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Gross Anatomy > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the basic structural unit of a muscle?

A

muscle fiber (Cell)

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2
Q

How many muscle fibers can be individual muscle contain

A

hundreds and thousands

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3
Q

What does the number of fibers found within the muscle depend on?

A

The size of the muscle

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4
Q

What are muscle fibers grouped into bundles known as

A

Fasciculi

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5
Q

What are muscle fibers and Fasciculi bound together by?

A

Connective tissue

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6
Q

What are the three function of connective tissue?

A

connects the muscle to bone or other structure,

provides a route thorugh which nerves and blood vessels reach the muscle fibers

Provides a non-contractile framework which allows the contraction of a muscle fiber to be transmitted to bone

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7
Q

What is the delicate connective tissue sheath which surrounds each individual muscle fiber and connects it to individual muscle fiber and connect it adjacent muscle fibers?

A

Endomysium

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8
Q

What does the endomysium surround and what does it connect?

A

Surrounds each muscle fiber and connects it to adjacent muscle fibers.

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9
Q

What is a more dense layer of connective tissue which surrounds each fasciculi and divides the muscle into a series of separate compartments.

A

Perimysium

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10
Q

What does the perimysium surround and divides

A

Surrounds EACH fasciculi and divides the muscle into a series of separate compartments.

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11
Q

What is a dense layer of connective tissue which surrounds the ENTIRE muscle and separates the muscle from surrounding g tissues organs and other muscles?

A

Epimysium

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12
Q

What does the epimysium surrounds and separates

A

Surrounds the ENTIRE muscle and separates the muscle from the surrounding tissues organs and other muscles ?

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13
Q

What layer of connective tissue is continuous with deep fascia in the area and will continue as the tendon of the muscle ?

A

Epimysium.

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14
Q

What does the epimysium continue a?

A

It Continue as the tendon of the muscle

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15
Q

Muscle fibers are extremely____ and ___ with nuclei arranged around the __ of the fiber.

A

Long, Multinucleated periphery

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16
Q

What is the contractile unit of the muscle

A

Myofibril

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17
Q

How many myofilaments are in each muscle fiber?

A

Hundred of thousands

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18
Q

What is the tough specialized membrane that contains each muscle fiber ?

A

Sarcolemma

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19
Q

Adult muscles may be as much as ___ times the diameter that they were at birth

A

10

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20
Q

Exercise may increase muscle size up to an average of about ___percent

A

25

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21
Q

What is the term used to describe they type of increase in size of muscle, which due to an increase in the size of each individual muscle fiber ?

A

Hypertrophy

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22
Q

What is the term used to describe an increase in the size of a muscle due to an actual increase in the number of muscle fibers

A

Hyperplasia

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23
Q

how is hyperplasia induced

A

muscle fibers must be subjected to high resistance exercise, which induce injury to the individual fibers that then follow a regenerative process

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24
Q

What is the term used to refer to the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber

A

Sarcoplasm

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25
Q

The amount of sarcoplasm in the each muscle fiber the same?

A

No, They will vary from fiber to fiber.

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26
Q

Are the amounts of sarcoplasm in each muscle fiber different

A

Yes, they will vary from fiber to fiber

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27
Q

What is the difference between dark and light muscle fibers ?

A

The amount of sarcoplasm within the majority of fiber

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28
Q

Are type 1 fibers darks

A

Yes

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29
Q

Are type 1 fiber light

A

No

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30
Q

are type 2 fibers dark

A

no

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31
Q

are type 2 fibers light ?

A

Yes

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32
Q

What type of muscle fibers are found in muscles where long sustained or continuous contraction are required

A

type 1

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33
Q

What type of muscle fibers are associated with endurance activities?

A

Type 1

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34
Q

What type of muscle fibers are associated with endurance activities ?

A

Type 1

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35
Q

What type of muscle fibers are associated with relatively high levels of continuous metabolic activity (aerobic Metabolism)

A

Type 1

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36
Q

What type of muscle fibers are used for quick more powerful activities and thus related to speed and strength

A

Type 2

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37
Q

What type of muscle fibers are associated with anaerobic metabolism?

A

Type 2

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38
Q

What type of muscle fibers have large amounts of sarcoplasm and myoglobin?

A

Type 1

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39
Q

what type of muscle fibers have lesser amounts of sarcoplasm and myoglobin

A

Type 2

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40
Q

What type of muscle fibers have extensive capillary beds?

A

type 1

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41
Q

What type of muscle fibers have fewer capillary beds

A

Type 2

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42
Q

What type of muscle fibers are fast twitch

A

type 2

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43
Q

What type of muscle fibers are fatigue resistant

A

type 1

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44
Q

What type of muscle fibers fatigue easier

A

Type 2

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45
Q

What type of muscle fibers have numerous mitochondria?

A

Type 1

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46
Q

what type of muscle fibers have less mitochondria?

A

Type 2

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47
Q

What type of muscle fibers have more fatty acids and less glycogen

A

Type 1

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48
Q

What type of muscle fibers have more glycogen and less fatty acids

A

Type 2

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49
Q

What type of muscle fibers atrophy with immobilization

A

type 1

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50
Q

what type of muscle fibers atrophy with aging?

A

Type 2

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51
Q

What type of muscle fibers exhibit characteristics which are somewhere between type 1 and type 2 fibers

A

Intermediate

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52
Q

Intermediate fibers contract faster than type__ but slower that type__

A

Type 1, Type 2

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53
Q

What type of muscle fibers of intermediate fiber histologically resemble.

A

Type 2

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54
Q

what type of muscle fibers are in a higher proportion in weight lifters and sprinters

A

Type 2

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55
Q

What type of muscle fibers are in higher proportion of marathon runners

A

Type 1

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56
Q

What is the muscle fibers cell membrane

A

sarcolemma

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57
Q

What is an elaborate tubular network which functions to store and transport calcium ions to the myofibrils ?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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58
Q

What is a tubular invagination of the sarcolemma that allows electrical (nerve) impulse to enter the muscle fiber and make their way to the myofibrils ?

A

transverse tubules (T-System)

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59
Q

What do the Transverse tubules allow for the release of

A

calcium

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60
Q

What is a red pigment found in the sarcoplasm of a muscle fiber?

A

myoglobin

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61
Q

What protein gives color to muscle ?

A

Myoglobin

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62
Q

What protein STORE oxygen for metabolism in muscle fibers?

A

myoglobin

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63
Q

What molecule does myoglobin have grater affinity for that hemoglobin

A

Oxygen

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64
Q

What is the contractile apparatus fiber

A

myofibrils

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65
Q

What are longitudinally oriented bundles of thick and thin filaments

A

myofilaments

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66
Q

What are myofibrils formed from?

A

myofilaments

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67
Q

What is the light area in a myofibril?

A

I-Band

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68
Q

What is the dark area in a myofibril

A

A-band

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69
Q

What are the light areas in the middle of each dark band ?

A

H-band

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70
Q

What is the thin dark like down the center of each H-band

A

M-band

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71
Q

What are the thick dark lines in the middle of each I-band?

A

z-line

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72
Q

what is the unit of a myofibril

A

sarcomere

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73
Q

What is the smallest functional unit of a muscle?

A

sarcomere

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74
Q

What are the anatomical boundaries of one sarcomere

A

one z-line to the next z-line.

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75
Q

what type of proteins are the main proteins of skeletal muscle?

A

Actin and myosin

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76
Q

What are the two contractile proteins are where are they found

A

actin- found mainly in the I-bands

myosin, found mainly in the a-bands

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77
Q

What two proteins react with one another to create movement ( a Contraction)

A

actin and myosin

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78
Q

What type of proteins act to inhibit the interaction of actin and myosin

A

Regulatory proteins

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79
Q

What are the two most common regulatory proteins

A

Troponin and tropomyosin

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80
Q

what is the signal to allow actin and myosin to interact with one another

A

Calcium

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81
Q

What molecule elimaninates the inhibition caused by the regulatory protein and thus allows muscle contractioni to occur ?

A

calcium

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82
Q

The nerve impulse from the ____ ____ stimulates the release of calcium from the ____ ____

A

Transverse Tubules

Sacroplasmic Reticulum

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83
Q

What does Calcium bind on the actin filament

A

troponin

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84
Q

What occurs to the rest of the regulatory protein when calcium binds to troponin

A

Tropomyosin changes shape, and exposes they myosin binding site on the actin molecule

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85
Q

What is the fuel of the muscle?

A

ATP

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86
Q

How does the ATP allow the system to operate ?

A

Allowing actin and myosin to interact

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87
Q

What are the ATP requirements to release a muscle compared to contracting a muscle

A

The same

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88
Q

How is the energy provided from ATP

A

By the breakdown of ATP—-> into ADP and free P ion

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89
Q

In regards to ATP, what is the movement of muscle a result ?

A

Continuous breakdown and reconstitution of ATP

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90
Q

What does the aerobic pathway take place ?

A

in the mitochondria

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91
Q

What is the more efficient way to produce ATP in a muscle fiber ?

A

Aerobic pathway

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92
Q

What is the pathway that creates more energy that is needed for the production of ATP

A

Aerobic Pathway

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93
Q

What pathway creates excess energy as heat and contributes to keeping the body at its most efficient temperature

A

Aerobic pathway

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94
Q

What pathway prefers fatty acids to produce ATP

A

Aerobic pathway

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95
Q

How are fatty acids stored in the body’s fat cells

A

stored as triglycerides

96
Q

When are fatty acids released into the body

A

During exercise

97
Q

What are the two substance that are used to anaerobically produce ATP

A

Creatine Phosphate and Glycogens

98
Q

Creatine phosphate

A

is the first substance used by the pathway and allows the muscle to contract at one

99
Q

What allows the muscle to contract at once since there is always a small amount of it stored in muscle fibers ?

A

Creatine phosphate

100
Q

What is the second substance used in the anaerobic pathway

A

Glycogen

101
Q

What is the process which produces ATP using Glycogen called and is it aerobic or anaerobic

A

Anaerobic pathway

102
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A

either in muscle or liver cells

103
Q

What metabolic pathway is quicker?

A

Anaerobic

104
Q

What bogs down anaerobic metabolism

A

The by-products lactic acid

105
Q

During phase one pf exercise what are the primary fuel sources

A

Creatine phosphate and glycogen

106
Q

What percentage of stored glycogen is utilized during phase one of exercise ?

A

20 percent

107
Q

What occurs during phase two of exercise

A

Shift in metabolism to the more efficient aerobic metabolism an the use of fatty acids to produce ATP

108
Q

Which phase of exercise occurs as exercise intensifies ?

A

Phase three

109
Q

What dietary manipulation is used to increase the store of glycogen in muscle fibers ?

A

Glycogen/Carb loading

110
Q

Studies have shown that carbohydrate loading will produce localized increased synthesis of____ in the depleted muscle groups; however, this increase in muscle ___ level will not increase a muscle’s nor allow one to run____

A

Glycogen, glycogen, strength, faster.

111
Q

what are the side effects associated with carbohydrate loading ?

A

dizziness, light headed and lethargic.

mental acuity may suffer and judgment may be impaired

For ever gram of glycogen that is stored in the muscle, these is an approximate increase of 3 grams of water ( his may lead to several extra pounds of weight.)

112
Q

How can caffeine help an athlete

A

burn fatty acids more efficiently. ( increase Calcium permeability)

drinking two cups of coffee, ingested an hour or so before an event may help an athlete burn fatty acids more efficiently

113
Q

What are side effects associated with coffee?

A

Nervousness and acting as a diuretic

114
Q

How does blood doping help an athlete ?

A

Increasing the oxygen carrying capacity of RBC’s

The theory is that if you increase the concentration of RBC’s you can increase you endurance

115
Q

What are the risk associated with blood doping?

A

Rashes and fevers

acute hemolysis ( breakdown of red blood cells)

Transmission of viruses

fluid overload which can lead to kidney damage and intravascular clotting of blood.

116
Q

Where is EPO naturally found ??

A

In the kidneys

117
Q

Where does the EPO travel to and why?

A

travels to the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

118
Q

Why was synthetic EPO originally produced ?

A

Patients with certain type of anemia

119
Q

What is the risk of using EPO with a normal RBC Count?

A

blood can thicken to dangerously high levels and lead to possible cardiac problem and death.

120
Q

What hormone are anabolic steroids the synthetic form of ?

A

Testosterone

121
Q

Anabolic steroids were developed to try to separate the ___ effect of the hormone from its ___ effect

A

anabolic; androgenic

122
Q

what refers to the situation of protein synthesis and thus induction of growth?

A

anabolic

123
Q

What refers to the development of secondary sexual characteristics ?

A

Androgenic

124
Q

The designer anabolic steroid would have minimal ___ effect and more ___ effect.

A

Androgenic; anabolic

125
Q

In its natural form, testosterone is rapidly metabolized and cleared from the liver, but the synthetic forms have been designed to what?

A

Prevent metabolic degradation, thus prolonging or enhancing its effect on the tissue.

126
Q

What kind of anabolic steroid is usually injected but has fewer side effects and a longer lasting detectability?

A

oil based.

127
Q

What kind of anabolic steroid is usually taken in pill form, but has more side effects and cleared form the system within 3-4 weeks

A

Water based

128
Q

What is the term used when the user take both oil and water based anabolic steroids ?

A

Staking

129
Q

What is a procedure where the user start with a low dosage, raises to peak, and then begins to taper down the amount being taken

A

Pyramiding

130
Q

How long are typical anabolic steroid cycles ?

A

6-8 weeks

131
Q

What are the short term side effects of anabolic steroids

A

headaches, dizziness and nausea

acne, especially on the back

shrinkage of the testicles

increased aggressiveness

Gynecomastia

tendon damage.

132
Q

What ae the long term side effects of anabolic steroids ?

A

cardiovascular problems (heart)

Reproductive system problem (prostate)

Endocrine system problems

133
Q

What are the short term side effects for females using anabolic steroids

A

increase in size of clitoris

Decrease in the size of mammary glands
development pf facial hair
Deeping of the voice and tendon damage.

134
Q

What happens when adolescents take anabolic steroids?

A

premature closing of the growth plates, which leads to shortened statue among other problems.

a

135
Q

How do anabolic steroids physiologically work?

A

increase secretion of growth hormone.

Activates protein synthesis and prevent protein breakdown.

136
Q

What are the legitimate reason that a physician would prescribe the use of anabolic steroid?

A

restore hormonal levels in males with low testosterone levels, improve mood and alleviate depression, and patients who are chronically ill and become debilated by a lack of appetite ( enhance appetite and increases body weight and muscle mass.

137
Q

What is the chemical composition of muscle

A

70% water
20 % protein
5% other
(30% of protein is in the eye)

138
Q

What is the nerve supply of skeletal muscle?

A

each muscle is provided with a motor nerve fiber and a sensory nerve fiber.

139
Q

How do nerve fiber enter and leave a muscle

A

connective tissue components of the muscle.

140
Q

Motor nerves transmit ____/___ impulses from the ____ to each individual ____ ___, the results of which is a motor response

A

Efferent ; motor; CNS ; Muscle Fiber; contraction

141
Q

What will never happen when a muscle is functioning normally ?

A

individual muscle fiber will never contract independently.

142
Q

_____muscle fiber will contract at the same moment all being supplied by branches of spinal____ nerve fier

A

Several; one; motor

143
Q

what does a motor unit consist of?

A

single motor neuron and the group of muscles fibers

144
Q

What is the smallest part of the muscle which can contract independently?

A

motor unit

145
Q

What does the strength of a muscle contraction depend on ?

A

The number of motor units being activated or recruited at the same time.

146
Q

Muscles that carry out precision type of activities placing finger tips together movement of the eye, contain a motor unit with ___ number of fiber

A

fewer

147
Q

How many motor fibers do muscles that carry out non- precision type of activities (i.e. locomotion) have?

A

Thousands.

148
Q

(TQ) Where does the motor unit originate?

A

Ventral ( anterior) horn of the Grey matter of the spinal cord or brain stem (CNS)

149
Q

Where is the terminal end of the motor unit

A

sarcolemma of the muscle fibers

150
Q

What are the three portion of the neuro muscular junction?

A

Presynaptic portion

Postsynaptic portion
and synaptic cleft.

151
Q

(TQ) What part of neuron junction is the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber?

A

Postsynaptic portion

152
Q

What part of the neuromuscular junction is the space between the pre and post synaptic portions

A

Synaptic cleft.

153
Q

What neurotransmitter chemical is released when a nerve impulse reaches the presynaptic portion of the neuromuscular junction?

A

Acetylcholine (ACH)

154
Q

(TQ) ACH will ____ across the ___ ___, where it will bind to very specific receptor sites on the ____ of the muscle fiber.

A

diffuse; synaptic cleft; sarcolemma of the muscle fibers

155
Q

What does ACH binding to sarcolemma results in?

A

Setting of action potential, down the transverse tubules, which leads to an interaction between actin and myosin ( muscle Contraction)

156
Q

What is the enzyme that breaks down ACH

A

Acetylcholinesterase (ACHe)

157
Q

What does ACHe Break down ACH into

A

Acetate and choline

158
Q

What is the most common neuromuscular junction disorder ?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

159
Q

With a autoimmune disorder like myasthenia Gravis, the body immune system produces abnormal____, which damages and destroys the ___ site on the ___ of the muscle fibers.

A

antibodies; receptor; sarcolemma.

160
Q

Is myasthenia Gravis Genetic or contagious

A

no and no

161
Q

What is almost always the first muscles affected by myasthenia gravis.

A

Muscles supplies by the cranial nerves( Muscles of the eye and face) and in many cases will progress to muscle of the extremities.

162
Q

What is a common condition associated with myasthenia Gravis?

A

hyperplasia of the thymus gland (thymoma)

163
Q

What is the condition where pregnant women suffering from myasthenia gravis has about a 25% chance of having her infant born with this condition?

A

Transitional neonate

Myasthenia Gravis

164
Q

What is an example of a drug that is able to compete with ACH molecules in binding to the ACH receptor sites?

A

Nicotine

165
Q

(TQ) What is the difference between nicotine and ACH action potentials

A

Its actions are much more prolonged than ACH

166
Q

(TQ)What are the two types of toxins that snake venom contain?

A

Cytotoxins and neurotoxins

167
Q

(TQ) What do snake venom’s neurotoxins prevent?

A

Prevent ACH from binding to ACH receptor sites.

168
Q

(TQ) Does snake venom cause an action potential ?

A

no

169
Q

(TQ) What are parathion and malathion both examples of ?

A

Organophosphate

170
Q

(TQ)What are able to inactivate ACHe

A

organophosphate

171
Q

(TQ)What does organophosphate effect on the postsynaptic portion of the neuro muscular junction.

A

ACH can no longer be rapidity degraded resulting in an accumulation of ACH at the Postsynaptic portion of the Junction.

172
Q

(TQ)What is the bacteria that produce the botulin toxin resulting in botulism

A

Clostridium botulinum

173
Q

(TQ) How does botulin Toxin affect the neuromuscular junction?

A

Release of ACH from the presynaptic portion of the neuromuscular junction.

174
Q

What is the first muscles to be affected by botulism?

A

Muscles supplied by the cranial nerves, but it can progress to affect limb and respiratory muscles.

175
Q

All movements require the _____ of several muscles, each of which must contract at exactly the proper ___ with exactly the proper___ if the movement is to be —____ and ____

A

Coordination; moment; force ; smooth coordinated

176
Q

Other than Coordination of muscle function, sensory nerve fibers are also involved with ____ and ____

A

Pain; proprioception

177
Q

What are the specialized muscle fibers contained within the muscle spindle ?

A

Intrafusal muscle fibers

178
Q

What are the muscle fibers found outside of the muscle spindle ?

A

Extrafusal muscle fiber

179
Q

(TQ) What type of muscle fibers have both efferent and afferent nerve fiber associated with them ?

A

Intrafusal Muscle fibers

180
Q

What type of nerve fibers are associated with extrafusal muscle fibers?

A

Efferent nerve fibers

181
Q

What do muscle spindles had their intrafusal muscle fiber detect in a muscle

A

Stretch

182
Q

What is located in tendons and detects the stretch of the tendon, which triggers a reflex to inhibit muscle contraction and thus avoid injury to the muscles and its tendons. ? avoid

A

Golgi Tendon organ

183
Q

What is the end of the muscle which attaches to the more or less stationary part of the skeleton?

A

origin

184
Q

What is the end of the muscle attached to the portion of the skeleton which moves when the muscle contracts?

A

insertion

185
Q

What is the term for the flesh ( muscle fiber portion ) of the muscle which is surrounded by the epimysium?

A

Belly

186
Q

What is defined as the load necessary to rupture a given material when pulled in the direction of its length

A

Tensile Strength

187
Q

The___ of Collagen fiber of the tendon give muscles an important physical characteristic,___ ____

A

arrangement, Tensile strength.

188
Q

What allows muscles to withstand considerable amounts of pressure.

A

Tensile strength

189
Q

What is a thickened band deep fasica which is found at joint and function to bind down tendons and nerves that cross the joint.

A

Retinaculum

190
Q

What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where the fibers run
approximately the whole length of the muscle parallel to the long axis.

A

Parallel/ Strap

191
Q

What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where fibers run oblique to the long axis of the muscle?

A

Pennate

192
Q

What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where the tendon lies along one side of the muscle and the fibers pass obliquely to the tendon?

A

unipennate

193
Q

What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where the tendons lies in the center of the muscle and fiber pass to it from each side?

A

bipennate

194
Q

What type of fiber arrangement would a muscle built for endurance ( Type 1) have ?

A

Shorter, more numerous fiber in a pennate arrangement

195
Q

What type of fiber arraignment would a muscle built for power (type 2 ) have

A

longer, less numerous fiber in a parallel arrangement

196
Q

What are all movements are results of

A

Coordinated action of many muscles

197
Q

What are the muscles which are most responsible for carrying out a particular movement ?

A

Prime mover/Agonist

198
Q

What are the muscles that assist the prime mover(s) in performing the action by giving more force for a movement, Stabilizing a joint which the mover(s) pass over but do not move or keep the bone of origin of the mover(s) steady ?

A

Synergists (sometime Fixator)

199
Q

(TQ) What is the name for when a muscle contracts its antagonist automatically relaxes ?

A

Reciprocal Innervation.

200
Q

(TQ) What is the term for a new born baby (especially a premature infant), when both agonist and antagonists contract at the same time

A

Co-Reflex Phenomenon

201
Q

Define Atrophy

A

To become smaller and weaker

202
Q

(TQ) What kind of pathology is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis an example of ?

A

Pathology of the central nervous system.

203
Q

(TQ) What kind of pathology is Gillian- barre syndrome and example of ?

A

Pathology of the peripheral nervous system.

204
Q

(TQ) What kind of pathology is myasthenia Gravis Example of?

A

Pathology to the neuromuscular junction

205
Q

(TQ) What kind of pathology is muscular dystrophy an example of ?

A

Pathology to the individual muscle fibers

206
Q

Prolonged ____ of the joint or chronic joint disorder ( i.e Arthritis) can cause____ .

A

Immobilization; joint disorder.

207
Q

(TQ) What are undifferentiated myoblasts on skeletal muscle s

A

Satellite cells

208
Q

(TQ) What regenerates injured muscle fiber

A

Satellite cells

209
Q

(TQ) Where are satellite cells found

A

In the space between the endomysium and the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber.

210
Q

What condition prevents cells from replacing damages muscle fiber

A

Muscular dystrophy

211
Q

What does the shoulder gridle consist of ?

A

Scapula and clavicle

212
Q

What does the free limb consist of

A

arm forearm and hand

213
Q

How deep is the clavicle

A

Subcutaneous through its length and easily palpable

214
Q

What us superior to the medial third of the clavicle

A

supraclavicular fossa

215
Q

What is inferior to the lateral third of the clavicle

A

Infraclavicular fossa

216
Q

In females the Clavicle is generally_____ _____ ______ curved and _____ than in males

A

Shorter, thinner, less, smoother

217
Q

How can the clavicle become thicker, more curved, and its features more prominent

A

Manual labor or upper body workouts.

218
Q

When is the clavicle present in vertebrae’s?

A

Those that use their “hand manual dexterity

219
Q

The clavicle is a_____ bone between the____ and _____ skeleton and shows characteristics of both

A

Transitional; axial ; appendicular

220
Q

What are the main function of the clavicle ?

A

transmit forces from the upper extremity to the axial skeleton and acts as a brace, holding the arm free from the trunk.

221
Q

What bone transmits forces from the upper extremity to the axial skeleton

A

Clavicle

222
Q

What bone acts as a brace holing the arm free from the trunk?

A

Clavicle

223
Q

What is the process of which the embryonic connective tissue is replaced by the bone cells ?

A

Ossification

224
Q

what are the two types of ossification?

A

Intermembranes and endochondral

225
Q

What type of ossification is when the bone cells replace a primitive type of connective tissue known as a mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous

226
Q

What type of ossification is when the bone cells replace a very well developed type of connective tissue known a hyaline cartilage ?

A

endochondral ossification

227
Q

what is the first bone to undergo ossification in the fetus (round the 5th or 6th week of development?)

A

Clavicle

228
Q

How many primary ossification centers does the clavicle have and what type of ossification do they undergo ?

A

two primary ossification centers (most bone only have one)

and they undergo intramembranous ossification ( majority of ossification)

229
Q

How many secondary ossification center does the clavicle have, and what type of ossification do they undergo ?

A

One ( which occurs around 17 years of age neat the sternal end of the bone) and they undergo endochondral ossification.

230
Q

What is one of the last bones to complete ossification the secondary ossification fusing at about 25 years of age.

A

Clavicle

231
Q

What is one of the most frequently fractured bones in the body ?

A

Clavicle

232
Q

Where do fracture normally occur on the clavicle ?

A

area if the first curvature, which is the weakest part of the bone.

233
Q

does a fracture of the clavicle result in a dislocation of the acromioclavicular or sternoclavicular joints ?

A

no

234
Q

What are the fractures usually a result of

A

indirect forces on the shoulder that are greater than the strength of the bone.

235
Q

what is a risk with clavicle fracture ?

A

If it is significant enough is could compromise the neurovascular structure in the area or even puncture a lung.

236
Q

what is a problem with broad shouldered infants

A

fracture of the clavicle from birthing process, however the bones usually heal rather quickly with no apparent problems

Gross Anatomy (14 decks)

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