Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paediatrics Y4 > Exam > Flashcards

Exam Flashcards

1
Q

RF for GDM

A 
Family history 
Obesity 
Black ethnicity
Previous GDM
Previous macrosomic baby
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Screening for GDM

A

Glycosuria
Fasting plasma glucose 5.6
OGTT at 2h 7.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

GDM plasma glucose >7 management

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

GDM plasma glucose <7 management

A
  1. Diet exercise (2 weeks)
  2. Metformin
  3. Add insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

GDM risks

A

Macrosomia
Neonatal hypoglycaemia
Traumatic birth
Perinatal death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chronic hypertension in pregnancy

A

HTN <20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gestational hypertension

A

> 20weeks hypertension

NO proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pre-Eclampsia

A

HTN >20 weeks
PROTEINURIA
Resolves 6 weeks post partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Urine dipstick proteinuria

A

PCR >30

ACR > 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pre eclampsia risk factors

A 
>40 yo 
Obesity 
Multiple pregnancy 
1st pregnancy
Previous pre eclampsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pre eclampsia complications

A

Placental abruption
Eclampsia
HELLP
Foetal growth restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pre eclampsia medications

A

Labetalol
Nifedipine
Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Seizure prevention in pre eclampsia

A

IV magnesium sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

VTE Management

A

LMWH (enoxaparin)
At least 3 months
At least 6 weeks post partum
At least until end of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which VTE drugs to avoid in pregnancy?

A 
Warfarin 
DOACs (rivaroxaban, apixaban)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Obstetric cholestasis

A

No rash
Itching
Abnormal LFT (raised ALP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complication of obstetric cholestasis

A

Preterm birth (check weekly LFT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Obstetric cholestasis management

A

Weekly LFT

Urodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy symptoms

A

N & V
Abdominal pain
Jaundice
-always 3rd trimester-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HELLP

A

Haemolysis (LDH)
Elevated Liver (ALT AST)
Low Platelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Placenta praevia management

A

If bleed:
Admit
Steroids 24-36th week
Delivery (C section)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Placental abruption symptoms

A

Severe abdominal pain
Vaginal bleeding
Tense rigid abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Risk factors for placental abruption

A

Hypertension
Smoking
Cocaine
Multiple pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Placental abruption management

A

Delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Placenta praevia - where does placenta attach?

A

Deep into myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1* post partum haemorrhage causes

A 
4 Ts
Tone
Trauma
Thrombin
Tissue (retained)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Preventing PPH routine

A

Prophylactic uterotonics
1st IM Oxytocin
2nd IM Syntometrine (if high risk)
+ Tranexamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IM Syntometrine contraindications

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Major PPH management

A 
Bimanual compression 
IV oxytocin 5U
IV/IM ergometrine 0.5mg
Oxytocin infusion
IM Carboprost 0.25mg
Sublingual Misoprostol 800ug
Surgical / Balloon tamponade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

First stage of labour rate

A

1cm - 2h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

2nd stage of labour length

A

Nulliparous: 3h
Multiparous: 2h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Membrane sweep

A

Trying detach the membranes from inner cervix - 40+ weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Induction of labour

A 
Membrane sweep
24h later: prostaglandin pessary
Prostaglandin gel/tablet 
Artificial rupture of membranes
Syntocinon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

1st stage latent dilatation rate

A

0-3cm /6h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

1st stage active length

A

3-10cm

1cm/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Antibodies in haemolytic disease of a newborn

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sensitising events treatment

A

1st term: 250 u anti-D immunoglobulin

2nd: 250 u in 72h of event + Kleihauer test
3rd: 500 u in 72h + Kleihauer test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Kleihauer test

A

Quantifies how much foetal blood is in maternal circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum

A

> 5% weight loss
Electolyte disturbance
Dehydration

PUQE sforę

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Antiemetics in pregnancy

A

1) cyclizine, prochlorperazine, promethazine, chlorprimazine

2) metoclopramide, domperidone, ondasetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ectopic - expectant management

A

No pain
< 35mm
No heartbeat
hCG < 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ectopic - Medical management

A

PAIN
< 35mm
hCG < 1500
No heart beat

IM METHOTREXATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ectopic - surgical management

A

PAIN
> 35 mm
hCG > 5000
Salpingectomy / salpingotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Threatened miscarriage

A

Heartbeat
Pain, bleeding
Os closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Inevitable miscarriage

A

No heartbeat
Pain, bleeding
Os Open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Incomplete miscarriage

A

Retained products of conception
Pain, bleeding
Os Open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Complete miscarriage

A

Empty uterus

Closed Os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Missed miscarriage

A

No heartbeat

Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Miscarriage Medical management

A

Vag misoprostol
Pain relief
Antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Surgical management of miscarriage

A

Manual vacuum aspiration

Surgical management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Antiphospholytic syndrome triad

A

Recurrent miscarriage
Thrombocytopenia
VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome screen

A

Lupus anticoagulant

Anticardioliptin antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Medical TOP

A

Mifepristone
Misoprostol
+ >22 feticide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Surgical TOP <14 w

A

Vacuum aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Surgical TOP 14-24 weeks

A

Dilation and Evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Complete mole

A

Sperm + empty egg = 46XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Partial mole

A

2x sperm + egg = 69 XXY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Depot - characteristics

A

Weight gain
Slow return to fertility
Every 12-14 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

COCP

A

Prevents ovulation
Makes period lighter
Quickly reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

POP

A

Thickens mucus
Irregular period
Small window for taking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hormonal coil

A

Lasts 3-5 y
Thins endometrium
Lighter, less painful period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Copper coil

A

Work immediately
Makes period more heavy
5-10 y
Sterile inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Implant

A

Prevents ovulation
3 years
Irregular period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Patch

A

Weekly 3 weeks, 1 week off
Skin sensitivity
Similar to COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Kallman syndrome

A
  • hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

- reduced or absent sense of smell (anosmia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

PCOS

A

PCOS on USS >12 cysts in 1 ovary
Hyperandrogenism
Anovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Estrogen only

A

-> endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

HRT

A

VTE
STROKE
BREAST CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Clomiphene

A

Stimulates egg release in PCOS to improve fertility

metformin also improves fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Diagnosis of premature ovarian insufficiency

A

2x FSH >30

4-6 weeks apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Ovarian cancer symptoms

A

Bloating
Constipation
Urination trouble
PM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Ovarian cancer diagnosis

A

CA 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Endometrial cancer diagnosis

A

TVUSS >4mm suspicious
Hysteroscopy biopsy

Mx: high dose progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cervical cancer symptoms

A

Postcoital bleeding

Intermestrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Cervical cancer diagnosis

A

HPV 16/18

Check for CIN Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

HPV -

A

Routine screening in 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

HPV +

Normal CIN

A

Re test in 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

HPV +

Abnormal

A

Invite for colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

PID treatment

A

IM Ceftriaxone STAT 500mg
PO Docycycline 100mg BD 14d
PO Metronidazole 400mg BD 14d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

PID management in penicillin allergy

A

PO Ofloxacin + Metronidazole 14d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Urge incontinence management

A

1) bladder retraining 6w
2) oxybutynin, tolterodine
3) mirabegron (b3 agonist)
4. SNS, botox, PTNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Stress incontinence management

A
  1. Pelvic floor exercise 3 mth

2. Duloxetine SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Syphilis in pregnancy

A

FGR

Mx IM Benzathine Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

VZV in pregnancy

A

Neonatal varicella - cutaneous scarring, FGR, Limb hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

+HPV management

A

Cytology
Abnormal: colposcopy
Normal: 12mth test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

If +HPV and cytology normal at 12 month follow up

A

Repeat in 12months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

If +HPV and cytology abnormal at 12 month follow up

A

Colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Inadequate sample cytology

A

1x return in 3 mth

2x colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

<20 w pregnant exposure to VZV

A

Check varicella antibodies

If negative, IVIG in 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

<20 w pregnant with VZV

A

Aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

> 20 weeks pregnant with VZV

A

Acyclovir within 24h of rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

> 20 weeks pregnant with VZV exposure

A

If not immune: give VZIG or acyclovir 7-14 days post exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

HSV in pregnancy

A

1-2nd term: acyclovir from 36w
3rd term: acyclovir until delivery
1st ever episode in 3rd term: C Section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

HIV in pregnancy

A

Check viral load 2-4 weeks
And at 36w
Vaginal if <50 at 36w

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

C section in HIV pregnancy

A 
IV zidovudine (+ART to everyone as usual) 
Avoid breastfeeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Hep B in pregnancy

A

Vax + HBIG in 12h

Vax at 1 month, 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Core symptoms of depression

A

Low mood
Anhedonia (usual things don’t bring happiness)
Lack of energy
- for at least 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Beck’s triad

A

Hopeless
Worthless
Helpless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

High risk of suicide

A 
Anticipation acts
Preventing discovery
Careful planning
Suicide note
Violent method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

GAD Mx

A

GAD must be >6mth
High dose SSRI
Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

OCD management

A

Exposure and Response Prevention
Or
SSRI
or after 12 weeks, Clomipramine, or alt SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Schizophrenia triad

A

Auditory hallucinations
Abnormal thoughts
Delusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Auditory hallucinations

A

Thought echo
3rd person voice
Running commentary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Abnormal thoughts

A

Thought insertion / withdrawal / broadcasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Delusions

A

False fixed belief held despite evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Paranoid schizophrenia

A

Delusions and hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Hebephrenic schizophrenia

A

Disorganised mood, inappropriate, childlish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Catatonic schizophrenia

A

Psychomotor disturbance

Stupor, rigidity, flexibility

109
Q

Simple schizophrenia

A

Only negative symptoms: social withdrawal, blunted affect

110
Q

Typical antipsychotics SEs

A

Acute dystopia
Tardive dyskinesia
Akathisia
Parkinsonism

111
Q

Typical antipsychotics examples

A

Haloperidol

Chlorpromazine

112
Q

Treatment resistant schizophrenia

A

2 drugs failure
At least 6 weeks
At least 1 atypical

113
Q

Treatment resistant schizophrenia drug & SEs

A

Clozapine

__AGRANULOCYTOSIS

114
Q

Personality disorder treatments

A

Dialectical behavioural therapy

SSRI, antipsychotic

115
Q

Capacity assessment

A

Understand / retain / weigh/ communicate

116
Q

Section 135

A

Police enters premises with social worker warrant, move to a płace of safety for 72h

117
Q

Section 136

A

Police removes from public space, no warrant, 24h

118
Q

Section 2

A

Assessment and treatment
28days
Can’t be renewed
2 drs (GP, AMHP) and social worker

119
Q

Section 3

A

Treatment order
6m
2 doctors
Social worker needs relative approval (can disagree)

120
Q

Section 4

A

Assessment in emergency
72h
1 AMPH

121
Q

Section 5.2

A

Detention of inpatient for 72h

By doctor

122
Q

section 5.4

A

Detention of inpatient by nurse for 6h

123
Q

HAD

A

Hospital anxiety and depression

124
Q

PHQ9

A

Patient health questionnaire (screening, diagnosing, severity of depression)

125
Q

Social anxiety disorder

A

Fear of being critisized and judged

126
Q

Agoraphobia

A

Fear of being unable to return to safe place

127
Q

GAD

A

Symptoms for 6 mth

128
Q

OCD

A

Exposure and response prevention

129
Q

Positive symptoms (schizophrenia)

A

Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganised speech
Catatonic behaviour

130
Q

Negative symptoms

A

Blunted affect
Alogia - can’t speak
Anhedonia - no enjoyment
Avolition - lack of motivation

131
Q

Persecutory delusion

A

Persistent false belief that you are about to be harmed

132
Q

Paranoid delusions

A

Fear and anxiety and can’t tell what is real and what is not

133
Q

Delusions of reference

A

Unrelated external world events have significance in patient

134
Q

Type 1 bipolar

A

Mania + depression

135
Q

Type 2 bipolar

A

Hypomania + depression

136
Q

Cyclothymic disorder

A

Hypomanic + depressive most of the time for 2 years

137
Q

Binge eating

A

> 1x week for 3 months

No purging

138
Q

Bulimia

A

> 1x a week for 3 months binge eating with purging

139
Q

SCOFF for eating disorders

A 
S - make yourself sick 
C - lost control over eating
O - lost 1 stone in 3 months
F - believe you are fat? 
F - food dominates life?
140
Q

Alcohol units

A

Litres x %

141
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

Early - agitation sweating nausea
Late 24-48h confusion diarrhoea
Seizures peak at 36h
48h-72h delirium

142
Q

Wernicke - triad and Mx

A

Nystagmus/ophthalmolegia, ataxic gait, confusion

Mx Thiamine

143
Q

Korsakov syndrome

A

Wernickes triad + amnesia, confabulation

144
Q

Paranoid personality disorder

A

Sensitive to criticism

Suspicion and conspiracy

145
Q

Schizotypical personality disorder

A

Magical thinking

Odd speech

146
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

Lack of emotion
Lack of interest in others
No relationships and friends

147
Q

Antisocial personality disorder

A

Going against social norms and law

Lying/fighting/ running naked

148
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

Unstable relationships
Self harm
Mood swings
Switching from ideal to devalued

149
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

Needs attention
Shallow
Dramatising
Sexually inappropriate

150
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

A

Grandiose self importance
Takes advantage of others
Arrogant
Need for attention

151
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

A

Fear of criticism or embarrassment

Social isolation but wanting acceptance

152
Q

Dependent personality disorder

A

Needs to be cared for
Other need to take control of their lives
Desperate need for relationships

153
Q

Obsessive compulsive personality disorder

A

Vs OCD- OCPD seek pleasure in tasks
Perfectionist
Occupied by rules and rituals

154
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

Too much serotonin
Fever, HYPER reflexes, myoclonus, DILATED PUPILS
- HOURS -

155
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
  • DAYS-
    Fever, HYPO reflexia, RIGID
    CK high
156
Q

Septal haematoma mx and risk

A

Incise and drain in 24h

-> saddle shaped deformity

157
Q

BPPV

Examination and Mx

A

Episodic <30s on head movement
Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Epley manouvre

158
Q

Otitis externa

A

Accitic acid

Fusidic acid

159
Q

Otitis media

A

Amoxicillin

160
Q

Cystic hygroma

A

Posterior triangle
<2 yo
Fluctunant

161
Q

Branchial cyst

A

Anterior triangle
Young people & children
Fluctuant
Radiating

162
Q

Most common thyroid cancer

A

Papillary - orphan cells, lymphatic spread
Follicular - >50yo, haematology
Medullary - calcitonin, Men 2a/ 2b

163
Q

Laryngeal cancer

A

SCC
HPV 16, 18
Abnormal voice, sore throat, ulceration and cancer

164
Q

Chalezion

A

Painless eyelid cyst of meibomian gland

165
Q

Hordeolum

A

Infected cyst of meibomian gland
PAINFUL
Tx chloramphenicol

166
Q

Blepharitis

A

Mild bacterial eyelid margin, erythematous and crusty eyelid margins, uncomfortable
Tx warm compress, chloramphenicol

167
Q

Viral conjunctivitis cause

A

Adenovirus

168
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Staph aureus

169
Q

Bacterial keratitis

A

Staph aureus

170
Q

Viral keratosis

A

HSV
rf: immunosuppressive
Dendritic ulcer on fluorescent stain

171
Q

Acanthamoeba

A

Contact lenses
Ring infiltrate
Disproportional pain

172
Q

Diabetic retinopathy

A

Gradual vision loss

Micro aneurysm, hard exudate, blot haemorrhage, cotton wool spots

173
Q

Ectopic pregnancy risk

A

Previous ectopic
PID
assisted conception
Previous pelvic surgery

174
Q

DCML

A

Ascending

Fine touch, propritocention

175
Q

Nephritic syndrome

A 
Increased PCR 
IgA Nephropathy
Post Strep Glomerulonephritis
Haemolytic Ureamic Syndrome
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
SLE
176
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A

Proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema
Minimal Change Disease
FSGS
Membranous Glomerulonephritis

177
Q

Tetralogy of fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis
VSD
overriding aorta
Right ventricular hypertrophy

178
Q

Onset of cyanosis in bebos

A

In days: TGA

in months: TOF

179
Q

TGA Xray

A

Egg on a string

180
Q

TOF Xray

A

Boot shaped heart

181
Q

ASD

A

Ejection systolic murmur

Left sternal edge

182
Q

VSD

A

Pansystolic murmur

Left sternal edge

183
Q

AVSD

A

pulmonary hypertension

Down syndrome

184
Q

PDA

A

machinery murmur below left clavicle

Indamethasin/ Nsaid

185
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

IM adrenaline 1:1000
5 min later IM adrenaline 1:1000
Adrenaline infusion

186
Q

DKA and dehydration pH

A

pH > 7.1 = 5% loss

pH < 7.1 = 10% loss

187
Q

Total fluid deficit volume

A

%deficit x weight x 10

Over 48h

188
Q

Maintenance fluids paediatrics

A

0-10kg 100mL/kg
10-20kg 50mL/kg
>20kg 20mL/kg

189
Q

Status epilepticus

A

IV lorazepam /rectal diazepam, buccal midazolam
10min IV lorazepam
Phenytoin infusion
GA

190
Q

Generalised seizure mx

A

Sodium valproate

Lamotrigine

191
Q

Focal seizure mx

A

Lamotrigine

192
Q

Absence seizure

A

Ethosuximide

193
Q

ADHD Mx

A

Methylphenidate
Lisdexamphetamine

-> may impair growth (hight weight ecg)

194
Q

Pyloric stenosis treatment

A

Ramstedt pylorymyotomy

195
Q

Constipation paeds

A

Movicol (draw water into intestine)
Senna (stimulant laxative, intestine contractions)

If impaction:
Movicol on 2 week escalation dose + Senna

196
Q

Bulk forming laxative

A

Fybrogel

197
Q

Osmotic laxative - draws water to intestine

A

Movicol

Lactulose

198
Q

Stool softener

A

Glycerol

Docusate

199
Q

Stimulant laxative - augment contractions

A

Senna

Bisacodyl

200
Q

Intussuception

A

red currant jelly stool
Sausage shaped mass

Dx USS, AXR
Mx Rectal air insuflation, surgery

201
Q

Jaundice 24h - 14d

A

Breast milk
Bruising / traumatic birth
RBC breakdown

202
Q

Jaundice <24h

A

Rhesus incompatibility
ABO incompatibility
G6DP deficiency
Pyruvate Kinase deficiency

203
Q

Jaundice >14d

A

Biliary atresia
Congenital hypothyroidism
Neonatal hepatitis

204
Q

Transcutaneous bilirubin

A

Jaundice >24h

Born >35w

205
Q

Serum bilirubin

A

Jaundice <24h

Born <35w

206
Q

Hearing tests

A

Otoacoustic test

Adutiroty brainstem response test

207
Q

Meningitis in HIV

A

Cryptococcus neoformans- india ink stain

208
Q

HIV diarrhoea

A

Cryptosporidium

209
Q

Fever followed by maculopapular rash

A

Roseola infantum

HHV6

210
Q

Itchy red papular lesions between toes and fingers

A

Scabies

Sarcoptes scabies

211
Q

Bilateral malar erythrema

A

Slapped cheek syndrome / fifth disease

Parvovirus B19

212
Q

Widespread erythrema and tenderness, desquamation

A

Scalded skin syndrome

Staphylococcus

213
Q

Painful lesions on hands, foot, month

A

Coxsackie virus

214
Q

Erythrematous pustules with yellow crust

A

Impetigo

Staph aureus

215
Q

Blueberry muffin rush

A

Rubella

216
Q

Cancer that metastasises to bone

A 
BLT Kocher Pickle
Breast
Lung
Thyroid
Kidney
Prostate
217
Q

Homonymous hemianopia - congruous defect

A

Optic radiation or occipital cortex

218
Q

Homonymous hemianopia - incongruous defect

A

Optic tract

219
Q

Homonymous hemianopia - macula sparing

A

Occiptial cortex

220
Q

PPROM sign

A

Pooling of water in posterior vault

Do FIBRONECTIN test

221
Q

Praeder Willi

A 
Eating everything 
Overweight
Short stature
Hypotonia
Delay
222
Q

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis

A

Asthma
Bilateral nasal polyps
Nasal obstruction

223
Q

Painless red eye in autoimmune conditions

A

Episcleritis

224
Q

Painful red eye in ankylosing spondylitis

A

Anterior uveitis

225
Q

Ewing sarcoma

A

MRI large mass with necrosis

Small blue round cells on E&H

226
Q

Frontal lobe seizure

A

Jacksonian movement

227
Q

Limited systemic sclerosis ab

A

Anti centromere

228
Q

Doffuse systemic sclerosis ab

A

Anti scl 70

229
Q

Brocas area

A

EXPRESSIVE

230
Q

Wernickes area

A

Receptive

231
Q

Turner syndrome Heart problem

A

1st Bicuspid valve

2nd is coarctation of aorta

232
Q

Hearing tests in newborn

A

Evoked otoacoustic emission

Automated auditory brainstem resoinse

233
Q

NEC

A

Ceftriaxone and Vancomycin

234
Q

Neonatal jaundice bilirubin check

A

Serum bilirubin in jaundice >24h and born <35 weeks

Transcutaneous bilirubin in jaundice >24h and >35 weeks

235
Q

Bebo sepsis abx and cause

A

Benzyloenicillin + gentamycin

<72h leisteria monocytogenes, GBS
>72h staphylococcus epidermis

236
Q

Neonatal meningitis tx

A

Penicillin + cegtriaxone/cefotaxime

237
Q

GBS

A

Mother; benzylpenicillin

Bebo: benzylpenicillin + gentamycin/ceftriaxone

238
Q

Hep B treatment

A

Tenifovir

239
Q

Threadworms tx

A

Mebendazole

240
Q

Drug for induction of ovulation

A

Clomiphene

241
Q

When is anaemia checked in pregnancy?

A

Booking and 28w

242
Q

Hb levels in pregnancy

A

1st 110
2nd 105
3rd 100

243
Q

Ovarian cancer risk factors

A

many ovulations
Early menarche
Late menopause
Nullparity

244
Q

Endometrial cancer

A 
Many ovulations 
Obesity
Early menarche
Late menopause
Nullparity
245
Q

DCML

A

ascending

Fine touch and proprioception

246
Q

Corticospinal

A

Descending

Motor

247
Q

Spinothalamic

A

Ascending

Pain and temperature

248
Q

TIA onset <1w

A

Refer same day

300mg aspirin

249
Q

TIA onset >1w

A

1 week wait referral

300mg aspirin

250
Q

TIA pharmacotherapy

A

300 mg aspirin for 14 days

75mg aspirin + clopidogrel + statin later

251
Q

Bell’s palsy

A

HSV1

252
Q

Ramsey Hunt Syndrome

A

HZV

253
Q

Post seizure management

A

2ww Neurology
6m No driving & DVLA notification if idiopathic
12 m if diagnosis or abnormality

254
Q

Focal seizure

A

Carbamazepine

Lamotrigine

255
Q

Generalised seizure

A

Sodium valproate

Lamotrigine

256
Q

Absence seizure

A

Ethosuxamide

257
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Berry aneurysm

258
Q

Extradural haemorrhage

A

Trauma to pterion

Convex not crossing sutures

259
Q

Subdural haemorrhage

A

Concave
Crossing sutures
Bridging veins

260
Q

Syphilis

A 
Painless ulcers
1* chancre
2* condylomata lata 
3* gummatous lesions 
Tx IM benzylphenicillin
261
Q

Genital herpes

A

Flu-like symptoms dysuria fever PAINFUL ulcers
HSV 1 oral
HSV 2 genital
Mx: Acyclovir

262
Q

Genital warts HPV strain

A

6,11

263
Q

Genital warts tx

A

Multiple - topical podophyllum

Single - cryotherapy

264
Q

HPV cancer

A

16, 18, 33 - cervical cancer

265
Q

Alzheimer mx

A

Mild-Moderate: donezepil, gantamine, rivastigmine

Severe: memantine

266
Q

Dobezepil SE

A

Do not give in bradycardia

Causes insomnia and weight gain

267
Q

SLE Derm involvement

A

Oral ulcers

268
Q

Glioblastoma multiformae

A

Young person
Space occupying lesion
Crosses midline

269
Q

Prosthesis septic arthritis

A

Staph epidermidis

Paediatrics Y4 (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions