Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology Test II > Exam 2 - 2012 > Flashcards

Exam 2 - 2012 Flashcards

1
Q 
which of the following drug classes is most effective in relief of severe pain?
A. strong opiod agonist
B. moderate opiod agonist
C. Opiod antagonist
D. mixed opiod agonist-antagonist
A

A. strong opiod agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
which of the following drug classes can reverse the coma and respiratory depression caused by morphine overdose?
A. strong opiod agonist
B. moderate opiod agonist
C. Opiod antagonist
D. mixed opiod agonist-antagonist
A

C. Opiod antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

flumazenil (romazicon) blocks the pharmacological actions of
A. benzodiazepines
B. non-benzodiazepine receptor agonists (NBRAs)
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

A

C. both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient with a temporary sleep disorder that is associated with anxiety would be treated best with
A. a short-acting benzodiazepine, such as triazolam (halcion)
B. a short-acting barbiturate, such as thiopental
C. a long-acting benzodiazepine, such as diazepam (valium)
D. none of the above

A

C. a long-acting benzodiazepine, such as diazepam (valium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diazepam (valium)
A. suppresses seizure activity associated with status epileptics
B. relieves anxiety following acute administration
C. reduces spasticity associated with cerebral palsy
D. suppresses the syndrome associated with alcohol withdrawal
E. has all of the above

A

E. has all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ethanol
A. decreases serotonin-mediated cation conductance at the serotonin 5HT3 receptor
B. increases glutamate-mediated cation conductance at the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor
C. increases GABA-mediated chloride conductance at the GABA-A receptor
D. all of the above
E. non of the above

A

C. increases GABA-mediated chloride conductance at the GABA-A receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Selective serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI)
A. must be administered for two or more weeks before the onset of their antidepressant
B. produce euphoria in non-depressed individuals
C. are effective when administered alone for the treatment of acute mania
D. cause a parkinsonian syndrome
E. all of the above

A

A. must be administered for two or more weeks before the onset of their antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants may cause tachycardia and arrthymias because they
A. inhibit norepinephrine reuptake in the heart
B. block muscarinic cholinergic receptors in the heart
C. A and B
D. none of the above

A

C. A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aripirazole (abilify), a drug approved by the FDA for the treatment of bipolar affective disorder and schizophrenia
A. blocks dopamine D1 receptors
B. is a partial agonist of dopamine D2 receptors
C. blocks the NMDA subtype of glutamate receptors
D. causes a high incidence of extrapyramidal motor side effects
E. does all of the above

A

B. is a partial agonist of dopamine D2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which of the following statements about epilepsy therapies is correct?
A. the anticonvulsant action of carbamazepine (tegretol) involves block of T-type calcium channels in cortical neurons
B. gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are common side effects of valproate (depakote)
C. ethrosuximide (zarontin) is an effective drug for treatment of partial complex seizures
D. none of the above

A

D. none of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
A 45 y/o woman with recent onset partial seizures is started on an anticonvulsant. she initially does well, but then experiences 2 seizures about 3 weeks after the start of the treatment. she swears that she has been taking the same number of pills each day, but her plasma concentration of the drug has decreased. which anti-convulsant is she taking?
A. carbamazepine ( tegretol)
B. valproic acid (depakote)
C. ethosuximide (zarontin)
D. phenytoin (dilantin)
A

A. carbamazepine ( tegretol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
which of the following drugs exerts an anti-parkinson effect by directly activating D2 receptors?
A. L-DOPA
B. benztropine (cogentin)
C. clozapine (clozaril)
D. selegiline (eldepryl)
E. bromocriptine (parlodel)
A

E. bromocriptine (parlodel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the major reason carbidopa is of value in parkinsonism is that the compound
A. crosses the blood brain barrier
B. inhibits mono-amine oxidase
C. inhibits aromatic L-amino decarboxylase
D. is converted to false neurotransmitter carbidopamine
E inhibits monoamine oxidase B

A

C. inhibits aromatic L-amino decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Toxic effects of local anesthetics include
A cardiac arrhythmias
B seizures
C allergic reactions
D hypotension
E all of the above
A

E all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nerve fibers that are most sensitive to local anesthetics are
A. large diameter fibers with rapid firing rates
B large diameter fibers with slow firing rates
C small diameter fibers with slow firing rates
D small diameter fibers with rapid firing rates

A

D small diameter fibers with rapid firing rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
epinephrine should not be combined with local anesthetics when injecting near which anatomic sites?
A fingers
B nose
C earlobes
D penis
E any of the above
A

E any of the above

17
Q

local anesthetics
A block VG calcium channels in C-fibers
B bind to Na channels with the same affinity in the resting, open and inactivated states
C block synaptic transmission be a direct action on the transmitter release mechanism
D none of the above

A

D none of the above

18
Q 
Tamoxifen (nolvadex)
A. is a progesterone receptor antagonist
B is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
C. is used for postcoital contraception
D. has none of the above properties
A

B is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

18
Q

which of the following contraceptives increases the risk of thrombus formation?
A norethindrone acetate (norlutin, mini pill)
B the transdermal patch containing ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin (ortho evra)
C medroxyprogesterone acetate (depo-provera)
D none of the above

A

B the transdermal patch containing ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin (ortho evra)

18
Q 
clomiphene citrate (clomid)
A is a first line anti-cancer drug
B induces ovulation
C is used for medical abortion
D has none of the above properties
A

B induces ovulation

18
Q

Which of the following drugs prevents osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?
A raloxifene (evista)
B femara (letrozole)
C norethindrone acetate (norlutin, mini pill)
D all of the above

A

A raloxifene (evista)

18
Q 
The most serious side effect of insulin replacement therapy is
A hypoglycemia
B localized allergic reactions
C headache
D localized fat accumulation
A

A hypoglycemia

19
Q 
Which of the following drugs should NOT be given to a type 2 diabetes patient who also has an intestinal disease which can be exacerbated by an increased formation of gas?
A thiazolidinediones
B sulfonylureas
C acarbose (Precose)
D insulin
A

C acarbose (Precose)

20
Q

it takes 3-6 weeks for thiazolidinedione agent to reach maximal effects because
A its metabolite needs 3-6 weeks to accumulate
B the half-life of the drug is 3-6 weeks
C the drug needs to activate PPAR-gamma to induce gene expression in target tissues
D the drug is inactivated slowly

A

C the drug needs to activate PPAR-gamma to induce gene expression in target tissues

21
Q 
which one of the following drugs functions primarily by increasing insulin secretion?
A sulfonylureas
B metformin
C acarbose
D thiazolidinediones
A

A sulfonylureas

22
Q 
a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule to inhibit bicarbonate reabsorption
A. spironolactone (aldactone)
B hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)
C furosemide (lasix)
D acetazolamide (diamox)
A

D acetazolamide (diamox)

23
Q 
A strong, or high ceiling, diuretic used to treat chronic and/or severe volume-expanded conditions; for example, edema associated with organ failure
A. spironolactone (aldactone)
B hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)
C furosemide (lasix)
D acetazolamide (diamox)
A

C furosemide (lasix)

24
Q 
A low ceiling diuretic that inhibits the NaCl cotransporter in the distal tubule
A. spironolactone (aldactone)
B hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)
C furosemide (lasix)
D acetazolamide (diamox)
A

B hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)

25
Q 
A potassium sparing adjuvant that is an antagonist of collecting duct aldosterone receptors
A. spironolactone (aldactone)
B hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)
C furosemide (lasix)
D acetazolamide (diamox)
A

A. spironolactone (aldactone)

26
Q

T or F: The opiod antagonist Naltrexone (ReVia) can be used as a “maintenance” drug in treatment programs for opiod addicts or alcoholics

A

T

27
Q

T or F: the opiod antagonist Naloxone (narcan) can be used in combination with aspirin for treatment of moderate pain

A

F

28
Q

T or F: lithium carbonate is effective in the prophylactic treatment of bipolar affective disorder, decreasing both the manic and depressive phases

A

T

29
Q

Dexamethasone (decadron)
A. Is used for the diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome
B. Does not bind to corticosteroid binding globulin (CBG)
C. Has maximal anti-inflammatory activity and minimal salt retaining activity
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

30
Q 
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of acute adrenocortical insufficiency?
A. Aminoglutathimide (cytadren)
B. Hydrocortisone (cortef)
C. Dexamethasone (decadron)
D.  Mifepristone (RU486)
A

B. Hydrocortisone (cortef)

31
Q 
Which of the following drugs is used for long-term management of hypothyroidism
A. Methimazole (tapazole)
B. propylthiouracil (PTU)
C. Levothyroxine (synthroid)
D. Liothyronine (L-T3)
A

C. Levothyroxine (synthroid)

32
Q 
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of thyroid storm?
A. Radioactive iodide
B. propranolol (inderal)
C. Liothyronine (L-T3) 
D. Levothyroxine (synthroid)
A

B. propranolol (inderal)

Pharmacology Test II (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions