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Microbiology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What two things are needed to become an infection?

A

Growth and multiplication of a parasite

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2
Q

4 features that create areas that are difficult to clean

A
  1. shape and topography of teeth
  2. misalignment of teeth
  3. poor quality of restorations
  4. non-keratinized sulcular epithelium
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3
Q

What is the main phagocyte of gingival crevicular fluid?

A

neutrophils

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4
Q

What is the absolute requirement for all living organisms?

A

membrane

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5
Q

number of lipids compared to number of proteins in the plasma membrane?

A

more lipids than proteins

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6
Q

mass of lipids compared to mass of protein in plasma membranes

A

about the same

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7
Q

What is the bacterial version of cholesterol?

A

hopanoid (bacteriohopanetetrol)

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8
Q

What are inclusion bodies?

A

granules of organic or inorganic material stockpiles by cell for future use

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9
Q

Eukaryotic vs prokaryotic ribosomes

A

Eukaryotic: 80s
Prokaryotic: 70s

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10
Q

Ribosomes are made of…

A

protein and RNA

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11
Q

Is the prokaryotic chromosome single or double stranded? What aids in folding?

A

double stranded (one circular loop) (chromosome structure can vary

nucleoid proteins

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12
Q

The cell wall protects the cell from…

A
  • osmotic lysis

- some toxic substances

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13
Q

Gram + vs Gram -

A

(+): purple, thick peptidoglycan layer

(-): pink, membrane -> thin peptidoglycan layer->membrane

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14
Q

What is in the periplasmic space of gram negative cells?

A

enzymes (nutrients, e- trans, peptidoglycan synth, modify toxins)

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15
Q

Why do gram positive bacteria secrete enzymes?

A

lack periplasmic space (same functions as neg)

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16
Q

What sugar group is linked to peptides in the peptidoglycan structure?

A

NAM (N-acetylglucosamine)

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17
Q

How does the cross linking in peptidoglycan layers of gram positive vs gram negative differ?

A

Positive: pentaglycine interbridge
Negative: direct link between D-Ala and DAP

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18
Q

Pentaglycine interbridge means what kind of bacteria?

A

gram positive

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19
Q

direct link between D-Ala and DAP means what kind of bacteria?

A

gram negative

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20
Q

Other main component of cell wall other than peptidoglycans?

A

Teichoic acids

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21
Q

Describe the structure of teichoic acids

A

alternating chain or glycerol/ribitol and posphate groups

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22
Q

What are gram negative cell walls lacking?

A

teichoic acids

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23
Q

What are the three parts of lipopolysaccharides in gram negative outer membranes?

A
  1. Lipid A: anchor in membrane
  2. Core Polysaccharide: heptose or keto-deoxyoctogenic acid
  3. O side chain (polysaccharide): antigen visible to immune system
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24
Q

What part of the LPS contributes to the negative charge of the cell surface?

A

Core Polysaccharide

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25
Q

What part of the LPS can act as an endotoxin?

A

Lipid A

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26
Q

What size molecules can pass through porin proteins in the outer membrane of gram - cells?

A

600-700 daltons

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27
Q

What is the function of fimbriae and how many are there?

A

mediate attachment to surfaces, and up to 1000/cell

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28
Q

Flagella are anchored in what parts of gram + and - cells?

A

Plasma membrane (gram + also have anchor in peptidoglycan and outer membrane)

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29
Q

What forms lysosomes?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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30
Q

What face of the golgi is associated with the ER?

A

The cis (forming) face

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31
Q

Pro vs Euk:

DNA complexed with histones?

A

Pro: no
Euk: yes

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32
Q

Pro vs Euk:

Presence of flagella?

A

Pro: submicroscopic, one fiber

Euk: microscopic, 20 microtubules

33
Q

Pro vs Euk:

Peptidoglycan in cell walls?

A

Pro: chemically complex with peptidoglycan

Euk: chemically similar and lacking peptidoglycan

34
Q

Pro vs Euk:

Size of Ribosome

A

Pro: 70s

Euk: 80s

35
Q

What are the macoelements?

A

C, O, N, H, S, P

K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Fe2+

36
Q

What are the trace elements?

A

Mn, Zn, Co, Mb, Ni, Cu (mainly act as cofactors for enzymes

37
Q

Lithotrophs vs organotrophs

A

Lithotrophs: reduced inorganic molecules needed as electron donors

Organotrophs: need organic molecules as electron donors

38
Q

Autotrophs vs Heterotrophs

A

Autotrophs: CO2 as main source of carbon
Heterotrophs: reduced, preformed organic molecules

39
Q

What nutritional classification are ALL pathogens?

A

Chemoorganotrophic heterotrophy

40
Q

3 ways organisms are classified based on nutrient requirements

A

Source of Energy: photo/chemo trophs

Source of Reducing Equivalents: litho/organo trophs

Source of Carbon: auto/hetero trophs

41
Q

What is the most medically relevant bacteria? What is special about them?

A

Facultative anaerobes: can perform respiration and fermentation

42
Q

What are the 4 gram positive bacteria of the mouth?

Cocci/rod? Strict or Facultative anearobes?

A
  1. Streptococcus spp.: cocci, facult anaer
  2. Peptostreptococcus spp.: cocci, strict anaer
  3. Actinomyces spp.: rods, strict/facult anaer
  4. Lactobacillus spp.: rods, facult anear
43
Q

What are the 7 gram negative. bacteria of the mouth? Cocci/rods/spirals? Strict anaerobes or capnophilic?

A
  1. Veillonella: cocci, st an
  2. Aggregatibacter: rods, capnophilic
  3. Capnocytophaga: rods, capnophilic
  4. Prophyromonas: rods, st an
  5. Prevotella: rods, st an
  6. Fusobacterium: rods, st an
  7. Spirochetes: spirals, st an
44
Q

What two nutrient uptake mechanisms can become saturated?

A
  • Ion-driven transport systems

- Binding protein dependent transport systems

45
Q

What are siderophores?

A

chemical complexes that bind to nutrients to aid in cellular uptake from the environment.
Ex. Ferrichrome or enterobactin for Fe3+ uptake

46
Q

Example of bacteria that can grow on many different mediums?

A

E. coli or pseudomonas

47
Q

Two examples of nutritionally fastidious bacteria?

A

Staphylococci or streptococci

48
Q

Example of an obligate intracellular parasitic bacteria?

A

Chlamydia

49
Q

What ways can enzymatic activity be controlled?

A
  • allosteric regulation

- regulation of enzyme synthesis

50
Q

How do effector molecules act?

A
  1. change affinity of enzyme for substrate

2. change Vmax

51
Q

Attenuation relies no the fact that in prokaryotes, __________ and _________ occur at the same time.

A

-transcription and translation

52
Q

What stalls in the absence of leucine and then causes transcription to stop?

A

-the translation ribosome stalls in the absence of leucine, causing the DNA to base pair with itself which activates the terminator region, stopping production of mRNA.

53
Q

What pathway is commonly linked to a repressor and an inducer?

A

Catabolic pathways (automatically off unless activated/induced)

54
Q

What pathway is commonly linked to an inactive repressor and co repressor?

A

Anabolic pathways (growth is good unless we want it to turn off)

55
Q

What is stopping transcription in catabolic pathway regulation?
What can start it?

A
  • a repressor protein binding the O region of a gene (I gene -> lac repressor prot)
  • an inducer that binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it so it cannot bind to the O region (allolactose)

We don’t need galactosidase enzyme to break down lactose if there is no lactose present. When lactose (or allolactose) is present, it will inactivate the lac repressor protein and induce transcription of the galactosidase gene.

56
Q

Explain gene regulation by corepressors.

A
  • inactive repressor is transcribed before it’s associated gene
  • RNA polymerase is free to continue to transcribe the gene if no repression occurs.
  • If a corepressor is present, it will bind to the inactive repressor and activate it.
  • repressor/corepressor bind to O regulatory region and inhibit transcription of the gene.
57
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

Antibiotics: ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose

58
Q

What are the three factors influencing the effectiveness of antimicrobial agents?

A
  1. Ability of drug to reach site of infection
  2. Ability of drug to reach conc in body that exceed the MIC of the pathogen
  3. Susceptibility of pathogen to drug
59
Q

Beta-lactams, glycopeptides, polypeptides, etc all affect what part of pathogens?

A

Disrupt the bacterial cell wall

60
Q

What are the four main mechanisms of antibiotic action?

A
  1. Disruption of bacterial cell wall.
  2. Inhibition of protein synthesis.
  3. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
  4. Antimetabolites.
61
Q

What makes up the two parts of the prokaryotic ribosome?

A

30s: 16s rRNA + 20 proteins
50s: 23s and 5s rRNA + 30 proteins

62
Q

During what phase are tRNAs transferred to the ribosomal A site by EF-Tu?

A

Elongation phase

63
Q

What is it?

-can promote their own transfer by conjugation

A

plasmids

64
Q

What is it?

-can package non-phage DNA

A

transduction (transfer of non-page DNA through a bacteriophage)

65
Q

What is it?

-hopping of genes into other genetic elements

A

-transposons

66
Q

What is it?

-segments of DNA containing complete sets of genes found on plasmids, transposons, and bacterial chromosomes

A

integrons

67
Q

What is a super infection? What causes it?

A
  • development and spread of drug resistant strain of bacteria
  • caused by loss of drug sensitive strains that were controlling growth of the resistant strain
68
Q

Capusles, slime layers, and glycocalyx are all made of… Which one is easiest to remove?

A
  • polysaccharides

- slime layer

69
Q

4 functions of capsules/slime layers/glycocalyx?

A
  1. protect from viruses/other bacteria
  2. protect from chemicals
  3. motility of gliding bacteria
  4. protection from osmotic stress
70
Q

What form of diffusion do pathogens use to take up nutrients and what carrier protein assists?

A
  • Facilitated diffusion (down gradient and no energy needed)
  • Permeases within the plasma membrane

gradient maintained by intracellular use of compound. Ex. glycerol -> glycerol-3-phosphate

71
Q

What oral fluid is similar to blood serum?

A

GCF

72
Q

What is the difference between humoral and cell mediated immunity?

A

Humoral: combats extracellular pathogens (B cells)

Cell Mediated: combats intracellular microbes/infected cells (T lymphocytes)

73
Q

What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

A

Innate: receptors recognize PAMPs and DAMPs
Adaptive: receptors recognize previously encountered pathogens

74
Q

What is passive vs active immunity?

A

Passive: immunity from an outside source (mother/vaccine)
Active: immunity from a previous encounter with the pathogen (B cells)

75
Q

TLRs detect…

A

bacterial cell wall lipids

76
Q

NLRs detect…

A

bacterial cell wall lipids OR damaged host cells

77
Q

RLRs detect…

A

viral DNA

78
Q

CDSs detect…

A

microbial DNA in the cytosol of host cells

Microbiology (11 decks)

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