Exam 1:1 Flashcards

1
Q

Cases

A

people afflicted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rates

A

number of events in a given population over a given period of time or given point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Population at risk

A

those susceptible to particular disease or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Incidence rate

A

number of new health-related events or cases of a disease in a population exposed to that risk during a particular period of time, divided by total # in same population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prevalence rate

A

number of new and old cases in a given period of time, divided by total # in that population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Attack rate

A

incidence rate calculated for a particular population for a single disease outbreak, expressed as a percentage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Outbreak investigation

A

determine number of victims, construct an epidemic curve, calculate attack rate, determine when victims became sick, determine where victims became sick and plot on map, disease investigation interview, case definition for the disease, hypothesis for sources and transmission, lab test results and screening tool to identify exposed, list of prevention and control measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Infectivity

A

ability of a biological agent to enter and grow in the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pathogenicity

A

capability of a communicable agent to cause disease in a susceptible host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Communicable disease model

A

agent, host, environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Agent

A

cause of disease or health problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Host

A

susceptible person or organism invaded by an infectious agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Environment

A

factors that inhibit or promote disease transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chain of infection

A

pathogen-reservoir-portal of exit-transmission-portal of entry-establishment of infection in new host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prevention and control efforts

A

focus on breaking the chain of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pathogen

A

disease causing agent (virus, bacterium, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Prevention or control of a pathogen

A

pasteurization, chlorination, antibiotics, antivirals, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Reservoir

A

favorable environment for infectious agent to live and grow (human, animal, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Prevention or control of a reservoir

A

isolation, surveillance, quarantine, drug tx, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Portal of exit

A

path by which agent leaves host (blood, respiratory system, digestive system, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prevention or control of portal of exit

A

gowns, masks, hair nets, insect repellants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mode of transmission

A

how pathogens are passed from reservoir to next host, direct-direct contact or droplet spread, indirect-airborne, vehicle borne (fomite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prevention or control of mode of transmission

A

isolation, handwashing, vector control, sexual abstinence, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Portal of entry

A

where agent enters susceptible host (iv, oral, skin, respiratory, digestive system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prevention or control of portal of entry

A

masks, condoms, safety glasses, insect repellants, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

New host

A

susceptible to new infection being established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Prevention or control of new host

A

immunizations, health education, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

US leading causes of death

A

heart disease, stroke, cancer

29
Q

Primary prevention

A

forestall onset of illness or injury during prepathogenesis period

30
Q

Secondary prevention

A

early diagnosis and prompt treatment before disease becomes advanced and disability severe

31
Q

Tertiary prevention

A

aimed at rehabilitation following significant pathogenesis, retrain, reeducate, rehabilitate

32
Q

Thermal inversions

A

a natural phenomenon that occurs in mountain valleys where warm air above holds in cold air near the valley floor, acts as a cap for pollution causing it to accumulate

33
Q

Clean Air Act of 1963

A

fed authority to address interstate air pollution problems, emission standards, empowered EPA

34
Q

Air Quality Index

A

measures 5 criteria pollutants, tells how clean or polluted air is and associated health effects

35
Q

Point source water pollution

A

can be traced to a single source

36
Q

Nonpoint source water pollution

A

occurs through runoff, seepage, or falling pollutants into water

37
Q

Surface water

A

streams, rivers, lakes, reservoirs

38
Q

Groundwater

A

most lies in aquifers many feet below the surface

39
Q

Salt water

A

97% or Earth’s water, must be desalinized before use

40
Q

Coagulation of drinking water

A

addition of a chemical such as alum to cause solids to attract to one another and form large particles

41
Q

Flocculation of drinking water

A

water is allowed to stand so that particles settle to the bottom

42
Q

Filtration of drinking water

A

water is passed through sand or charcoal filters

43
Q

Disinfection of drinking water

A

addition of chlorine or ozone to kill microbes, some add fluoride which assists in killing microbes and leads to improvements in dental health

44
Q

Primary wastewater treatment

A

mechanical process, involves the separation of liquids and solids, screens remove large objects, communitor grinds up solids into uniform pieces, settling ponds or sediment tanks allow sludge to settle to the bottom and scum to form on top

45
Q

Secondary wastewater treatment

A

biological process, promotes aerobic bacterial growth, trickling filters sprinkling water over rocks to aerate, activated sludge agitation or stirring of water in order to aerate

46
Q

Tertiary wastewater treatment

A

optional process, filtration with sand or charcoal filters, measurement of nitrogen, ammonia, coliform, phosphorus, CO2, oxygen, turbidity-total suspended solids, disinfection using chlorine, discharge into surface water

47
Q

Clean Water Act

A

first comprehensive federal water quality law, aims to make all rivers and lakes swimable and fishable, reduce discharge of contaminants into water supply, reduce nonpoint source runoff

48
Q

Safe Drinking Water Act

A

EPA set maximum contaminant levels for over 140 pollutants and maintains a list of unregulated contaminants, MCLs categorized

49
Q

Maximum contaminant levels

A

category 1-known health hazards and carcinogens, category2-possible hazards and carcinogens, category 3- insufficient or no known carcinogens

50
Q

Foodborne disease outbreaks

A

two or more cases of similar illness resulting from ingestion of food

51
Q

Common causes of foodborne disease

A

bacterial pathogens, viral pathogens (Hepatitis A)

52
Q

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

A

1976, strict controls over treatment, storage, and disposal of solid and hazardous waste

53
Q

Managing Solid Waste

A

source reduction (preferred), reuse and recycling, disposal

54
Q

Sanitary landfills

A

locations have to be suitable for the in-ground disposal of solid wastes, required transition from dumps to landfills

55
Q

Landfills require

A

a layer of clay on the bottom or a plastic type lining to reduce leachates from entering ground water, fewer sites available, requires venting for methane gas

56
Q

Combustion or incineration

A

involves the burning or combustion of solid wastes, waste to energy plants collect energy from burning, concerns-air quality, expense, some toxic ash produced

57
Q

Deep well injection

A

pumping of liquid waste into wells below aquifer, 50% of hazardous waste disposed this way

58
Q

Secured landfill

A

least expensive method, double-lined, above 100 year flood plain, pipes for monitoring, wells to test ground water, surface water testing

59
Q

Recycling and neutralization

A

reusing hazardous waste to produce a usable product, detoxifying waste by adding or removing a substance (microbes to an oil spill or base to acidic waste)

60
Q

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)

A

1980, superfund, created a national priority list of sites to be cleaned up, government would make responsible parties pay for cleanups when possible, provided money to support the identification and cleanup of sites, supervised by EPA

61
Q

Brownfields

A

contaminated abandoned properties where reuse is complicated by the presence of hazardous substances from prior use

62
Q

Vectors

A

fleas, lice, ticks, etc., spread disease

63
Q

Risk of disease

A

Incidence rate

64
Q

Burden of disease

A

Prevalence rate

65
Q

Fomite

A

Any inanimate object to which infectious material adheres and can be transmitted.

66
Q

What put our water treatment plant in violation?

A

Phosphorus, mostly from soaps and detergents

67
Q

Landfill

A

trash not left exposed, covered daily, located where runoff doesn’t go into groundwater

68
Q

Leachates

A

toxins draining off