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Bacteriology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Taxonomy

A

a system that is applied to all living organisms to classify them based on their phenotype or genotype

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2
Q

Define Epigenetic

A

variations in gene expression not caused by nucleic acid sequence similarities or differences, using chemotaxonomic methods

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3
Q

Define Classification

A

a method for organizing microorganisms into groups or taxa based on similar morphologic, physiologic and genetic traits

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4
Q

chemotaxonomic

A

proteins, lipids, cell wall, and biochemical analysis

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5
Q

What is the Gold standard for classifying bacteria?

A

The “gold standard” for classification of bacterial species has historically been based on deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) using 16S rRNA (ribosomal subunit is unique to organisms down to species)

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6
Q

Name the hierarchy of Taxonomic classification

A 
Domains (Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya)
Kingdom 
Phylum 
Class 
Order
Family 
Genus 
Species
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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a correct use of the binomial nomenclature (two named) system? (Select all that apply.)
    a. Staphylococcus Aureus
    b. S. aureus
    c. Staphylococcus aureus (is in italics)
A

A

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8
Q

What spectrometry method is useful for ID of bacteria

A

MALDI-TOF

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9
Q

What is virulence

A

what tools the pathogen has to colonize and destroy cells

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10
Q

What makes bacteria more efficient than us?

A

They can have transcription and translation occurring at the same time

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11
Q

What is the disadvantage bacteria have in their cell structure

A

They do not have organelles so they need to balance their resources carefully

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12
Q

What do bacteria have instead of a nucleus

A

a nucleoid-DNA bunched up together

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13
Q

Where is it possible to find genes in a bacteria

A

can be in chromosomes or on plasmids and transposable elements

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14
Q

What is different about the extrachromosomal elements in bacteria

A

they can incorporate into the host genome or replicate independently, refers to chromosomes outside of nucleoid

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15
Q

What structure do bacteria have in their extrachromosomal DNA

A

double-stranded, closed and circular

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16
Q

What are transposable elements in bacteria

A

pieces of DNA that can move from one genetic element to another like from plasmid to chromosome. they cannot replicate independently

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17
Q

What type of transposable elements are present in bacteria?

A

simple- insertion sequence

composite- complex transposon

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18
Q

How do bacteria multiply

A

binary fission

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19
Q

What is special about bacterial mRNA

A

it is polycistronic-one transcript of mRNA can be used to make many genes

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20
Q

What products come from bacterial transcription?

A

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, ncRNA (regulatory non coding)

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21
Q

What kind of ribosome do bacteria have?

A

16S

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22
Q

bacteria have anabolic enzymes that _____ genes, which are ____ when the gene’s final product is ___, turning off the pathway to continue to produce that product

A

they have anabolic enzymes that repress genes, which are increased when the gene’s final product is abundant, turning off the pathway to continue to produce that product

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23
Q

when the degraded substrate of a catabolic enzyme is present, these enzymes are _____.
If the substrate is ____- they are repressed
they are ______ enzymes that beak things down

A

when the degraded substrate of a catabolic enzyme is present, these enzymes are induced.
If the substrate is absent- they are repressed
they are degradative enzymes that beak things down

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24
Q

Describe bacterial replication

A

bidirectional, circular, origin and 2 replication forks

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25
Q

What are the 3 types of bacterial horizontal transfer

A

transformation, transduction, conjugation

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26
Q

What is the difference between horizontal gene transfer and vertical gene transfer

A

horizontal-friends and neighbors

vertical-offspring

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27
Q

What is transformation gene transfer

A

a cell takes up free (naked) DNA from a dead bacterial cell

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28
Q

What is transductional gene transfer

A

transfer of genetic info through viruses (bacteriophages) that inject DNA from one into the other bacteria

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29
Q

What is conjugation gene transfer

A

transfer of genetic info through sex pili of a plasmid or a chromosome

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30
Q

The lac operon is an example of what kind of enzyme system?

A

Catabolic

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31
Q

How is polycistronic mRNA regulated in bacteria?

A

an operon based promoter

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32
Q

At what stages does gene regulation occur in bacteria?

A

all 3 transcriptional, translational and post translational

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33
Q

What type of transfer is occurring if an F+ donor cell gives genetic info to an F- recipient cell

A

conjugation

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34
Q

What is the most common way bacteria transport things across their membranes

A

active transport-moving things against the concentration gradient

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35
Q

What is the “best” method of ATP production for bacteria

A

substrate level phosphorylation because the energy is derived exothermically with O2

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36
Q

What are the two general mechanisms for ATP production in bacteria

A

substrate level phosphorylation

oxidative phosphorylation

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37
Q

Briefly describe substrate level phosphorylation

A

exothermic metabolism- energy made by production of high energy phosphate bonds produced by the energy pathways

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38
Q

What is the initial substrate in the substrate level phosphorylation pathway

A

pyruvate

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39
Q

What method do bacteria use to produce ATP when in non-oxygen environments

A

fermentative metabolism, also produce alcohols, acids, CO2 and H

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40
Q

Briefly describe oxidative phosphorylation

A

the ETC produces oxidation-reduction reactions to generate ATP

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41
Q

When is oxidative phosphorylation an anaerobic process? When is it aerobic?

A

anaerobic- when O2 is the terminal electron acceptor in the ETC
aerobic- When some other mol is used as the final electron acceptor, no O2

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42
Q

Explain
Strictly aerobic-
facultative anaerobic-
strictly anaerobic-

A

Strictly aerobic- must have O2
facultative anaerobic- with out without O2
strictly anaerobic- O2 kills them

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43
Q

What type of respiration do most of the illness causing bacteria use

A

facultative anaerobic

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44
Q

What are the differences between the cell walls of eukaryotes vs prokaryotes

A

eukaryote- cytoskeleton

prokaryotes-peptidoglycan

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45
Q

What color is the gram negative stain? the gram positive?

A

+ purple

- red

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46
Q

Which Gram bacteria have the thicker cell wall? which ones have the thinner one?

A

gram + thicker

gram - thinner

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47
Q

Which gram bacteria have a periplasmic space?

A

gram negative

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48
Q

Which gram bacteria have an inner and outer membrane?`

A

thin

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49
Q

Which gram bacteria have lipopolysaccharide porins (lipid A) in their cell walls?

A

gram -

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50
Q

What is the purpose of an outer and inner membrane?

A

for controlling permeability

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51
Q

What is the purpose of porins in a bacterial cell wall?

A

allow nutrients and solutes to pass through the outer membrane
this includes being able to take up antibiotics

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall

A

gives it shape, strength ability to withstand osmotic pressure

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53
Q

What is the main target in antimicrobial agents and drugs

A

peptidoglycan because it is essential for the survival of bacteria

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54
Q

Describe what peptidoglycan is made of?

A

NAG- N acetylglucosamine
NAM-N acetylmuramic acid
linked together by 4 AAs that end in Ala

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55
Q

What other materials could bacteria have in their cell wall? What are these types of bacteria called/

A

no cell wall- mycoplasma or ureaplasma

mycolic acid-mycobacteria

56
Q

What molecules are in gram positive cell walls and not in gram negative?

A

teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids

57
Q

What virulence advantages do mycobacteria have?

A

the mycolic acids in their cell wall refract toxic substances like acids, they are much harder to stain and grow in vitro

58
Q

What is the really important bacteria that belongs to the mycobacteria group?

A

tuberculosis

59
Q

Put the following structures in order for gram ____ bacteria

  • inner membrane
  • outer membrane
  • periplasmic space
  • inside of bacteria
  • outside of bacteria
  • lipopolysaccharide porins
  • capsule
  • murein layer
A 
outside of bacteria
capsule
outer membrane- lipopolysaccharide porins
periplasmic space-murein layer
inner membrane
inside of bacteria

Gram negative

60
Q

What is murein?

A

a layer in the periplasmic space that helps take in nutrients

61
Q

Which gram bacteria tends to be more resistant to antibiotics? Why?

A

Gram negative because they can control what fluids and proteins enter and exit their cell wall, they can pump antibiotics right back out with all of their extra fancy channels

62
Q

What other name does the inner membrane have? Which gram bacteria has it?

A

cytoplasmic- both

63
Q

What are the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane

A

transport of solutes
enzymes that help with synthesis of wall, membrane and assemple secretion substances
generation of ATP
cell motility

64
Q

Which parts of the plasma membrane are hydrophobic? which ones are hydrophilic? polar? non polar?

A

polar-hydrophilic- outside

non polar-hydrophobic-inside

65
Q

Where is the capsule in gram positive bacteria? gram negative?

A

gram + right before the murein layer

gram- right before the outer membrane

66
Q

Put the following structures in order for gram ____ bacteria

cytoplasmic membrane
murein layer
capsule
inside of bacteria
outside of bacteria
A 
outside of bacteria
capsule
murein layer
cytoplasmic membrane
inside of bacteria

Gram positive

67
Q

What are bacterial capsules made of

A

high molecular weight polysaccharides

68
Q

What is the purpose of a bacterial capsule, what doesn’t it do?

A

Does
increases pathogenicity
protects bacteria from immune sys

Does not
increase strength
help with` permeability

69
Q

What is a slime layer/ biofilm?

A

a type of capsule made of a biochemical matrix that stabilizes, and protects against biocides and the immune system

70
Q

What type of bacterial groups have slime layers?

A

monomicrobic or polymicrobic

71
Q

What bacteria have sex pili?

A

only the ones that produce a protein call F factor

72
Q

What are flagella made of?

A

flagellin

73
Q

Ideally, most specimens should be transported to the lab within how many hours of collection?

A

2 hrs

74
Q

During what phase of a patient’s illness should a specimen be colleced?

A

during the acute phase-
2 to 3 days for viruses
before any antimicrobial, antiviral or antifungal medication is used

75
Q

What is the best choice for specimen collection, put in order from best to worst
cotton swaps
needle aspirates
wooden swabs

A

needle aspirates-best
cotton swab
wooden swab-worst

76
Q

What organism is susceptible to changes in temperature

A

Neisseria meningitidis

77
Q

What organism is susceptible to changes in pH

A

Shigella

78
Q

What preservatives are used for
urine
stool

A

urine-boric acid

stool- PVA and buffered formalin

79
Q

What type of preservatives are used as anticoagulants for organisms like Neisseria and anaerobic bacteria?

A

sodium polyanethol sulfonate- SPS 0.025%

in blood cultures

80
Q

What kind of preservative is used as an anticoagulant for viral cultures

A

Heparin

81
Q

What kind of preservative CANNOT be used as an anticoagulant

A

EDTA

82
Q

What temperature should urine, stool, viral specimen, sputa, swabs and foreign devices like catheters be stored at?

A

4C

83
Q

What temperature should serum and tissues be stored at

A

frozen at 20C

84
Q

What extra information might be listed on a micro specimen label or requisition?

A

nature and source of specimen

any current antimicrobial therapy

85
Q

True or False: Preparation may vary of the sample comes from a superficial, vs deep part of an abcess

A

True- if superficial, normal microbiota must be accounted for

86
Q

What are blood culture sets like? Colors?

A

they come in a set of two bottles
blue-aerobic
purple-anaerobic

87
Q

When do samples get a direct gram stain?

A

positive blood cultures, also need to call in results

Sterile body fluids

88
Q

When is a specimen NEVER a direct gram stain

A

urine or stool, throat, nasopharyngeal specimen because there would be too much normal microbiota

89
Q

Describe what nutritive media is for

A

grows a wide range of non-fastidious organisms, non selective

90
Q

Describe what Blood agar is for

A

nutritive and
differential based on hemolysis
fastidious organisms cannot grow here

91
Q

What are the possible results of a blood agar culture and what do they mean

A

alpha- visible hemolysis- green
beta-cells are destroyed entirely, can see through the plate, clear
gamma- hemolytic (still red from plate, no hemolysis)

92
Q

Describe what MacConkey Agar is for

A

selective- inhibits gram positive
Allows gram negative to grow

differential-lactose fermentation
positive for fermentation-pink
negative for fermentation-clear

93
Q

Describe what chocolate agar is for

A

Enrichment media for fastidious organisms

94
Q

What organisms can grow on chocolate agar

A

haemophilus species, good for organisms in sterile body sites

95
Q

Explain what backup broth is for

A

supplemental or enrichment broth, allows a low number of organisms to grow
good for anaerobes
damaged organisms

96
Q

What are the 3 common backup broths

A

thio
BHIB
TSB

97
Q

Explain what specialty agars and media are for

A

colorful special medias usually for yeast or bacteria with special plasmids or for antibiotic resistant bacteria

98
Q

What are the 2 big antibiotically resistant bacteria

A

MRSA- methicillin resistant staph aureus

VRE- Vancomycin resistant enterococci

99
Q

What organisms are lactose fermenters

A

E. coli, Klebsiella, enterobacter, citrobacter

100
Q

What organisms are non lactose fermenters

A

pseudomonas

101
Q

What is homogenization

A

grinding of bone, mincing of tissue, into a solution that can be plated

102
Q

What is centrifugation

A

concentrating a sample with high volume

103
Q

How is streaking for isolation used to quantify results?

A

can be 1+ to 4+, depending on which quadrant was the last to show growth,

104
Q

What % of O2 do aerobes need? what else do they need?

A

21% O2

0.03% CO2

105
Q

What % O2 do obligate anaerobes need? what other things do they need?

A

0% O2
some H
5-10% CO2
80-90% Nitrogen

106
Q

What O2% do capnophlies need? what else do they need?

A

5-10% CO2

15% O2

107
Q

What O2% do microaerophiles need? What else do they need?

A

O2 5-10%

CO2-8-10%

108
Q

How are bioterrorist agents classified?

A

Category A, B and C,

A are highest risk

109
Q

What category is an organism that: Easily disseminated or transmitted from person to person with high mortality rates, and may cause widespread public panic

A

Category A

110
Q

What category organisms: are moderately easy to disseminate and have moderate to low mortality rates, and less likely to cause public panic

A

Category B

111
Q

What category organisms contain emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass spread in the future

A

Category C

112
Q

What are the 6 category A organisms

A 
Anthrax- bacillus anthracis
botulism-clostridium botulinum 
plague- yersinia pestis
tularemia
viral hemorrhagic fever
113
Q

Brucellosis, Glanders, Typhus fever and food or water safety threats are examples of bioterrorist agents in what category

A

B

114
Q

Emerging infectious diseases like Nipah virus and hentavirus are from what bioterrorist category

A

C

115
Q

All of the following are differential media except:

a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. MacConkey’s agar
d. Eosin methylene blue agar

A

b. Chocolate agar

116
Q

Selective media contains…

A

Contain dyes or antibiotics to suppress the growth of some organisms

117
Q
  1. Specimens may include all of the following except:
    a. Sputum
    b. Tissue biopsy
    c. Vacutainer needle
    d. Rectal swab
A

c. Vacutainer needle

118
Q

True or False: Nutritive media supports the growth of all organisms.

A

False

119
Q

True or False-A requisition should include the patient’s name, hospital ID, birth date, specimen source, and collection date/time.

A

True

120
Q

True or False: EDTA is commonly used to collect blood for specimens in the microbiology laboratory.

A

False

121
Q

True or False The majority of microbiologic specimens should be set up within 2 hours of collection.

A

True

122
Q

T or F Serum samples may be stored frozen for up to 1 week.

A

True

123
Q

SPS is…

A

a blood culture system

124
Q

fastidious organisms require…

A

enrichment

125
Q

MacConkey Agar is…
Selective
Differential
Non selective

A

Selective

126
Q

A gram negative broth

A

chocolate agar

127
Q

a positive CSF is

A

a critical value

128
Q

Blood agar is…
Selective
Differential
non selective

A

differential

129
Q

Phenotypic or Genotypic? Color of growth on artificial media

A

phenotypic

130
Q

phenotypic (P) or a genotypic (G) The presence of an antibiotic-resistance via DNA sequences

A

Genotypic

131
Q

Phenotypic or genotypicThe shape of the bacterial cell

A

Phenotypic

132
Q

Phenotypic or genotypic: The arrangement of the bacterial cells on a microscope slide

A

Phenotypic

133
Q

The ability of the organism to ferment lactose on MAC. Phenotypic or genotypic

A

phenotypic

134
Q

Mass spectrometry is a technique used to separate and identify the spectrum of proteins and peptides that are expressed by microorganisms after the colony morphology and phenotypical characteristics of the bacteria have been evaluated. This method is considered a ________method for the characterization and classification of organisms

A

chemotaxonomic

135
Q
  1. The periplasmic space is required for:
A

b. Collection and enzymatic degradation of nutrients in gram-negative bacteria

Bacteriology (10 decks)

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