Exam 1 Cardiac Flashcards

1
Q

AV valves

A
  • Tricuspid valve (Flows blood from right atrium to right ventricle)
  • Mitral valve (Flows blood from left atrium to left ventricle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Semilunar valves

A
  • Pulmonic valve (Flows blood from right ventricle through pulmonary arteries to lungs)
  • Aortic valve (Flows blood from left ventricle through the aorta to the body)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes the S1 sound (lub)

A

When the AV valves (tricuspid and mitral valves) close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes the S2 sound (dub)

A

When the semilunar valves (pulmonic and aortic valves) close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Diastole?

A
  • Atria and ventricles are relaxed & the atrioventricular valves are open
  • Caused by SA node
  • The tricuspid valve prevents the blood from flowing back into the right atrium.
  • The mitral valve prevents the oxygenated blood from flowing back into the left atrium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Systole?

A
  • Right and Left ventricles contract (squeeze)
  • The AV valves close and the semilunar valves open
  • The pulmonary artery carries the blood to the lungs. There the blood picks up oxygen and is returned to the left atrium of the heart by the pulmonary veins.
  • The aorta branches out to provide oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. The oxygen depleted blood is returned to the heart via the vena cava
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cardiac Output (CO) normal value

A

Normal CO: 4-7 L/min

- Amount of blood pumped out by the ventricle per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Central Venous Pressure (CVP or RAP) normal value

A

Normal RAP 2-5 mmHg

- Reflects filling pressures of the right side of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) normal value

A

Normal 70-100 mmHg

- Average perfusion pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cardiac Index (CI) normal value

A

Normal CI : 2.2-4.0 L/min/m2

  • Adjusts CO for body size
  • More precise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stroke Volume (SV) normal value

A

Normal 60-70ml

- Amount of blood ejected by ventricle with each heart beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) normal value

A

Normal 800-1400 dynes/sec/cm

- The resistance against which the left ventricle must pump to eject its volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP) normal value

A

Normal: 4-12 mmHg

- reflects the filling pressures in the pulmonary vasculature LEFT sided pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pulmonary Artery Systolic Pressure (PAS) normal value

A

PAS normal: 15-26 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pulmonary Artery Diastolic Pressure (PAD) normal value

A

PAD normal: 5-10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Stroke volume variation (SVV) normal range

A

Normal SVV < 10-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SVO2 (return of blood back to the right side of the heart) normal value

A

Normal value 60%-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Preload?

A

amount of blood going to the heart (PAWP & CVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Afterload?

A

the pressure against which the heart must work to eject blood during systole (SVR mainly & PVR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Elevated Preload (CVP & PAWP) causes what?

A
  • Crackles in lungs
  • Jugular vein distention
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Peripheral Edema
  • Taut skin turgor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Decreased Preload (CVP & PAWP) causes what?

A
  • Poor skin turgor

- Dry mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Elevated Afterload (SVR mainly & PVR) causes what?

A
  • Cool extremities

- Weak peripheral pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Decreased Afterload (SVR mainly & PVR) causes what?

A
  • Warm extremities

- Bounding peripheral pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drugs to increase SVR? (Afterload)

A

Dopamine, Norepinephrine (causes vasoconstriction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drugs to decrease SVR? (Afterload)

A

Nitroprusside, NTG, Hydralazine (causes vasodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Treatment for Abnormal values for Right side preload (CVP)

A
  • Diuretics
  • Fluid restriction
  • Fluid bolus
  • Blood or blood products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment for Abnormal values for Left side preload (PAWP)

A
  • Fluid restriction
  • Venodilation
  • Diuretics
  • Fluid
  • Blood and blood products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

High values (80%-90%)of SVO2 could mean?

A
  • Hyperoxygenation
  • Anesthesia
  • Sepsis
  • False reading
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Low values (<60%) of SVO2 could mean?

A
  • Anemia, bleeding
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Hyperthermia, seizures, activity
  • Hypoxemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The nurse caring for a patient with an arterial line notes the reading of 182/130. The priority action at this time will be:

  1. Notify the MD
  2. Increase the nitroprusside IV gtt
  3. Verify the transducer level
  4. Verify the flush solution
A
  1. Verify the transducer level (make sure the equipment is working
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The patient with a FloTrac monitor is noted to have a SVV of 19%. The nurse can anticipate which treatment ordered?

  1. Fluid bolus
  2. Dopamine IV gtt
  3. Nitroglycerine IV gtt
  4. Lasix per IV
A
  1. Fluid bolus (If SVV is >15%, patient’s cardiac output will increase with fluid infusion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The nurse notes a SVR of 550 dynes/sec/cm-5. This is an indicator of:

  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Increased right heart preload
  3. Increased left heart preload
  4. Vasodilation
A
  1. Vasodilation (lower SVR is vasodilation and higher SVR is vasoconstriction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Nursing care for Angiography

A
  • maintain NPO status for at least 8 hours
  • obtain vital signs, heart and lung sounds, and peripheral pulses
  • Consent form is signed
    After operation:
  • Assess vital signs every 15 min x 4, every 30 min x 2, every hour x 4, and then every 4 (follow protocol)
  • Assess incision site
  • Maintain bed rest in supine position with extremity straight for prescribed time.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Complications with angiography

A
  • Cardiac tamponade (fluid accumulation in pericardial sac)
  • Hematoma formation (blood clots can form near the insertion site
  • Restenosis of treated vessel (Clot reformation in the coronary artery can occur immediately or several weeks after procedure)
  • Retroperitoneal bleeding (bleeding into retroperitoneal space can occur due to femoral artery puncture)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sinus tachycardia (Rate: 101-150 bpm) management

A
  • Treat cause (fever, exercise)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Sinus bradycardia (Rate: <60 bpm) management

A
  • If client is symptomatic: Atropine, isoproterenol, Pacemaker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Atrial flutter and fibrillation management

A

Rhythm control
- Pharmacological:
Amiodarone, adenosine, ibutilide, disopyramide, flecainide, dofetilide, sotalol

Electrical cardioversion ** only if < 48 hours **

Surgical:
MAZE procedure, requires open heart surgery

Ablation procedure

Rate control:
Ca channel blockers, beta blockers, digoxin

Complication prevetion (stroke)
anticoagulate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Premature Atrial Contractions (PAC) management

A

No treatment, usually benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Junctional rhythm (40-60 bpm and p wave inverted) management

A
  • if symptomatic:

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Accelerated junctional rhythm (61-100 bpm and p wave inverted) management

A

No treatment necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Junctional tachycardia (101-180 bpm and p wave inverted) management

A

-Control rapid rate with Ca channel blocker, Beta blocker, or Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Premature junctional contractions management

A
  • Observe
43
Q

Supraventricular Tachycardia (Rate: 100-280 with a mean of 170 bpm in adults) management

A

Amiodarone, adenosine, and verapamil

44
Q

Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVCs) management

A
  • Treat the cause

- Antidysrhythmic medication

45
Q

Ventricular tachycardia (140-180 bpm (or more)) management

A
  • VTach (Pulseless) Defibrillate, CPR, Epinephrine, Vasopressin
  • VTach (With Pulse), Amiodarone, Sotalol, Lidocaine, Cardioversion
46
Q

ventricular fibrillation

A

amiodarone, lidocaine, epinephrine, and defibriillate

47
Q

Ventricular asystole (No electrical activity)

A
  • Check in different lead
  • CPR
  • Epinephrine every 3-5 minutes
48
Q

PEA: Pulseless electrical activity 5 H’s and 5 T’s

A

5 H’s

  • Hypovolemia
  • Hypoxia
  • Hydrogen ions (acidosis)
  • Hyper or hypokalemia
  • Hypothermia

5 T’s

  • Tables (drug overdose)
  • Tamponade
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Thrombosis (coronary)
  • Thrombosis (pulmonary)
49
Q

First degree heart block management

A
  • None, other than treating any possible cause
50
Q

second degree heart block management

A
  • Possible transcutaneous pacing or transvenous pacing
51
Q

Third degree heart block management

A
  • Requires pacemaker

Transcutaneous or transvenous

52
Q

Hyperkalemia changes to ECG

A
  • Tall, peaked T-waves
  • Widened QRS complex, Ventricular fibrillation, Cardiac standstill
  • Prolongation of the P wave & PRI
  • Flattens P wave
53
Q

Hyperkalemia treatment

A
  • D50 W and IV Insulin
    temporary measure for life-threatening levels
  • Calcium Chloride
    temporary measure, increases threshold potential
  • Cation exchange resin products into GI tract such as Kayexalate
    permanent measure
  • Hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis
    permanent measure
54
Q

Hypokalemia changes to ECG

A
  • PVCs
  • Deterioration into V-tach or V-fib
  • Depressed T-waves, inverted T-waves
  • U waves
  • 2nd and 3rd heart blocks
55
Q

Hypokalemia treatment

A

K+ replacement (10 meq per hour)

  • High Alert Medication
  • NEVER IV push
  • Monitor for phlebitis

If hypomagnesemia exists, Mg+ replacement has to take place before K+ replacement can be successful

56
Q

Hypermagnesemia changes to ECG

A

Similar to Hyperkalemia

  • Tall, peaked T-waves
  • Widened QRS complex, Ventricular fibrillation, Cardiac standstill
  • Prolongation of the P wave & PRI
  • Flattens P wave
57
Q

Hypermagnesemia treatment

A

calcium gluconate

58
Q

Hypomagnesemia changes to ECG

A

Similar to K+

  • Prolonged PR & QT intervals
  • Presence of U waves
  • T-wave flattening
  • Widened QRS complex
59
Q

Hypomagnesemia treatment

A
Magnesium IV replacement
- No Pulse
       1-2 gm in 10 ml D5W over 5-20 minutes
- With a pulse
       1-2 gm over 5 to 60 minutes
60
Q

Hypercalcemia changes to ECG

A
  • Shortened QTc interval
  • Bradycardia
  • Heart block (1º, 2º, and 3º) & BBB
61
Q

Hypercalcemia treatment

A

-Loop diuretics (acute management)
Furosemide 1mg/kg along with NS to maintain stable
body water, along with a K+ replacement

  • Calcitonin (slower to work)
    SQ or IM
  • Biphosphonates
  • Hemodialysis
62
Q

Hypocalcemia changes to ECG

A
  • Variable
  • Bradycardia
  • V-tach
  • Asystole
  • Prolonged QT interval (leads to torsades de pointes)
63
Q

Hypocalcemia treatment

A
  • Seizure precautions
  • Oral and IV replacement
    - Calcium chloride
    - Calcium gluconate
64
Q

What is Lead I

A
  • Positive electrode - left arm (or under left clavicle)
  • Negative electrode - right arm (or below right clavicle)
  • Ground electrode - left leg (or left side of chest in midclavicular line just beneath last rib)
  • Waveforms are positive
65
Q

What is Lead II

A
  • Positive electrode - left leg (or on left side of chest in midclavicular line just beneath last rib)
  • Negative electrode - right arm (or below right clavicle)
  • Ground electrode - left arm (or below left clavicle)
  • Waveforms are positive
66
Q

What is Lead III

A
  • Positive electrode - left leg (or left side of the chest in midclavicular line just beneath last rib)
  • Negative electrode - left arm (or below left clavicle)
  • Ground electrode - right arm (or below right clavicle)
  • Waveforms are positive or biphasic
67
Q

What is lead aVR

A
  • Positive electrode placed on right arm

- Waveforms have negative deflection

68
Q

What is lead aVL

A
  • Positive electrode placed on left arm

- Waveforms have positive deflection

69
Q

What is lead aVF

A
  • Positive electrode located on left leg

- Waveforms have a positive deflection

70
Q

How does the ventricular axis work

A
  • Normal
    - Lead I is +
    - Lead aVF is +
  • Right Axis Deviation
    - Lead I is –
    - Lead aVF is +
  • Left Axis Deviation
    - Lead I is +
    - Lead aVF is –
  • NW (indeterminate) (Left ventricle to Right ventricle
    - Lead I is –
    - Lead aVF is -
71
Q

What causes Left Axis Deviation

A
  • Q waves of inferior myocardial infarction
  • artificial cardiac pacing
  • emphysema
  • hyperkalaemia
  • injection of contrast into left coronary artery
  • left ventricular hypertrophy
72
Q

What causes Right Axis Deviation

A
  • normal finding in children and tall thin adults
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
  • chronic lung disease even without pulmonary hypertension
  • anterolateral myocardial infarction
  • pulmonary embolus
73
Q

What causes No Man’s Land (Northwest Axis)

A
  • emphysema
  • hyperkalemia
  • lead transposition
  • artificial cardiac pacing
  • ventricular tachycardia
74
Q

What is defibrillation and when do you use it

A
  • Electrical countershock to stop chaotic electrical activity so that normal conduction can resume
    • Pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
75
Q

How many joules does the biphasic waveform defibrillator (safer) use

A

120-200 joules

76
Q

Safety for defibrillation

A
  • Check for the pulse…never defibrillate a palpable pulse.
  • Do not shock systole.
  • Always use gel pads to protect pt’s skin
  • Keep paddles/pads away from each other
  • I’m clear, you’re clear, we all are clear
77
Q

What is cardioversion

A

It is synchronized: Low energy shock to convert stable supraventricular or ventricular tachycardias to normal sinus rhythms

78
Q

How to do cardioversion and safety

A
  • Shock synchronized with pt’s R wave to avoid falling on T wave.
  • 50j, 100 j, 200j, 300j, 360j
  • Sedate patient if possible
  • Have emergency cart at bedside
79
Q

What is the three letter pacemaker code

A
- Position I =Chambers Paced
            0 = none
            A= atrial
            V= ventricle
            D= dual (atrial &amp; ventricle)
- Position II = Chambers Sensed
           0= none
           A= atrial
           V= ventricle
           D= dual
- Position III = Response to sensing
           0= none
           T= triggered
            I= inhibited
           D= dual (T and I)
80
Q

When to use a pacemaker

A
  • symptomatic bradycardia
  • severe asymptomatic bradycardia
  • AV block
  • complete block (3rd degree)
  • atrial flutter/atrial fib with slow ventricular response
  • sick sinus syndrome
  • tachybrady syndrome
81
Q

Risk for pacemakers

A
  • catheter dislodgment
  • lead fracture
  • pacemaker system failure
  • erosion of pulse generator
  • pacer induced tachycardia
  • infection/local sepsis
  • cardiac perforation with tamponade
  • thrombosis of superior vena cava or right atrium
  • dysrhythmias
82
Q

Temporary pacemakers

A
  • Transcutaneous (pads)
  • Epicardial (wires to the heart)
  • Transvenous (vein through the leg)
83
Q

Permanent pacemakers

A

Transvenous

84
Q

When are transcutaneous (pads) pacemakers used

A
  • less than 24 hours

- waiting for someone to put one in

85
Q

Asynchronous pacemaker mode

A
  • Pacemaker does not sense pt’s intrinsic rate. Rate is fixed
86
Q

Synchronous pacemaker mode

A
  • pacemaker senses pt’s intrinsic rate and fires on demand
87
Q

What is hypertension (HTN)

A
  • Systolic blood pressure ≥140 and/or diastolic blood pressure ≥90 in people who do not have diabetes mellitus
  • Patients with DM should have BP < 130/90
88
Q

How to help prevent hypertension

A
  • Diet
    - Low sodium, low fat diet.
    - Lower cholesterol levels to < 200 mg/dl total
  • Weight reduction
  • Reduced alcohol intake
  • Exercise
    - At least 5 days a week
  • Decrease stress levels
  • Relaxation techniques
  • Avoid alcohol, smoking
89
Q

Hypertension management

A
  • Monitoring BP at home
    - Goal of 140/90 or lower
    - Keep a record and bring to visits with provider
  • Warning signs
    - MI, CVA, PAD, Kidney disease
  • Medications
    - What they are for and the side effects
    - Adherence to medication regimen
90
Q

Hypertension drug therapy

A
  • Diuretics
    - Thiazide diuretics first choice
  • Calcium channel blockers
    - Verapamil, amlodipine
  • ACE inhibitors
    - captopril, lisinopril, enalapril
  • Beta-adrenergic blockers
    - atenolol, metoprolol,
  • Renin inhibitors
    - aliskiren
  • Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
    - valsartan, losartan
  • Central alpha agonists
    - clonidine
  • Alpha-adrenergic agonists
    - prazosin, terazosin
  • Aldosterone receptor antagonists
    - Eplerenone
91
Q

The 6 P’s of arterial insufficiency

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Pulselessness
  • Paresthesia
  • Paralysis
  • Poikilothermia (coolness)
92
Q

What are aneurysms of central arteries

A

Permanent localized dilation of artery, enlarging artery to twice its normal diameter

Types:

  • Fusiform
  • Saccular
  • Dissecting (aortic dissection)
  • Abdominal aortic
  • Thoracic aortic
93
Q

Symptoms of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

A
  • usually steady pain with a gnawing quality, unaffected by movement, may last for hours or days
  • Pain in abdomen, flank, back
  • Abdominal mass is pulsatile
  • Bruit
  • Rupture is most frequent complication and is life threatening
94
Q

Rupture of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

A

Sudden ripping, tearing, stabbing abdominal or back pain and legs

symptoms:

  • Diaphoresis, faintness, N&V, apprehension
  • Hypotension, tachycardia
95
Q

Symptoms of Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm

A

Symptoms often do not occur until the aneurysm is larger and causing pressure from the aorta on adjacent structures:

  • coughing and wheezing
  • Horner’s syndrome (drooping eyelid, constricted pupil and dry skin on one side of the face)
  • Hoarse voice
  • Difficulty swallowing
  • Back pain
  • Mass may be visible above suprasternal notch
96
Q

Rupture of Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm

A

Sudden excruciating back or chest pain symptomatic of thoracic rupture. Pain can travel into arms, abdomen and lower back

Symptoms:

  • Diaphoresis, faintness, N&V, apprehension
  • Hypotension, tachycardia
97
Q

Nonsurgical management of aneurysm

A
  • Monitor aneurysm growth

- Maintain BP at normal level to decrease risk of rupture

98
Q

Indications for aneurysm repair

A
  • Aneurysm > 6 cm
  • Progressively increasing in size
  • Impending rupture
  • Sx of cerebral or coronary ischemia
  • Pericardial tamponade
  • Uncontrollable pain
  • Aortic insufficiency
99
Q

Complicationsfor surgical repair of aneurysm

A
  • Bleeding
  • Graft occlusion
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Acute renal failure
  • Distal embolization
  • Colon ischemia
  • Spinal cord ischemia
100
Q

What is an aortic dissection

A
  • May be caused by sudden tear in aortic intima, opening way for blood to enter aortic wall
  • Creates false lumen
  • Pain described as tearing, ripping, stabbing
  • Life threatening
101
Q

Aortic dissection management

A
  • Assess 6 “P”s
    Pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pulselessness,
    poikilothermia
  • Control pain
    - Morphine
  • Control HTN
    -Labetolol, Esmolol
    - Nipride
  • Diagnostic tests
    -CT scan for emergent, MRI for stable, chronic
    Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
  • Surgical intervention
    - Resection and replacement with graft
    - Cardiopulmonary bypass machine
102
Q

Nonsurgical Management of Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

A
  • Rest, preventive measures
  • Drug therapy:
    - Unfractionated heparin
    - Low–molecular weight heparin
    - Warfarin
    - Thrombolytics
103
Q

Surgical management of Venous thrombembolism (VTE)

A
  • Thrombectomy
  • Inferior vena caval interruption
  • Ligation or external clips
104
Q

Ankle Brachial Index scores

A
  • normal (0.91 to 1.30)
  • mild (0.71 to 0.90) (blood thinners)
  • moderate (0.41 to 0.70) (blood thinners)
  • severe (≤ 0.40)