claws
243
Q

How do you prevent Corns?

A

Improve hygiene

Hoof trimming

244
Q

On what claws of the front limb do you find corkscrew claw?

A

Medial claw

245
Q

On what claws of the hind limb do you find corkscrew claw?

A

Lateral claw

246
Q

How do you control corkscrew claw?

A

hoof trimming every 6 months