Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physical Education 3 & 4 > Exam > Flashcards

Exam Flashcards

1
Q

what is a skill?

A

the ability to do something well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a motor skill?

A

activities or tasks that require voluntary head, body, and/or limb movement to achieve a goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how can movement skills be categorised?

A

movement precision, types of movement, and the predictability of the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the types of movement precision?

A

gross and fine motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are gross motor skills?

A

involves the usage of large muscle groups, with less emphasis on precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is an example of a gross motor skill?

A

running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are fine motor skills?

A

involves the recruitment of smaller muscles associated with movements that require precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is an example of a fine motor skill?

A

throwing a dart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the 3 types of movement?

A

discrete motor skills, serial motor skills, and continuous motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are discrete motor skills?

A

skills that have an obvious beginning and end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is an example of a discrete motor skill?

A

kicking a ball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a serial motor skill?

A

several discrete skills performed in a row

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is an example of a serial motor skill?

A

gymnastics routine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are continuous motor skills?

A

skills that have no definite beginning or end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is an example of a continuous motor skill?

A

running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 2 environment predictabilities?

A

closed motor skill, open motor skill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are closed motor skills?

A

where the performer has the greatest control over their environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is an example of a closed motor skill?

A

indoor diving routine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are open motor skills?

A

where the environment has more control over the performer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is an example of an open motor skill?

A

Kicking the footy outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the stages of learning?

A

cognitive (beginner), associative (intermediate), and autonomous (elite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what happens in the cognitive stage?

A

the performer is mentally trying to comprehend the movement requirements. The performance will be inconsistent, and know the problem but not how to fix it. They will see the most improvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what happens in the associative stage?

A

Sometimes called the practice stage, the performer will begin to refine their technique and become more consistent with fewer errors. Able to detect the cause of some errors and correct them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what happens in the autonomous stage?

A

the skill becomes largely automatic, they do not have to focus on the skill as much.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what needs to be considered when considering practice methods?

A

part and whole practice, amount, distribution (massed or distributed), and variability (blocked or random)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is part practice?

A

where the skill is put into parts such as the ball toss in tennis serving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is whole practice?

A

where you practice the whole skill not in parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is practice distribution?

A

When to schedule training sessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is distributed practice?

A

involves shorter but more frequent sessions. With more time to rest between each task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is massed practice?

A

less frequent sessions that go for longer. With rest intervals that are shorter in between tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is practice variability?

A

When the skills are trained in the session and in what order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is blocked practice?

A

involves practicing the same skill over and over without changing. Practiced in a ‘block’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what stage of learning is blocked practice appropriate for?

A

cognitive stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is random practice?

A

varied sequencing of motor skills in the same practice session.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what stage of learning is random practice appropriate for?

A

associative and autonomous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the types of feedback?

A

intrinsic and augmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is intrinsic feedback?

A

when performers use their own senses to access performance, including visuals, auditory (hearing), touch, and proprioception (sensory information relayed from within a muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is augmented feedback?

A

coaches and spectators’ feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what can augmented feedback be categorised into?

A

knowledge of performance or knowledge of results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is knowledge of performance?

A

relates to the characteristics of performing a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is knowledge of results?

A

refers to specific feedback about the outcome of the task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the 4 main principles of a qualitative movement analysis?

A

preparation, observation, evaluation and error correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

3 examples of jobs that use qualitative movement analysis

A

teachers, coaches and physio’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the preparation stage?

A

to find the purpose of the analysis and to get some knowledge of the game

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the observation stage?

A

observe performance either digitally or live,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the evaluation stage?

A

decide the problem, what is causing the problem and how it can be addressed (fixed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how is a qualitative movement analysis valid?

A

the ability for the test to measure what it is meant to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how is a qualitative movement analysis reliable?

A

if the test will reproduce similar results when conducted over and over again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the error correction stage?

A

the problems are told and they are corrected by the athlete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is direct coaching?

A

rigid coaching, where they give feedback after every practice. The coach makes all the decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is constraints-based coaching?

A

coaching that is based on constraining the normal game or sport being played

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are 3 individual constraints that can be used?

A

body size, fitness level and mental skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are 3 environmental constraints that can be used?

A

noise level, weather conditions and natural light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are 3 task constraints that can be used?

A

rules of the sport, number of players and instructions on how to complete a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are 3 cultural factors?

A

education, attitudes and religion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are 3 social factors?

A

time, cost and access to coaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is force

A

a push or a pull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how can force affect objects?

A

changing shape, or moving the object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the equation of force?

A

mass x acceleration = force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the 4 types of forces?

A

friction, air/water resistance - drag force, gravitational force and weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what does friction do?

A

opposes the motion of an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does drag force do?

A

opposes the direction of motion of the object, slowing it down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is gravitational force?

A

The force of attraction between two objects or forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what does weight mean?

A

the force that is exerted on the body by gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the equation for weight?

A

mass x gravity = weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is Newton’s first law? (law of inertia)

A

an object will stay at rest or in constant motion unless acted upon by an external force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is inertia?

A

the tendency for a body to resist a change in its motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what affects inertia?

A

mass, the more mass the greater inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is momentum?

A

a measure of the amount of motion an object has and its resistance to changing that motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the equation for momentum?

A

mass x velocity = momentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the principle of conservation of momentum?

A

The total momentum of the system before the collision is equal to the momentum after the collision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

example of conservation of momentum

A

if a hockey stick with a momentum of 100 hits a ball that isn’t moving, the ball will gain 100 momentum as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is summation of momentum?

A

the sequential and coordinated movement of each body segment to produce maximal velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is impulse?

A

equal to the change in momentum of an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is the impulse equation?

A

time x force = impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is Newton’s second law?

A

the law of acceleration, force x mass = acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is Newton’s third law?

A

for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is a torque?

A

The turning effect caused by applying an eccentric force, (force but for angular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the difference between angular motion Newton’s laws and normal Newton’s laws?

A

it is the same except instead of force it is torques affecting the motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is angular momentum?

A

The quantity of angular motion of an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the moment of inertia?

A

The body’s tendency to resist its change in rotary motion (movement around an axis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the equation of moment of inertia?

A

mass x radius^2 = moment of inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the radius and how does it affect the moment of inertia?

A

it is where the mass is located. If the radius is smaller (closer to the axis) is easier to rotate (go faster), than one that is stretched out and away from the axis (slower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

does decrease or increase of moment of inertia give higher angular velocities?

A

decreased, as mass is closer to the axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the conservation of angular momentum mean

A

the angular momentum of an object will stay the same even with changes in the moment of inertia and angular velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what are the 3 types of general motion?

A

linear, angular and projectile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

when does linear motion occur

A

when all body parts are moving at the same speed in the same direction around a curve or in a straight line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is linear motion called around a curve?

A

curvilinear motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is angular motion?

A

motion that occurs around a central axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

how are linear and angular motion linked?

A

To move with linear motion angular motion of the limbs must occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is projectile motion?

A

when an object or body is launched into the air and affected only by the forces of gravity and air resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what are the 2 components of projectile motion?

A

vertical and horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how is the vertical factor of projectile motion influenced?

A

by gravity and the vertical component of the initial projection velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

how is the horizontal factor of projection motion affected?

A

by air resistance and relates to the horizontal distance covered by the projectile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are the 3 factors affecting projectile?

A

angle of release, speed of release, and height of release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is the angle of release?

A

the angle at which the object is projected into the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what are the 3 shapes that a flight path can form?

A

vertical, parabolic and horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what is a vertical flight path?

A

goes up and comes down straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is a parabolic flight path?

A

when the flight of the object is between 0 and 90 degrees, e.g. golf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is a horizontal flight path?

A

straight horizontally, e.g. throwing at the wicket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is the best angle of release to give the greatest horzitontal distance?

A

45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is the speed of release?

A

the speed at which the object is thrown, kicked or propelled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is the height of release?

A

the difference between the height that the projectile is released from and the height it finishes at

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is equilibrium?

A

when all forces and torques are balanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what are the 2 types of equilibrium?

A

static and dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is static equilibrium?

A

when the body or object is not moving or rotating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is dynamic equilibrium?

A

when an object is moving in constant velocity, not changing direction or speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what is stability?

A

the resistance to disrupt the equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what is balance?

A

the ability to control equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what are the 4 factors affecting stability?

A

the base of support, the centre of gravity, the line of gravity and friction between the body and surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is the base of support?

A

the area bound by the outside edges of the body parts in contact with the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

do you want a large or small base of support to maximise stability?

A

large base of support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is the centre of gravity?

A

the point at which the whole weight of an object can be considered to act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

do you want a high centre of gravity for maximal stability or a low one?

A

low centre of gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is the line of gravity?

A

the direction where the gravity acts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

when the line of gravity is inside the base of support is stability increased or decreased?

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

does more mass increase stability or less mass?

A

more mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

does increased friction increase stability or decrease stability?

A

increase stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what are the 3 types of levers?

A

first class, second class, and third class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what 3 parts do levers have?

A

force, resistance and axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

where are the parts of levers located for a 1st class lever?

A

the axis is in the middle with the resistance and force on either side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

where are the parts of levers located for a 2nd class lever?

A

the resistance is in the middle with force and axis on either side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

where are the parts of levers located for a 3rd class lever?

A

the force is in the middle with the resistance and axis on either side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what are the majority of levers in the body?

A

3rd class levers

125
Q

what can first-class levers be manipulated to do?

A

increase force output or speed and range of motion of the lever

126
Q

what are second-class levers good for

A

increasing the force

127
Q

what is gained from third-class levers?

A

greater range of motion and speed

128
Q

what is the mechanical advantage?

A

The ratio of the force arm to the resistance arm

129
Q

what is the equation for mechanical advantage?

A

force arm / resistance arm = MA

130
Q

what is the force arm?

A

distance of the axis to force

131
Q

what is the resistance arm?

A

distance of the axis to the resistance

132
Q

what mechanical advantage do second-class levers have?

A

more than 1

133
Q

what mechanical advantage do third-class levers have?

A

less than 1

134
Q

what happens when the mechanical advantage is less than 1?

A

the range of motion is increased, the force required is increased, and the angular speed is increased

135
Q

what happens when the mechanical advantage is more than 1?

A

the force that is required is lower to move the object

136
Q

what does increased lever length do?

A

increase range of motion and velocity

137
Q

what are carbohydrates?

A

sugars and starches we get from food

138
Q

4

what kinds of foods give carbs?

A

fruit, bread, pasta and veggies

139
Q

4

where do we get fats from?

A

butter, cheese, oil and nuts

140
Q

when are fats used?

A

at rest and prolonged submax

141
Q

when are carbs used?

A

preferred always, especially when exercising

142
Q

4

where is protein found?

A

meat, eggs, grains and fish

143
Q

what is the chemical carbs?

A

glucose, or muscle glycogen

144
Q

what is the chemical form of fats?

A

free fatty acids and triglycerides

145
Q

what is the fuel source for the ATP-PC system?

A

PC

146
Q

what is the fuel source for the anaerobic glycolysis system?

A

glycogen

147
Q

what is the fuel source for the aerobic system?

A

FFA’s at rest, then carbs and fats

148
Q

how long does the ATP-PC system be dominant?

A

5-10 seconds

149
Q

how long does the anaerobic glycolysis system be dominant?

A

60 seconds

150
Q

how long does the aerobic system be dominant?

A

after 60 seconds

151
Q

what is the yield for the ATP-PC system?

A

very low

152
Q

what is the yield for the anaerobic glycolysis system?

A

low

153
Q

what is the yield for the aerobic system?

A

high

154
Q

what does the anaerobic glycolysis system produce?

A

lactic acid

155
Q

what is oxygen deficit?

A

when you have just started exercising and oxygen demand exceeds the supply

156
Q

what is steady state?

A

when oxygen supply equals the demand (middle of exercise)

157
Q

what is oxygen debt/EPOC?

A

when the oxygen supply exceeds the demand

158
Q

when do acute responses occur?

A

oxygen deficit

159
Q

what systems do acute response happen in?

A

respiratory, muscular and cardiovascular

160
Q

increase the amount of oxygen that is being taken in (O2 uptake) so that more oxygen can be transported and utilised at the working muscles. (Which parts are each system)

A

take in = respiratory
transport = cardiovascular
utilise = muscular

161
Q

what are the 4 respiratory acute responses?

A

tidal volume, respiratory rate, ventilation and diffusion (increased for all)

162
Q

what is tidal volume, and how does it increase?

A

the amount of air inspired in one breath, and it increases quickly and then plateaus (4-5 mins)

163
Q

what is respiratory rate and how does it increase?

A

the amount of breaths in one minute. Increases as intensity increases

164
Q

what is ventilation and its equation?

A

The amount of air inspired or expired in one minute. TD x RR = V

165
Q

what is diffusion?

A

how the oxygen gets diffused into the blood

166
Q

what are the 9 cardiovascular acute responses?

A

heart rate, stroke volume, cardiac output, systolic blood pressure, redistribution of blood, venous return, a-VO2 diff, VO2 (oxygen consumption) and decreased blood plasma

167
Q

what is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood being pumped out of the left ventricle per beat

168
Q

what is cardiac output (Q) and its equation?

A

How much blood is being pumped out of the left ventricle per minute, HR x SV = Q

169
Q

what is systolic blood pressure?

A

pressure in the arteries following contraction of ventricles as blood is being pumped out of the heart

170
Q

what is venous return?

A

the flow of blood back to the heart

171
Q

acute responce

what happens to blood plasma?

A

blood plasma decreases because of the increased blood volume

172
Q

what is a-VO2 diff?

A

of how much oxygen the muscles are extracting from the blood

173
Q

what is VO2 (oxygen consumption)?

A

The volume of oxygen that can be taken up and used by the body

174
Q

what are the 5 muscular acute responses?

A

motor unit recruitment and activation, blood flow to the working muscles, body temp, lactate production and decreased intramuscular substrate stores

175
Q

what is a motor unit?

A

a motor neuron and the fibres it stimulates

176
Q

what is increased motor unit recruitment and activation?

A

the body can increase the number of motor units or the frequency of activation, in contractions

177
Q

what is a by-product of the aerobic system?

A

heat

178
Q

what is decreased intramuscular substrate stores?

A

how stores such as ATP and PC are depleted during exercise

179
Q

what are the 2 types of fatigue?

A

anaerobic and aerobic

180
Q

what are the 2 types of anaerobic fatigue?

A

PC depletion and Accumulation of H+

181
Q

what happens when PC depletion occurs

A

switches to anaerobic glycolysis system, slower rate and intensity

182
Q

What happens during the accumulation of H+

A

increases muscle acidity, which decreases the rate of glycolysis, which lowers intensity to oxidize the muscles

183
Q

how many seconds does it take before the accumulation of H+ becomes dominant over PC depletion?

A

20 seconds

184
Q

what recovery is required to replenish PC stores and how long does it take to restore

A

Passive, 30 seconds: 70%
3 mins: 98%
10 mins: 100%

185
Q

what recovery is required to oxidize accumulation of H+

A

active recovery

186
Q

What is LIP

A

Lactate inflection point, last point that lactate production and removal is equal

187
Q

what are the main aerobic fatiguing factors?

A

glycogen depletion, decreased CNS firing and elevated body temperature

188
Q

How long does it take for glycogen depletion to become the major fatiguing factor

A

2 hours

189
Q

What happens in glycogen depletion

A

switch to fats of food source, slower rate of ATP resynthesize because more oxygen is required to break them down

190
Q

How long does it take for elevated body temperature to become the major fatiguing factor?

A

30 minutes

191
Q

what happens during elevated body temperature

A

sweat happens

192
Q

what happens when you sweat

A

blood moves towards the skin, loss of electrolytes and decreased blood plasma

193
Q

fatiguing

what happens during decreased blood plasma

A

increased blood viscosity (thickness), increased HR and cardiac output

194
Q

what happens during loss of electrolytes

A

weaker messages sent to the muscles via neurons

195
Q

what happens when the blood goes to the skin

A

less blood goes to the muscles, decreased amount of oxygen going to muscles (slower intensity)

196
Q

What happens in decreased CNS firing

A

weaker signals, slower contractions

197
Q

how many fitness components are there

A

12

198
Q

what are the 5 health-related fitness components?

A

Aerobic power, body composition, flexibility, muscular endurance and muscular strength

199
Q

what are the 7 skill-related components?

A

Agility, Anaerobic capacity, balance, coordination, muscular power, reaction time and speed

200
Q

what is aerobic power?

A

It is the rate of energy release by processes that depend on oxygen (also called aerobic respiration)

201
Q

what is flexibility?

A

the capacity to move a joint through its full range of motion

202
Q

what is muscular strength?

A

the maximal amount of force that can be generated by a muscle or group of muscles in one maximal effort

203
Q

what is muscular endurance?

A

the ability of the muscles to perform repeated contractions for an extended period of time, or to maintain an isometric contraction for an extended period of time

204
Q

what is anaerobic capacity?

A

the capacity for the anaerobic energy systems to provide energy for contractions

205
Q

what is muscular power?

A

the ability to exert a force rapidly, over a short period of time

206
Q

what is agility?

A

the ability to change direction rapidly and accurately

207
Q

what is the purpose of an activity analysis?

A

to gain data either tactical or physiological, to go towards improving performance

208
Q

how does physiological data improve performance?

A

determines fitness components, energy systems, movement patterns, heart rate, skill frequency and work-to-rest ratio. This can then give information to give correct tests to tests these components

209
Q

what are the 4 types of data collected from activity analysis?

A

skill frequency, heart rate, work-to-rest ratio and locomotor movement patterns

210
Q

what information does heart rate give?

A

intensity/energy systems

211
Q

what max heart rate zones are for which system?

A

70-85% aerobic, 85-95% anaerobic glycolysis and 95%+ is ATP-PC

212
Q

what do skill frequency data give?

A

major muscles used and fitness components

213
Q

what does locomotor pattern data give?

A

energy systems and fitness components

214
Q

what work-to-rest ratios correlate to different systems?

A

1:2 or below = aerobic, 1:3/4 = anaerobic glycolysis and 1:5 = ATP-PC

215
Q

what are the fitness testing protocols?

A

validity, reliability, accuracy and informed consent

216
Q

what is validity?

A

is the test is testing what it is claimed to test

217
Q

what is reliability?

A

will the test give consistent results?

218
Q

what are 3 tests that test aerobic power?

A

VO2 max, shuttle run, Coopers 12-minute run

219
Q

what are 3 tests that test anaerobic capacity?

A

30-second wingate test, 300-metre shuttle run, and phosphate recovery test

220
Q

what are 3 tests that test muscular strength?

A

1RM leg press, 1RM bench press, and handgrip dynamometer strength test

221
Q

what are 3 tests that test muscular endurance?

A

Timed sit-ups, timed push-ups, pull-up tests

222
Q

what are 3 tests that test flexibility?

A

sit and reach test, shoulder and wrist elevation test and shoulder rotation test

223
Q

what are 3 tests that test body composition?

A

BMI, waist circumference, and percentage of body fat

224
Q

what are 2 tests that test muscular power?

A

Vertical jump test, seated basketball throw

225
Q

what are 2 tests that test speed?

A

35 and 50-metre sprint

226
Q

what are 2 tests that test agility?

A

Illinois agility test and SEMO agility test

227
Q

what are the 10 main training program principles?

A

specificity, frequency, intensity, time, type, progression, diminishing returns, variety, overtraining and detraining

228
Q

what is frequency how many times do you have to do it?

A

it is how many you have to train the fitness component. Has to be 3 times a week to see improvement

229
Q

What is intensity?

A

the level of exertion applied during the work phase. It depends on the component to what intensity you train at

230
Q

what are some ways to measure intensity?

A

RPE, %MHR, %RM

231
Q

how long do training sessions have to go for to see improvement? (time)

A

20 minutes minimum

232
Q

what does type refer to?

A

the type of training being done (aerobic, anaerobic or flexibility)

233
Q

how do you apply progression?

A

had 2-10% per week to one element of the training program

234
Q

how to apply specificity

A

tailor the program to the athlete, energy systems, major muscles etc.

235
Q

what is diminishing returns?

A

how a professional athlete will see less improvement because they have already done training, instead of how people see drastic improvement when just starting out

236
Q

how to apply a variety

A

change up training methods and what day is training what component and

237
Q

what are some overtraining symptoms?

A

sore muscles, can’t sleep, depression

238
Q

how to fix overtraining?

A

keep doing the training program but at lower intensities

239
Q

what is detraining?

A

how when you stop training your improvements will go away

240
Q

what are the 10 training methods?

A

Continuous, fartlek, long-interval, medium-interval, short-interval, HIIT, flexibility, resistance, plyometrics, and circuit

241
Q

what energy systems need to be trained to improve anaerobic capacity?

A

ATP-PC and anaerobic glycolysis

242
Q

what energy systems need to be trained to improve muscular power?

A

ATP-PC and anaerobic glycolysis

243
Q

what energy systems need to be trained to improve muscular strength?

A

ATP-PC and anaerobic glycolysis

244
Q

what energy systems need to be trained to improve speed?

A

ATP-PC and anaerobic glycolysis

245
Q

what energy systems need to be trained to improve muscular endurance?

A

anaerobic glycolysis and/or aerobic

246
Q

5

what training methods can be used to improve anaerobic capacity?

A

medium and short-interval, resistance, plyometrics and circuit

247
Q

3

what training methods can be used to improve muscular power?

A

resistance, plyometrics and circuit

248
Q

2

what training methods can be used to improve muscular strength?

A

resistance and circuit

249
Q

5

what training methods can be used to improve speed?

A

medium and short-interval, resistance, plyometrics, and circuit

250
Q

3

what training methods can be used to improve muscular endurance?

A

resistance, circuit, medium-interval

251
Q

5

what training methods can be used to improve aerobic power?

A

continuous, fartlek, long-interval, HIIT, circuit

252
Q

3

what training methods can be used to improve flexibility?

A

HIIT, circuit and flexibility

253
Q

6

what training methods can be used to improve body composition?

A

Continuous, fartlek, long-interval, resistance, HIIT and circuit

254
Q

when doing resistance training what is the optimal RM% for muscular strength?

A

60-80%

255
Q

when doing resistance training what is the optimal RM% for muscular power?

A

30-60%

256
Q

when doing resistance training what is the optimal RM% for muscular endurance?

A

40-60%

257
Q

when doing resistance training what is the optimal reps number for muscular strength?

A

8-12

258
Q

when doing resistance training what is the optimal reps number for muscular power?

A

3-6

259
Q

when doing resistance training what is the optimal reps number for endurance?

A

15-25

260
Q

what are the systems that can get aerobic adaptations?

A

respiratory, cardiovascular, and muscular

261
Q

What is the aim of aerobic adaptations?

A

to improve LIP and VO2 max

262
Q

what are the 2 types of aerobic respiratory adaptations?

A

increased lung volume and Increased Alveolar-capillary surface area

263
Q

what does increased lung volume do

A

An increased amount of air to the lungs at the end of a max inspiration. Therefore, an athlete can take in more air and have higher volumes of O2 delivered to working muscles.

264
Q

what is the structural change of increased lung volume?

A

increased lung volume

265
Q

what are the functional changes of increased lung volume?

A

increased tidal volume (submax and max), decreased respiratory rate (submax and max), decreased ventilation (rest and submax), increased maximal ventilation, and increased ventilatory efficiency

266
Q

what does increased alveolar-capillary surface area do?

A

An increase in the surface area between the alveoli air sacs and blood vessels increases the number of sites available for pulmonary diffusion to occur.

267
Q

what are the structural changes of increased alveolar-capillary surface area?

A

increased alveolar-capillary surface area

268
Q

what is the functional change of increased alveolar-capillary surface area?

A

increase pulmonary diffusion

269
Q

what are the 3 types of cardiovascular aerobic adaptations?

A

left ventricle size, blood vessels, and blood

270
Q

what will increased left ventricle size do?

A

Increased capacity to hold blood in this chamber = heart functioning effectively during physical activity

271
Q

what are the functional changes for increased left ventricle size?

A

increased stroke volume, decreased heart rate (rest and submax), decreased steady-state heart rate, decreased recovery heart rates, and increased cardiac output at maximal intensity

272
Q

what is the structural change for increased left ventricle size?

A

increased left ventricle size

273
Q

what do more blood vessels do?

A

Increased density of capillaries surrounding the working muscles = increased ability to supply blood, O2, and nutrients to the working muscles

274
Q

what is the structural change of more blood vessels?

A

increased capillarisation of skeletal muscles

275
Q

what does more blood do?

A

Increased volume therefore increased ability to carry nutrients and remove waste

276
Q

what are the structural changes of more blood?

A

increased blood plasma, increased red blood cell count, increased haemoglobin, and increased high-density lipoproteins

277
Q

what does haemoglobin do

A

increases the ability to carry oxygen through the blood

278
Q

what are the functional changes for more blood?

A

increased blood volume, decreased low-density lipoproteins, and decreased blood pressure

279
Q

what are the 2 types of muscular aerobic adaptations?

A

Oxygen extraction/uptake levels, and oxygen utilization

280
Q

what do oxygen extraction/uptake levels do

A

Increased athlete’s ability to attract O2 into muscle cells.

281
Q

what are the structural changes of oxygen extraction and uptake?

A

Increased capillarisation, and Increased myoglobin

282
Q

what are capillaries and what do they do?

A

capillaries are sites, where oxygen can get diffused into the muscle

283
Q

what does myoglobin do?

A

attracts oxygen into the muscle

284
Q

what is the functional change of oxygen extraction and uptake?

A

increased a-VO2 difference

285
Q

what does oxygen utilisation do?

A

Increased ability to generate aerobic ATP energy.

286
Q

what are the structural changes of oxygen utilisation?

A

Increased size, number, and surface area of mitochondria and, Increased oxidative enzymes

287
Q

what do mitochondria do?

A

They give greater capacity to produce aerobic energy

288
Q

what do oxidative enzymes do?

A

they increase aerobic power and rate of ATP production

289
Q

what are the functional changes of oxygen utilisation?

A

increased aerobic respiration (mitochondria), increased fat oxidisation (rest and submax), increased glycogen sparing (submax, can use it later on), and increased glycogen oxidisation (maximal)

290
Q

what is the aim of anaerobic adaptations?

A

to increase speed, force of contraction, and tolerance of lactate (H+)

291
Q

what is the anaerobic adaptation for the cardiovascular system?

A

hypertrophy of heart

292
Q

what does increased hypertrophy of the heart do to it?

A

Increased muscle size (heart) and thickness of the left ventricle wall

293
Q

what is the structural change from hypertrophy of the heart?

A

increased thickness of the left ventricle wall

294
Q

what are the functional changes from hypertrophy of the heart?

A

more forceful contractions of the heart, and more forceful ejection of blood from the heart

295
Q

what are some physiological effects of muscular anaerobic adaptations?

A

increased ATP and PC stores, increased glycogen stores, increased glycolytic enzymes, increased ATPase (enzyme), and increased tolerance to metabolic by-products (gone past LIP)

296
Q

what is the significance of increased ATP and PC stores?

A

increased capacity of the ATP-PC system

297
Q

what is the significance of increased glycogen stores, and what factors does it improve?

A

Increased utilization of glycogen as a fuel source (improves speed and force production)

298
Q

what is the significance of increased glycolytic enzymes and what does it improve?

A

Increased rate of ATP release from glycogen (improves speed and force production)

299
Q

what is the significance of increased ATPase?

A

Increased turnover of ATP (resynthesis)

300
Q

what is the significance of increased tolerance to metabolic by-products?

A

Increased ability to continue working at high intensities

301
Q

what are the 2 adaptations as a result of resistance training

A

hypertrophy, and neural adaptations

302
Q

what are the structural changes of hypertrophy?

A

Increased number and size of myofibrils, increased contractile proteins, and increased size and strength of connective tissues

303
Q

what are myofibrils and what do they do?

A

they are part of muscle fibres that makes them get bigger when there are more

304
Q

what are the functional changes of hypertrophy?

A

increased force of contraction, increased speed of contraction, and increased structure and function of tendons and ligaments

305
Q

what is the significance of an increased rate of motor unit activation and what does it improve?

A

Increased rate of force development (speed of contraction)

306
Q

what are the physiological effects of neural adaptations?

A

increased motor unit recruitment, Increased rate of motor unit activation, Increased recruitment of fast twitch fibres, and increased motor unit coordination

307
Q

what is the significance of increased motor unit recruitment?

A

Increased force of contraction

308
Q

what is the significance of increased recruitment of fast twitch fibres?

A

Increased rate of force development, increased time for which maximum force can be maintained

309
Q

what is the significance of increased motor unit coordination?

A

Increased force, increased efficiency, and effectiveness for force application

Physical Education 3 & 4 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions