Exam Flashcards

1
Q

List the 7 main characteristics common to life.

A

R.H. CAGER

R.H. CAGER stands for: Reproduction, Homeostasis, Cellular organization, Adaptation, Growth and development, Energy processing, and Response to stimuli.

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2
Q

Define and give examples of homeostasis.

A

Homeostasis is the process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes.

Examples include temperature regulation, pH balance, and hydration levels.

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3
Q

Describe what ‘Abiogenesis’ means and give the other more common name for this theory.

A

‘Abiogenesis’ refers to the theory that life arose naturally from non-living matter. The more common name for this theory is ‘spontaneous generation.’

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4
Q

Describe the experiment that each scientist conducted: Redi, Needham, Spallanzani, Pasteur.

A

Redi: Demonstrated that maggots do not arise from decaying meat.
Needham: Claimed that microorganisms could arise spontaneously in boiled broth.
Spallanzani: Showed that boiled broth did not develop microorganisms when sealed.
Pasteur: Proved that microorganisms in the air caused contamination in broth.

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5
Q

List the two main principles of the ‘Cell Theory’.

A
  • All living organisms are composed of one or more cells.
  • The cell is the basic unit of life.
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6
Q

Give the function of the Revolving Nose Piece.

A

The Revolving Nose Piece holds and allows the rotation of objective lenses.

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7
Q

Give the function of the Condenser Diaphragm.

A

The Condenser Diaphragm regulates the amount of light that reaches the specimen.

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8
Q

What is meant by the ‘limit of resolution’?

A

The limit of resolution is the smallest distance between two points that can still be distinguished as separate.

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9
Q

For low power, what is the power of the ocular lens, the power of the objective lens, and the total power?

A
  • Ocular lens: 10X
  • Objective lens: 4X
  • Total power: 40X
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10
Q

For high power, what is the power of the ocular lens, the power of the objective lens, and the total power?

A
  • Ocular lens: 10X
  • Objective lens: 40X
  • Total power: 400X
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11
Q

For medium power, what is the power of the ocular lens, the power of the objective lens, and the total power?

A
  • Ocular lens: 10X
  • Objective lens: 10X
  • Total power: 100X
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12
Q

What is the total power of a microscope with an ocular (15X) and an objective (20X)?

A

Total power is 300X.

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13
Q

How many millimeters are in a cm?

A

There are 10 millimeters in a cm.

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14
Q

How many micrometers (um) are in a millimeter?

A

There are 1,000 micrometers in a millimeter.

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15
Q

How many micrometers (um) are in a cm?

A

There are 10,000 micrometers in a cm.

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16
Q

The field of view is 4.5 mm, how many um is this?

A

4.5 mm is 4,500 um.

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17
Q

If the field of view is 2.2 mm, how many um long is the specimen?

A

2.2 mm is 2,200 um.

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18
Q

What is the drawing magnification for the drawing to the right?

A

Drawing magnification is calculated based on the ocular and objective lens used.

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19
Q

What are the basic building blocks for proteins?

A

Amino acids.

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20
Q

What are the basic building blocks for DNA?

A

Nucleotides.

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21
Q

List the three major nutrient groups.

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
  • Fats
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22
Q

How many different amino acids are there?

A

There are 20 different amino acids.

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23
Q

Write out the proper name of DNA.

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid.

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24
Q

What three molecules bond together to make up a single nucleotide?

A
  • A phosphate group
  • A sugar molecule
  • A nitrogenous base
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25
Q

What term is used to most accurately describe the shape of a DNA molecule?

A

Double helix.

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26
Q

DNA is usually found wrapped around small proteins called Histones, this then forms a long string called what?

A

Chromatin.

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27
Q

This string-like substance bunches up to form X-shaped structures just before cell division. What are these X-shaped structures called?

A

Chromosomes.

28
Q

How many of these X-shaped structures are found in a human diploid cell?

A

46 chromosomes.

29
Q

How many of these X-shaped structures are found in a haploid human cell?

A

23 chromosomes.

30
Q

Describe what a gene is.

A

A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for building a protein.

31
Q

Compare and contrast Purines vs. Pyrimidines.

A

Purines: double-ring structure (Adenine, Guanine)
Pyrimidines: single-ring structure (Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil).

32
Q

Name the four different nitrogenous bases, and classify which category they fit in.

A
  • Purines: Adenine, Guanine
  • Pyrimidines: Cytosine, Thymine
33
Q

What type of bond forms between complementary bases?

A

Hydrogen bonds.

34
Q

For the following strand of DNA, give the complementary strand: A C G T T T A G C C G A T T A A G A G C A T A

A

T G C A A A T C G G C T A A T T C T C G T A T.

35
Q

Describe the process of replication, and where does it take place?

A

Replication is the process of copying DNA before cell division, occurring in the nucleus.

36
Q

During protein synthesis, Translation and Transcription takes place, describe what each process is and where each takes place.

A
  • Transcription: synthesis of mRNA from DNA in the nucleus.
  • Translation: synthesis of proteins from mRNA in the cytoplasm.
37
Q

Using a phylogenetic tree, how closely related is the ‘cytochrome C’ of a dog and a pig?

A

The phylogenetic tree shows the evolutionary relationships between species.

38
Q

Which shows the closest genetic relationship? Pig ⇄ Donkey, Pig ⇄ Dog, or Horse ⇄ Dog.

A

Pig ⇄ Dog shows the closest genetic relationship.

39
Q

Which is most closely related? Silkworm ⇄ Fruit fly, Fruit fly ⇄ Hornworm, or Hornworm ⇄ Silkworm.

A

Fruit fly ⇄ Hornworm is most closely related.

40
Q

List and describe at least 5 studies/topics that provide evidence to support evolution.

A
  • Fossil records
  • Comparative anatomy
  • Molecular biology
  • Biogeography
  • Embryology
41
Q

List and describe the three main categories of ‘Adaptations’.

A
  • Structural adaptations: physical features
  • Behavioral adaptations: actions taken by organisms
  • Physiological adaptations: internal processes
42
Q

Give an example of all three adaptations for an animal.

A
  • Structural: camouflage
  • Behavioral: migration
  • Physiological: venom production
43
Q

Give an example of all three adaptations for a plant.

A
  • Structural: thorns
  • Behavioral: phototropism
  • Physiological: drought resistance
44
Q

What is the name of the theory that Darwin used to explain evolution, what is its more common name?

A

Natural Selection, also known as ‘Survival of the Fittest.’

45
Q

What is the name of the theory that Lamarck used to explain evolution?

A

Lamarckism.

46
Q

Compare and contrast each theory.

A
  • Darwinism: based on natural selection and adaptation.
  • Lamarckism: based on inheritance of acquired characteristics.
47
Q

Describe the contributions of Charles Lyell.

A

Lyell contributed to the idea of uniformitarianism, suggesting that geological processes are uniform over time.

48
Q

Describe the contributions of Thomas Malthus.

A

Malthus proposed that population growth would outpace food supply, leading to competition and survival challenges.

49
Q

Describe the contributions of Artificial Selection.

A

Artificial selection is the process by which humans breed organisms for desired traits, demonstrating selective pressures.

50
Q

List the main factors that must be established for Natural Selection to work.

A
  • Variation in traits
  • Differential survival and reproduction
  • Heritability of traits
51
Q

List the three main ways that Natural Selection can change a population.

A
  • Stabilizing selection
  • Directional selection
  • Disruptive selection
52
Q

Describe the case of natural selection known as ‘Industrial Melanism’.

A

Industrial Melanism refers to the phenomenon where darker-colored organisms become more common due to pollution.

53
Q

Who is the father of genetics?

A

Gregor Mendel.

54
Q

Define the following: A) Phenotype B) Allele C) Genotype D) Meiosis E) Homozygous F) Segregation G) Heterozygous I) Crossover.

A
  • A) Phenotype: observable traits
  • B) Allele: variant form of a gene
  • C) Genotype: genetic makeup
  • D) Meiosis: cell division producing gametes
  • E) Homozygous: same alleles
  • F) Segregation: separation of alleles
  • G) Heterozygous: different alleles
  • H) Crossover: exchange of genetic material during meiosis
55
Q

What two processes are most responsible for creating variation in a population?

A
  • Mutation
  • Sexual reproduction
56
Q

Do punnett squares to show the F1 Generation for each cross: A) Heterozygous Black Rabbit X Heterozygous Black Rabbit.

A

Punnett square shows 25% BB, 50% Bb, 25% bb.

57
Q

Do punnett squares to show the F1 Generation for each cross: B) Heterozygous Tall Pea Plant X Homozygous recessive.

A

Punnett square shows 50% Tt, 50% tt.

58
Q

What type of crossing must have taken place to produce an F1 Generation consisting of 50% white rabbits to 50% Black rabbits, let black be dominant?

A

Cross between a homozygous black rabbit and a heterozygous black rabbit.

59
Q

For the following data – give the A) Allelic Frequency, B) Genotypic Ratio and C) Phenotypic Ratio.

A

A) Allelic Frequency: ratio of alleles in a population
B) Genotypic Ratio: ratio of genotypes
C) Phenotypic Ratio: ratio of phenotypes.

60
Q

Describe what ‘Genetic Equilibrium’ is.

A

Genetic Equilibrium is a state where allele frequencies in a population remain constant over generations.

61
Q

List the 5 conditions that must be maintained for Genetic Equilibrium to be maintained.

A
  • No mutations
  • Random mating
  • No natural selection
  • Extremely large population size
  • No gene flow
62
Q

Describe what each is and give an example of how each could change the allelic frequencies in a gene pool: A) Differential Migration B) Genetic Drift.

A
  • A) Differential Migration: different rates of migration can alter allele frequencies; example: a group of birds migrating to a new area.
  • B) Genetic Drift: random changes in allele frequencies due to chance events; example: a natural disaster affecting a small population.
63
Q

Compare and contrast the two categories of evolution: Divergence vs. Convergence.

A
  • Divergence: species evolve different traits from a common ancestor.
  • Convergence: different species evolve similar traits due to similar environments.
64
Q

What category would ‘adaptive radiation’ fit into, and describe at least one example of adaptive radiation.

A

Adaptive radiation fits into divergence; example: Darwin’s finches evolved different beak shapes based on food sources.

65
Q

Define the following: A) Species B) Population C) Speciation D) Niche E) Analogous Structures F) Homologous Structures.

A
  • A) Species: group of similar organisms that can interbreed
  • B) Population: group of individuals of the same species in a given area
  • C) Speciation: process by which new species arise
  • D) Niche: role of a species in its environment
  • E) Analogous Structures: similar function, different evolutionary origin
  • F) Homologous Structures: similar origin, different function
66
Q

Describe the difference in views between Gradualism and Punctuated Equilibrium.

A

Gradualism posits that evolution occurs slowly and steadily, while Punctuated Equilibrium suggests that evolution occurs in rapid bursts followed by long periods of stability.