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Essentials Book Flashcards

1
Q

Define culture

A

The shared assumptions, beliefs, and values of a group or organization

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2
Q

Define Jargon

A

the specialized or technical language of a trade, profession or similar group

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3
Q

What is the basic unit of fire fighting operations?

A

a company

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4
Q

NFPA 1001?

A

Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications

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5
Q

NFPA 1582

A

Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments

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6
Q

NFPA 1500?

A

Standard on Fire Department Occupational Health and Safety Program

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7
Q

Unity of Command?

A

Each employee reports directly to just on supervisor

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8
Q

Division of Labor?

A

Process of dividing large jobs into smaller jobs in order to make them more manageable, equalize workloads and increase efficiency

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9
Q

Define policy?

A

A guide to decision making within an organization–policies set boundaries and establish standards of conduct that an organization expects from its members

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10
Q

Define procedures?

A

Detailed written plans that list specific steps for approaching a recurring problem or situation

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11
Q

Define Standard?

A

a set of principles, protocols, or procedures that is developed by committees through consensus

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12
Q

Define code?

A

a collection of rules and regulations that has been enacted by law in a particular jurisdiction

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13
Q

What is the leading cause of death for firefighters?

A

stress or overexertion

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14
Q

What were the leading injuries to firefighters?

A

Stains and sprains followed by cuts and bruises

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15
Q

What percent of firefighters are overweight?

A

40%

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16
Q

NFPA 1971?

A

Standard on Protective Ensembles for Structural Firefighting

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17
Q

NFPA 1975?

A

Standard on Station/Work Uniforms for Emergency Services

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18
Q

What is a risk management plan?

A

Written plan that analyzes the exposure to hazards, implements appropriate risk management techniques and establishes criteria for monitoring their effectiveness

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19
Q

What are the five causes for fire apparatus collisions?

A
  • improper backing
  • excessive speed
  • lack of driving skill and experience
  • reckless driving by the public
  • poor apparatus design or maintenance
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20
Q

Define defensive driving?

A

anticipating potential hazards and developing strategies to dea with them

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21
Q

How far apart should multiple emergency vehicles travel?

A

300-500’

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22
Q

What is driver reaction distance?

A

The distance the apparatus travels from when the driver operator realizes the need to stop until the driver/operator’s foot touches the brake pedal

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23
Q

Define braking distance?

A

the distance the apparatus travels form when the driver touches the brake until the vehicle is completely stopped

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24
Q

Define total stopping distance

A

The sum of the driver reaction distance and the braking distance

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25
Q

The only exception to the rule of never stand on or in moving apparatus is?

A

while loading hose as the apparatus slowly moves forward (5mph or less)

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26
Q

What are unpowered tools?

A

Hand tools

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27
Q

Electrical tools not marked “double insulated” should have what?

A

three prong plug

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28
Q

What are control zones?

A

hot, warm and cold zones

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29
Q

What are the reasons a collapse zone is established?

A
  • prolonged heat or fire have weakened the structure
  • a defensive strategy has been adopted
  • interior operations cannot be justified
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30
Q

What are external communications?

A

Requests from the public for both emergency and non emergency assistance

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31
Q

What are internal communications?

A

Consists primarily of radio transmissions between units and individuals during emergency operations

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32
Q

What is the central location that takes all emergency calls and routes the call to the fire, ems, or police dispatcher?

A

Public Safety Answering Point

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33
Q

What are the four main limitations or barriers to all radio transmissions?

A
  • distance
  • physical barries
  • interference
  • ambient noise
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34
Q

The generally accepted communication model consists of 6 basic elements which are?

A
  • sender
  • message
  • receiver
  • feedback to sender
  • interference
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35
Q

What are the ABCs of good communication?

A

A-Accurate
B-Brief
C-Concise

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36
Q

What are some reasons the IC can request a PAR?

A
  • 15 min intervals
  • incident declared U/C
  • change from offensive to defensive
  • sudden catastrophic event
  • emergency evac
  • firefighter reported missing or in distress
  • primary search has been completed
  • Safety Officer requests one
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37
Q

What affects how wood reacts to fire conditions?

A

size and moisture content

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38
Q

Pressure treating wood reduces its load carrying ability by as much as?

A

25%

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39
Q

What are the two types of iron that can be found in buildings?

A

Cast and wrought

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40
Q

Wrought iron and cast iron are connected differently, how are they connected?

A

Wrought iron is usually riveted or welded together

Cast iron is bolted or screwed

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41
Q

Spalling?

A

Expansion of excess moisture within masonry materials due to exposure to the heat of a fire, resulting in tensile forces within the material and causing it to break apart. The expansion causes sections of the material’s surface to violently disintegrate, resulting in explosive pitting or chipping of the materials surface

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42
Q

A 50’ steel beam may elongate by at much as ___ inches when heated from room temperature to about 1000.

A

4”

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43
Q

At what temperature can failure of steel structural members be anticipated?

A

1000

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44
Q

Curtain Wall?

A

nonload bearing wall, often of glass and steel, fixed to the outside of a building and serving especially as cladding

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45
Q

In lath and plaster, the lath is oriented?

A

horizontally

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46
Q

Every building is composed of the following building elements?

A
  • structural frame
  • floor construction
  • roof construction
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47
Q

Type 1 construction?

A

fire resistive

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48
Q

Type II construction?

A

noncombustible or limited combustible

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49
Q

Type III construction

A

Ordinary

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50
Q

Type IV heavy timber construction, structural members will be of what size and have a fire resistance rating of?

A

8” and 2 hours

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51
Q

Type V constuction?

A

wood frame or stick frame

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52
Q

What percentage do manufactured homes make up of all housing sales in the US?

A

25%

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53
Q

Reference occupancy classification, structures may be divided into either _____ occupancies or ____ occupancies.

A

single use or separated use

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54
Q

What are the three prevalent roof types?

A

flat, pitched, and arched

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55
Q

Types of roof styles?

A

Check pic on phone

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56
Q

What are the four types of arched roofs?

A
  • bowstring
  • ribbed
  • diagonal grid (lamella)
  • pleated barrel
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57
Q

What are the three main components roofs are made of?

A
  • roof supporting structure
  • roof deck or sheathing
  • roof covering
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58
Q

What is generally used to support flat roofs and floor assemblies?

A

parallel chord truss

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59
Q

Rafter?

A

inclined beam that supports a roof, runs parallel to the slope of the roof and to which the roof decking is attached

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60
Q

Joists?

A

horizontal structural members used to support a ceiling or floor. Drywall materials are nailed or screwed to the ceiling joists and the subfloor is nailed or screwed to the floor joists

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61
Q

What are referred to as wide flange beams?

A

box beams and I-beams

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62
Q

Purlin?

A

Horizontal member between trusses that supports the roof

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63
Q

What are the two types of concrete roofs?

A

Precast and poured in place

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64
Q

Live load?

A

Items within a building that are movable but are not included as a permanent part of the structure; merchandise, stock, furnishings, occupants, firefighters, and the water used for fire suppression are examples of live loads. Also force placed upon a structure by the addition of people, objects or weather

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65
Q

What are the five types of doors?

A
  • swinging
  • sliding
  • folding
  • vertical
  • revolving
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66
Q

Fire doors made with terneplate are commonly referred to as?

A

tin-clad doors

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67
Q

All windows contain glass known as…?

A

glazing

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68
Q

Fixed windows are also known as?

A
  • display windows
  • picture windows
  • deadlights
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69
Q

What are the two primary types of dangerous conditions that may be posed by a particular building?

A
  • conditions that contribute to the spread and intensity of the fire
  • conditions that make the building susceptible to collapse
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70
Q

What is one of the most critical hazards in commercial, industrial and storage facilities?

A

heavy fuel load

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71
Q

What kind of roof covering can significantly contribute to fire spread?

A

wood shakes

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72
Q

Unprotected engineered steel and wooden trusses can fail after?

A

5-10 minutes of exposure to fire

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73
Q

During what stage of the fire is collapse very likely?

A

Decay stage and during post suppression activities

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74
Q

Contents can be a factor contributing to collapse in three ways?

A
  • generating higher temperatures and rapid combustion
  • causing collapse more rapidly due to added dead weight
  • increasing stress on structural members due to increased weight from water retention
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75
Q

250gpm adds how much weight of water per minute to the structure?

A

1 ton

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76
Q

What is physical science?

A

The study of matter and energy

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77
Q

When does a physical change occur?

A

When a substance remains chemically the same but changes in size, shape, or appearance (water freezing)

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78
Q

When does a chemical reaction occur?

A

When a substance changes from one type of matter into another, such as two or more substances combining to form compounds

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79
Q

Oxidation?

A

A chemical reaction involving the combination of an oxidizer, such as 02 in the air with other materials

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80
Q

Oxidizer?

A

Material that readily yields oxygen or other oxidizing gas, or that readily reacts to promote or initiate combustion of combustible materials

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81
Q

Energy?

A

The capacity to perform work. Work occurs when a force is applied to an object over a distance or when a substance undergoes a chemical, biological or physical change

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82
Q

Potential energy?

A

stored energy possessed by an object that can be released in the future to perform work once released

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83
Q

Kinetic Energy

A

the energy possessed by a body because of its motion

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84
Q

What is the measure for energy?

A

Joules

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85
Q

How many joules is necessary to change the temp of one gram of water by one degree celsius?

A

4.2 J

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86
Q

What is a BTU (British Thermal Unit)?

A

amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of water 1 degrees F

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87
Q

How many Joules = 1BTU?

A

1055J

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88
Q

Exothermic reactions?

A

Reactions that emit energy (fire)

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89
Q

Reactions that absorb energy as they occur are?

A

endothermic reactions

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90
Q

Piloted ignition?

A

moment when a mix of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat source with sufficient heat or thermal energy to start the combustion reaction

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91
Q

Autoignition

A

initiation of combustion by heat but without a spark or flame

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92
Q

What are the two modes of combustion?

A

nonflaming and flaming

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93
Q

passive agent?

A

materials that absorb heat but do not participate actively in the combustion process (drywall/gypsum board)

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94
Q

CO combines with hemoglobin more than ____ times faster than 02 does.

A

200x

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95
Q

CO is created by?

A

incomplete combustion of carbon containing material

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96
Q

HCN is created by

A

the combustion of materials containing nitrogen

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97
Q

Co2 is a product of ____ combustion of organic materials?

A

complete

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98
Q

How many irritants are in smoke?

A

over 20

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99
Q

Thermal Energy is also known as?

A

heat

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100
Q

What is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions?

A

Chemical energy

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101
Q

Self-heating?

A

a form of oxidation, is a chemical reaction that increases the temperature of a material without the addition of external heat

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102
Q

Arching vs. sparking

A

Arc-high temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium

Sparking-when an arc occurs, luminous particles can be formed and spatter away from the point of arcing (spattering is the sparking)

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103
Q

Conduction

A

transfer of heat through or between solids that are in direct contact

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104
Q

convection

A

heat transfer by circulation within a medium such as a gas or a liquid

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105
Q

radiation

A

heat transfer by way of electromagnetic energy

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106
Q

How is mechanical energy generated?

A

friction or compression

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107
Q

Heat transfer due to conduction is dependent upon three factors…

A
  • area being heated
  • temperature difference between the heat source and the material being heated
  • thermal conductivity of the heated material
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108
Q

Lateral currents are the result of?

A

differences in pressure

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109
Q

Radiant heat increases by a factor of what as the temperature of the heat source increases?

A

4

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110
Q

Heat Release Rate?

A

total amount of heat released per unit time. HRR is measured in KW and MW of outputs

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111
Q

Reducing Agent?

A

the fuel that is being oxidized or burned during combustion

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112
Q

Power?

A

the rate at which energy is being transferred over time

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113
Q

At sea level atmosphere exerts a pressure of ____?

A

14.7 psi

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114
Q

The pressure that vapors escaping from a liquid exert is known as?

A

vapor pressure

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115
Q

flash point?

A

minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite, but not sustain combustion

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116
Q

fire point?

A

the temperature at which sufficient vapors are being generated to sustain the combustion reaction

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117
Q

What mixes readily with water?

A

polar solvents

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118
Q

What temperature does pyrolysis of wood begin?

A

400

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119
Q

The required temperature for ignition of the vapors being given off by wood is?

A

1000-1300

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120
Q

What is the primary oxidizing agent in most fires?

A

oxygen in the air

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121
Q

At normal ambient temperatures (68) materials can ignite and burn at 02 concentrations as low as?

A

14%

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122
Q

Oxygen deficient/enriched

A

19.5%, 23.5%

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123
Q

Free radicals?

A

molecular fragments that are highly reactive

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124
Q

Chemical flame inhibition?

A

Extinguishment of a fire by interruption of the chemical chain reaction

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125
Q

Room or compartment fires take two forms:

A

fuel controlled and ventilation controlled

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126
Q

insulation?

A

contains heat within the compartment causing a localized increase in the temperature and fire growth

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127
Q

heat reflectivity?

A

increases fire spread through the transfer of radiant heat from wall surfaces to adjacent fuel sources

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128
Q

retention

A

maintains temperature by absorbing and releasing large amounts of heat slowly

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129
Q

Cold temperatures can cause smoke to appear?

A

White

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130
Q

Plume?

A

The column of hot gases, flames and smoke rising above a fire; also called convection column, thermal updraft, or thermal column

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131
Q

Mushrooming, when hot gases begin the spread horizontally across the ceiling is referred to as?

A

ceiling jet

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132
Q

The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as?

A

neutral plane

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133
Q

What are the four common elements of flashover?

A
  • transition in fire development
  • rapidity
  • compartment
  • ignition of all exposed surfaces
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134
Q

What ceiling temperature does flashover typically occur at?

A

1100

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135
Q

Protective coats used for structural firefighting is made of three components:

A

outer shell, moisture barrier and thermal barrier

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136
Q

What is the maximum noise exposure level?

A

90 decibels

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137
Q

Pass alarm activates when a firefighter is motionless for more than ___ seconds

A

30 seconds

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138
Q

How loud must the PASS device be and it must go off for at least how long?

A

95 decibels and continuously for at least one hour

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139
Q

What is the best protection for responders on the roadway?

A

Be visible to other motorists and work behind a barrier formed by your apparatus

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140
Q

Work uniforms perform two functions?

A

1) identify the wearer as a member of the organization

2) provide a layer of protection against direct flame contact

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141
Q

What are the four types of cleaning for PPE?

A
  • routine-does not require that clothing be removed from service
  • advanced-personnel trained in the care of gear should do this–likely use a gear washer
  • specialized- when clothing is contaminated with hazardous materials or body fluids that cannot be removed by routine or advanced cleaning
  • contract- specialized cleaning performed by the manufacturer, its representative or a certified vendor
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142
Q

PPE that is carried in personal vehicles should be placed in what?

A

closable garment bags intended for that purpose

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143
Q

What temperature do burns occur at?

A

1st- skin temp hits 118
2nd- 131
3rd- 152

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144
Q

At what 02 percentage does the human body increase its respiratory rate?

A

18%

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145
Q

Particulates bigger than what size are filtered by the nasal membranes?

A

1 micrometer

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146
Q

The two categories of respiratory protection equipment are atmosphere supplying respirators (ASRs) and air-purifying respirators (APRs). What is the difference?

A

ASRs- provide breathable air when working in oxygen deficient, toxic or gas filled atmospheres
APRs- filter particulates out of the ambient air

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147
Q

What are the two types of ASRs?

A
  • SCBA

- supplied air respirators

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148
Q

What are the two types of SCBA?

A

Open circuit-uses compressed air

Closed circuit-uses compressed O2

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149
Q

What are the four basic components of SCBA?

A
  • backplate and harness assembly
  • air cylinder assembly
  • regulator assembly
  • facepiece assembly
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150
Q

What are the two types of fit tests?

A

Qualitative-measures the wearer’s response to a test agent

Quantiative-measures the amount of a test agent that has leaked into the respirator from the ambient atmosphere

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151
Q

How long must a firefighter wearing contact lenses demonstrate use without any problems in order to be approved to wear while wearing SCBA?

A

6 months

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152
Q

The UAC connection on SCBA is to be located within how many inches of the cylinder outlet?

A

4inches

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153
Q

Particulate filters have three categories of filter degradtion…

A

N- not resistant to oil
R- resistant to oil
P- used when oil or non-oil lubricants are present

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154
Q

Air cylinders should have no less than ___% of cylinder capacity?

A

90%

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155
Q

The frequency SCBA are inspected must not exceed?

A

1 week

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156
Q

What type of cylinders have an indefinite service life until they fail a hydro test?

A

steel and aluminum

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157
Q

With the exception of steel and aluminum cylinders all others have a service life of?

A

15 years

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158
Q

Hydro static test intervals on cylinders are as follows:

A

steel, aluminum, and fully wrapped carbon fiber- every 5 years
hoop-wrapped aluminum, fully wrapped fiberglass, fully wrapped kevlar- every 3 years

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159
Q

There are three breathing air sources that may be used to refill depleted SCBA air cylinder, they are and they must provide what grade air?

A
  • stationary fill systems
  • mobile fill systems
  • Firefighter Breathing Air Replenishment Systems installed in high rises buildings

-Type 1 Grade D quality air

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160
Q

What is the only time an individual can work alone in an IDLH?

A

confined space where two members cannot fit

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161
Q

There are five classes of portable extinguishers they are:

A 
A-ordinary combustibles
B-Flammable and combustible liquids and gases
C-energized electrical equipment
D-combustible metals and alloys
K- combustible cooking oils
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162
Q

Wet chemical systems?

A

Extinguishing system that uses a wet chemical solution as the primary extinguishing agent; usually installed in range hoods and associated ducting where grease may accumulate.

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163
Q

Extinguishing agents use at least one of the following methods to extinguish fires:

A
  • smothering
  • cooling
  • chain breaking
  • saponification–forming an oxygen-excluding soapy foam surface
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164
Q

If water type extinguishers are going to be exposed to temperatures below what shall they be protected against freezing?

A

40degrees

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165
Q

All portable extinguishers use one of the following methods to expel their contents:

A
  • manual pump
  • stored pressure
  • pressure cartridge–compressed inert gas contained in a separate cartridge on the side of the container
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166
Q

Deionized water is used in what kind of extinguishers?

A

water mist extinguishers

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167
Q

Wet chemical extinguishers contain?

A

A special potassium-based low pH agent formulated to operate on the principle of saponification

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168
Q

AFFF extinguishers are most effective on?

A

static pools of flammable liquids

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169
Q

Halon has been replaced by?

A

clean agents, which cool and smother fires in class a and class B, also are nonconductive so they can be used on energized electrical equipment

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170
Q

Dry powder is used for?

A

Class D

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171
Q

How much pressure is maintained in the agent storage tank of a dry chem extinguisher?

A

200psi

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172
Q

What are the two gases used as pressurizing gas in dry chem extinguishers?

A

nitrogen or CO2

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173
Q

How are Class A extinguishers rated?

A

1a-40a, 1A 1 1/4 gallons are requied, 2A 2 1/2 gallons of water required

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174
Q

How are class B extinguishers rated?

A

1B-640B

Based on the approximate square foot of flammable liquid fire that a nonexpert operator can extinguish using one full extinguisher

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175
Q

Class K extinguishers have a minimum requirement of?

A

Must be able to extinguish a fire from a deep fryer using light oils with a surface area of 2.25 square feet

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176
Q

Name the letter/image symbol for each extinguisher class?

A 
A-triangle/pile of wood
B-square/ gas can
C-circle/ electrical plug
D-star/ half of a gear
K-hexagon/ frying pan
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177
Q

Dry Chemical extinguishers have corrosive particulate residue so they should not be used where…

A

highly sensitive computer equipment is located

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178
Q

What are the three factors that determine the value of a fire extinguisher?

A
  • serviceability
  • accessibility
  • simplicity of operation
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179
Q

Extinguishers should be inspected at least

A

weekly

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180
Q

If an extinguisher is deficient in weight by how much should it be removed from service?

A

10%

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181
Q

How often should a dry chem extinguisher be emptied and refilled?

A

Every 6 years

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182
Q

What is the only rope suitable for life safety applications?

A

block creel construction using continuous filament virgin fiber for load bearing elements

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183
Q

What kind of rope has excellent resistance to water, mildew, mold, rotting, shrinkage, and the effects of ultraviolet light?

Also:

  • Longer life span than natural fiber rope
  • It is very strong yet lightweight
  • It is easy to maintain

Disadvantage:
-Melt when exposed to heat

A

Synthetic fiber rope

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184
Q

Natural fiber ropes have what advantages and disadvantages?

A

Advantages:

  • resistant to sunlight
  • does not melt when exposed to heat
  • holds a knot firmly

Disadvantages:

  • prone to mildew and mold
  • deteriorates when exposed to chemicals
  • burns when in contact with embers or open flame
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185
Q

What are the four most common types of rope?

A
  • kernmantle
  • laid
  • braided
  • braid on braid
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186
Q

Kernmantle rope is use for?

A

Life safety

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187
Q

How is kernamentle rope constructed?

A

it is a jacketed synthetic rope composed of a braid covering or sheath (mantle) over a core (kern) of the main load bearing strands

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188
Q

Kernmantle core is made of?

A

High strength fibers, usually nylon which accounts for 75% of the ropes strength

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189
Q

What is the difference between dynamic and static kernmantle rope and when are they used differently?

A

Dynamic (high stretch)-used when long falls are a possiblity
Static (low stretch)-used for most rope rescue operations, must not elongate more than 10% when tested under a load equal to 10% of its breaking strength

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190
Q

Laid rope?

A

Constructed by twisting fibers together to form strands then twisting the strands (typically 3) together to make the final rope. Most natural fiber ropes and some synthetic ropes are this type. Used exclusively as utility rope.

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191
Q

What is a disadvantage of laid ropes?

A

They are susceptible to abrasion and other physical damage

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192
Q

Braided rope?

A

rope constructed by uniformly intertwining strands or rope together

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193
Q

Braid on braid rope?

A

a braided core enclosed in a braied, herringbone patterned sheath (also known as double braided rope)

Very strong with half its strength in the core and half in the jacket

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194
Q

Each rope should be inspected at least?

A

once a year

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195
Q

When inspecting a rope what are you checking for?

A

imbedded shards of glass, metal shavings, wood splinters or other foreign objects that can damage the fibers. If any are found remove from service.

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196
Q

Ruptured fibers and powdering between strands indicate?

A

the rope has been overloaded

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197
Q

powdering between strands indicates?

A

internal wear

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198
Q

Sharp angles, bends and knots can reduce strength by as much as?

A

50%

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199
Q

Never subject a rope to sustained load for longer than?

A

2 days

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200
Q

If a rust stain is halfway through the rope how much strength of the rope is lost?

A

50%

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201
Q

Synthetic fiber ropes should be washed in?

A

lukewarm to warm water, with a mild detergent or fabric softener added to loosen imbedded dirt particles

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202
Q

What shall not be used when cleaning natural fiber ropes?

A

water

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203
Q

What sewing method is used with webbing to prevent edge-stitched webbing from becoming unstiched?

A

lock-stitching

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204
Q

What class harness is intended to be used for emergency escape and what weight rating does it have?

A

emergency escape and load up to 300lbs

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205
Q

What is the difference in a class I and class II harness?

A

Class II is rated for loads up to 600lbs

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206
Q

Class III harness?

A

full body harness, rated for loads up to 600lbs

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207
Q

When tying knots a rope is divided into three parts:

A

working end: used to tie the knot or hitch
running part: the free end that is used for hoisting or pulling
standing part: the section between the working end and the running part

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208
Q

The tighter the bend in a rope the ropes strength….

A

more is lost

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209
Q

There are three names for the bends which are?

A
  • bight: is formed by simply bending the rope back on itself while keeping the sides parallel
  • loop: crossing the side of a bight over the standing part
  • round turn: consists of further bending one side of a loop
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210
Q

What is the safety knot?

A

overhand knot

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211
Q

Priority of searches:

A

1) most severely threatened
2) largest numbers
3) remainder of hazard zone
4) exposures

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212
Q

Oriented search method?

A

team leader remains anchored at the door, wall or hoseline, while other team members spread out through the room to complete the search

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213
Q

A search line is typically?

A

200’ of 3/8” rope with a kevlar sheath

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214
Q

About how far from the entry point is the end of the searched rope tied and at what height?

A

10’ away from the entrance and 3’ high, a tag indicating unit is left at that point as well

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215
Q

What team member carries the rope bag?

A

the lead

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216
Q

The person that is next to the “lead” and directs the lead is called?

A

the navigator

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217
Q

In a search rope a 2 in steel ring is tied every how many feet, directly behind each ring, one or more knots are tied indicating?

A

Steel ring every 20’, every knot indicates 20’ from the beginning of the line…knots towards the fire, rings towards the exit

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218
Q

Search line tethers are?

A

20’ lengths of 1/4” rope with a kevlar sheath. Each tether has a steel ring tied to one end, a knot at the midpoint and a carabiner at the other end

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219
Q

Even in an emergency you should never pull a victim…

A

sideways

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220
Q

point of no return?

A

point at which air in the scba will only last long enough to exit a hazardous atmosphere

221
Q

What are your three possible actions if you are involved in a Mayday?

A
  • remaining in place
  • seeking safe haven
  • esacping
222
Q

Which way is it easier to move in an entanglement?

A

back the way you came

223
Q

Digital radio transceivers enable lost or disoriented firefighters to be easily located, they operate on what frequency and have what range?

A

457kHz and 100’ range

224
Q

Is buddy breathing recommended?

A

No, unreliable and likely to produce two victims instead of one

225
Q

Auxiliary Electrical Equipment consists of:

A
  • electrical cables
  • extension cords
  • receptacles
  • connectors
  • junction boxes
  • adapters
  • ground fault circuit interrupter
226
Q

What must auxiliary equipment be?

A

-waterproof
-intrinsically safe
designed for the amount of electrical current is intended to carry

227
Q

Signs of arcing on plugs is indicated by?

A

presence of carbon soot around the ground electrode

228
Q

You should avoid starting a generator when?

A

It is under a load

229
Q

You should not run a generator for a long time…

A

without a load

230
Q

Spreaders are used for….and can spread as much as?

A

pushing and pulling…32”

231
Q

Cutters typically have an opening spread of approximately?

232
Q

Extension rams open force is how much greater than their closing force?

233
Q

Whizzer saw cuts through?

A

Case hardened locks and up to 3/4” of steel, driven by compressed air at 90psi it will run approx. 3mins on a full cylinder

234
Q

Air chisels operate between what psi?

235
Q

What are the two types of screw jacks and which one is typically used to support collapsed structural members?

A

bar screw jack and the trench screw jack

-bar screw jacks are typically used to support collapsed structural members

236
Q

What is the least stable of all jacks?

A

ratchet-lever jacks (high-lift jacks)

237
Q

What is a buttress tension system used for?

A

Stabilize a vehicle that is resting on its side or top (min. 3 4x4 posts wedged between the ground and vehicle)

238
Q

Wheel chocks placed on the downhill side of the rear tires can hold a vehicle in place at what grade?

239
Q

What is the maximum amount of time you can pull with a winch when operating at or near capacity?

240
Q

When draping a blanket or object over the winch cable where should it be placed?

A

5-6’ from the hook

241
Q

How do you place the hook when winching?

A

So its back is facing the ground or facing away from the winch operator

242
Q

What kind of chain can be used in rescue operations?

A

only alloy steel chain

243
Q

What is the primary hazard at motor vehicle accidents?

244
Q

After disconnecting the battery airbags can still be live up to?

A

60 minutes

245
Q

Electric and hybrid vehicles have wires that carry as much as ___ volts?

246
Q

When securing the electrical system what cable do you cut first?

A

negative cable

247
Q

With electric vehicles, removing the key to a safe distance of ___?

248
Q

With electric cars how long do you consider the electrical system unsafe after the ignition has been shut down?

A

10 minutes

249
Q

What is the 5-10-12-18-20 rules?

A

5- inches away from side-impact air bags and knee bolsters
10- inches away from driver frontal air bags
12-18- inches away from side impact curtains
20- inches away from passenger frontal air bags

250
Q

When removing the roof of a vehicle a step chock or other support should always be placed?

A

under the B post

251
Q

Pancake collapse?

A

occur when exterior walls collapse simultaneously

252
Q

V-shaped collapse?

A

occurs when outer walls remain intact and the upper floors and or roof structure fall into the middle

253
Q

Lean to collapse?

A

occurs when one outer wall fails while the opposite wall remains intact

254
Q

A-frame collapse?

A

Occurs when the floor and/or roof assemblies on both sides of a load-bearing center wall collapse

255
Q

Cantilever collapse

A

occurs when one or more walls of a multistory building collapse, leaving the floors attached to and supported by the remaining walls

256
Q

Supplied air systems have hoses up to how many feet?

257
Q

O-A-T-H signaling method

A

O-one tug=OK
A-two tug=Advance
T-three tug=take up
H-four tug=help

258
Q

Low Head Dam

A

create a pool of standing water in a river or stream. Water recirculates as it passes over the face of the dam, creating powerful undercurrents

259
Q

Trench Safety Guidelines

A
  • cordon off an area 100’ in each direction from trench
  • eliminate sources of vibration within 500’ of trench
  • place exit ladders no more than 50’ apart
  • ladders should extend 3’ above the top of the trench
260
Q

What kind of elevator provides a scenic view for passengers?

A

observation elevator

261
Q

The majority of escalator rescues results from

A

victim’s fingers and toes becoming caught between the step treats and guard plates or sandals becoming wedged between the treads

262
Q

What does lockset descibe?

A

All types of doors latches, locks, and locking devices

263
Q

What are the three basic types of locks/ describe each?

A

Mostrise: mounted into a cavity in the door edge
Cylindrical: most common type of lockset found in residential, key in knob lock and tubular dead bolt locks are the two types
Rim Lock: Mounted on the interior door surface and is used as a supplemental lock for doors that may or may not have other types of locks

264
Q

Rim Lock-Night Latch?

A

-rim lock has a spring-loaded bolt with a beveled edge facing the door frame, this feature allows the door to lock when it is closed

265
Q

Rim Lock- Dead Bolt?

A

-this rim lock has a rectangular bolt that must be manually retracted before the door can be closed and the bolt engaged with the receiver.

266
Q

Rim Lock-Vertical Dead Bolt

A

-Has a bolt that slides vertically into the receiver and does not cross the door opening. This feature makes it impossible to open by spreading the door from the doorjamb.

267
Q

multiple bolt locks?

A

a dead bolt lock that, when engaged, projects bolts 1in into two or three point on one edge of the door

268
Q

With electromagnetic locks how can you release the door?

A

By shutting the power

269
Q

Standard vs. Heavy Duty Padlocks

A

Standard: Have shackles or 1/4in or less in diameter and are not case hardened steel

Heavy Duty: case hardened steel shackles more than 1/4in in diameter, many have toe and heel locking

270
Q

What are the four basic categories of forcible entry tools?

A
  • cutting
  • prying
  • pushing/pulling
  • striking
271
Q

What is the head of a pick head axe made of?

A

case hardened steel

272
Q

Can bolt cutters be used on case hardened materials?

273
Q

Must pry tools are constructed from?

A

A single-piece high carbon steel approximately 30-36in

274
Q

Rambars have what on them?

A

A sliding weight on a shaft that is used to drive the wedge or fork into an opening

275
Q

What has two knifelike wings that depress as the head is driven through a ceiling?

A

Plaster hook

276
Q

Battering Ram weight?

277
Q

When are cheater bars allowed?

278
Q

Which is more likely to cause an accident, a dull saw or a sharp one?

279
Q

Never carry a power tool that is operating more than ____ feet.

280
Q

Wooden handles and fiberglass handles should be washed by?

A

washing the handle with mild detergent, rinsing and wiping dry

281
Q

How do you remove dirt and rust from unprotected metal surfaces?

A

Emery cloth or steel wool

282
Q

What oil works best for unprotected metal surfaces?

A

light machine oil

283
Q

To be intrinsically safe electrical cords must have

A

its sheathing and insulation intact

284
Q

What is the most common type of door?

A

One that swings at least 90 degrees to open and close

285
Q

Double acting swinging door are capable of?

A

Swinging 180 degrees

286
Q

How much clearance is needed for a K tool?

287
Q

What can cause more damage to the door, A tool or K tool?

288
Q

What tool is made of heavy gauge wire designed to fit through the space between double swinging doors equipped with panic hardware?

289
Q

What tool screws into the keyway of a padlock?

A

bam-bam tool

290
Q

What locks will a bam-bam tool not work on?

A

master locks, american locks and other high security locks

291
Q

When forcing overhead doors what dimensions should you cut?

A

A square or rectangular opening 6’ high and nearly full width of the door

292
Q

To reduce the effect of wind entering through windows broken for entry what can be done?

A

Place wet canvas tarps or fire retardant tarps over these openings

293
Q

Jalousie windows?

A

Window consists of small sections about 4in high

294
Q

Lexan strength?

A

250x stronger than safety glass
30x stronger than acrylic
classified as self extinguishing

295
Q

When using a rotary saw to cut through lexan what kind of blade do you want and how do you make the cuts?

A
  • carbide tipped, medium toothed blade (approx. 40 teeth)

- Make horizontal cuts first, then the vertical cuts

296
Q

The traditional approach to breaching a masonry wall has been?

A

Using a battering ram

297
Q

What is one of the fastest and efficient ways to cut through concrete walls?

A

Chain saw equipped with a diamond tipped chain

298
Q

Wooden floor joists can be spaced?

A

12-24 inches apart

299
Q

Wooden I beams are generally spaced?

A

24ins apart

300
Q

The most efficient tool for cutting concrete floors may be?

A

a pneumatic or hydraulic jackhammer

301
Q

Folding ladders are designed to support a maximum weight of?

302
Q

Single, roof, combination and extension ladders must support a weight of

303
Q

Footpads?

A

also called shoes, swivel plates attached to the butt of the ladder, usually have rubber or neoprene bottom surfaces

304
Q

Ladder protection plates?

A

strips of metal attached to ladders at chafing points

305
Q

Rails (ladders)?

A

Two lengthwise members of a trussed ladder beam that are separated by truss or separation blocks

306
Q

tie rods (ladders)

A

metal rods located beneath rungs extending from one beam to the other of a wood ladder

307
Q

truss block (ladders)

A

spacers set between the rails of a trussed ladder, sometimes used to support rungs

308
Q

What is the most common type of metal ladders?

A

Heat treated aluminum

309
Q

At what temperature can metal ladders fail suddenly?

A

heat in excess of 200 degrees

310
Q

Wooden ladders have different types of wood for different parts of the ladder what are they?

A

Beams-Douglas Fire
Rungs- Hickory
Pulley blocks, slide glides, other misc parts- Red Oak

311
Q

What type of ladder conduct heat, cold or electricity?

A

fiberglass

312
Q

The designated ladder length must be marked on each beam within how many inches of the butt plate?

313
Q

Ladders heat sensor is set to?

A

300 degrees

314
Q

When shall ladders be inspected?

A

After each use and on a monthly basis

315
Q

When shall ground ladders be service tested?

A

before being placed in service, annually while in service, and after any use that exposes them to high heat or rough treatment

316
Q

What is the most effective tools for cleaning ladders?

A

Soft bristle brush and running water

317
Q

You cannot paint ladders except for the top and bottom ___ inches?

318
Q

Do not raise any ladders within ____’ of electrical wires?

319
Q

Never overload the ladder means firefighters every?

A

10’ or one per section

320
Q

A residential story averages ____ and the distance from floor to windowsill averages about____.

A

10’ and 3’

321
Q

A commercial story averages ____ and the distance from floor to windowsill is _____?

A

12’ and 4’

322
Q 
Ladder Selection Guide:
1st story roof-
2nd story window-
2nd story roof-
3rd story window or roof-
4th story roof-
A 
1st story roof-16-20'
2nd story window-20-28'
2nd story roof-28-25'
3rd story window or roof-40-50'
4th story roof-over 50'
323
Q

What is the climbing angle of ladders?

A

75 degrees

324
Q

For lengths of 35’ or less reach is approximately ___ less than designated length, for lengths greater than 35’ reach is approximately _____ less than designated length.

A

1’, 2’

325
Q

When carrying a roof ladder up a ladder you should place your shoulder at ___ to ____ rungs from the tip.

326
Q

When there are two firefighters at the butt which one is responsible for placement?

A

The one on the right

327
Q

The easiest way to determine the proper distance between the butt of the ladder and the building is to?

A

Divide the working length of the ladder by 4.

328
Q

What ladders are designed to be used with the fly in?

329
Q

One firefighter can safely shift a single ladder that is ____’ or less.

330
Q

What are the two methods for securing a ladder?

A

heeling and tying in

331
Q

How many firefighters are needed to bring a victim down a ladder?

332
Q

What are air flow indicators?

A
  • velocity
  • turbulence
  • direcction
  • movement of the neutral plane
333
Q

The most important weather-related influence on ventilation is?

334
Q

The means used for horizontal and vertical ventilation are?

A

natural, mechanical and hydraulic

335
Q

When using natural ventilation windows on what side of the building should be opened first?

A

leeward side

336
Q

What is the oldest type of mechanical ventilation?

A

negative pressure

337
Q

The open areas around a smoke ejector should be?

A

Properly sealed

338
Q

When using PPV on a normal single 3’ wide door the distance between the door and the fan should be?

339
Q

With hydraulic ventilation the nozzle is set on a fog pattern that will cover what percentage of the opening, and about how far back from the opening should the nozzle tip be?

A

85-90% and at least 2’ back from the opening

340
Q

What is the easiest and fastest inspection hole to cut?

341
Q

When a truss is in the middle of a roof cut what kind of cut is used?

A

Louver cut

342
Q

An initial vertical ventilation opening on a flat roof should be no smaller than?

343
Q

A trench cut must be created at least ____’ ahead of the advancing fire.

344
Q

How wide is a trench cut?

A

3-4’ wide

345
Q

What are the two basic types of water supply systems?

A

Public and Private

346
Q

How much saltier is seawater than fresh water?

347
Q

A gravity system?

A

Delivers water from the source or treatment plant to the distribution system without pumping equipment

348
Q

In order for a gravity system to effective there must be an elevation difference of at least?

349
Q

Direct pumping system?

A

Pump placed near water source or treatment plant to create required pressure

350
Q

Grid/gridiron?

A

the interlocking network of water mains that compose a water distribution system

351
Q

Primary feeder

A

16-72” pipes, arterial mains

352
Q

Secondary Feeders?

A

-12-14” pipes

353
Q

Distributors (water)

A

6-8” pipes

354
Q

What is the maximum length for valve spacing in a water system?

A
  • 500’ in high value districts

- 800’ in other areas

355
Q

Isolation valves should be opened and closed at least?

A

Once a year

356
Q

Opening a hydrant, and other valves involves turning the stem?

A

counterclockwise

357
Q

FIre hydrant spacing?

A
  • no more than 300’ in high value districs

- every other intersection for everything else

358
Q

A hydrant that receives water from more than one direction is said to

A

be a circulating hydrant that has a circulating feed or a looped system

359
Q

Fire hydrant bonnets, barrels and foot pieces are made of?

360
Q

Fire hydrant internal working parts are made of?

361
Q

Hydrants containing non-potable water are colored?

362
Q

Hydrants should be inspected and operated?

A

twice a year

363
Q

Hydrant color markings?

A

Class AA- Light Blue, 1500gpm or greater
Class A- Green, 1000-1499gpm
Class B- Orange, 500-999gpm
Class C- Red, 500gpm or less

364
Q

What is the minimum amount of water necessary above and below the hard intake strainer?

365
Q

Floating strainers can draft in water as shallow as?

366
Q

Water shuttle operations are recommended for distances greater than ____ from the nearest fire hydrant or water supply.

367
Q

The diameter of a fire hose refers to its?

A

Inside diameter

368
Q

Soft sleeve hose is a minimum of?

369
Q

What are the three categories of couplings?

A
  • cast: very weak and only found on occupant-use fire hose
  • extruded: mad of aluminum or aluminum alloy
  • drop forged: made of brass or other malleable metal, strongest and most expensive
370
Q

Both a male and female coupling together are considered a?

A

set (three-piece coupling) (male has one piece, female two)

371
Q

The flattened angle at the end of the threads on the male and female couplings is called?

A

the higbee cut

372
Q

What are the two type of non-threaded couplings?

A
  • quarter turn

- storz

373
Q

What coupling has two hook-like lugs on each coupling?

A

quarter turn

374
Q

If hose has not been unloaded from the apparatus during a period of ____ months it must be taken off to inspect, sweep and then reload with different folds.

375
Q

The hose should be placed how far away from the curb or gutter?

A

2-4’ but not in vehicle travel lanes

376
Q

Water thief?

A

Any variety of a hose appliance with one female inlet for 2 1/2 or larger hose and with three gated outlets, usually, two 1 1/2 and one 2 1/2.

377
Q

LDH manifold?

A

One LDH inlet and 3) 2 1/2 gated outlets

378
Q

What sizes are hose jackets made in?

A

2 1/2 and 3 inches

379
Q

What are the three types of hose clamps?

A
  • screw down
  • press down
  • hydraulic
380
Q

How far away from the apparatus should a hose clamp be?

A

At least 20’ behind the apparatus

381
Q

Apply the hose clamp approximately ___’ from the coupling on the ______ side.

A

5’, supply

382
Q

With the twin donut roll if you offset the couplings when rolling by ___ they can be coupled together after the roll is complete.

383
Q

The three most common loads for supply hose are?

A

flat, accordion and horseshoe

384
Q

When loading LDH on the hose bed in a flat load it should be started ___-___ from the front of the hose bed.

385
Q

Does the horseshoe load work for LDH?

386
Q

When laying hose drive no faster than?

387
Q

What can be used that allows a forward-laid supply line to be immediately charged and lets a later arriving pumper connect to the hydrant?

A

4 way hydrant valve

388
Q

Open butt?

A

the end of a charged hoseline that is flowing water without a nozzle or valve to control the flow

389
Q

When should service testing be performed?

A
  • within 90 days before being placed in service
  • annually
  • after repairs have been made
  • after a vehicle has run over the hose
390
Q

What is the maximum test length of hose for service testing?

391
Q

Latent Heat of Vaporization?

A

Quantity of heat absorbed by a substance at the point at which it changes from a liquid to a vapor

392
Q

vaporization?

A

water absorbs heat and converts into water vapor or steam

393
Q

specific heat

A

amount of energy required to increase the temperature of a substance by one degree

394
Q

When water converts to steam its volume increases?

A

1700x its original volume

395
Q

Low volume stream

A

discharge less than 40gpm

396
Q

Handline stream

397
Q

master stream

A

discharge greater than 350gpm

398
Q

Broken stream?

A

stream that has been broken into coarsely divided water droplets by a specialized nozzle such as a cellar nozzle, piercing nozzle, and chimney nozzle

399
Q

Under ideal circumstances, the greatest horizontal reach for a fire stream is attained at what degree from the horizontal plane? In actual operation?

A

45 degrees, between 30-34 degrees

400
Q

Smooth bore nozzle should not be larger than ____ diameter of the hose.

A

one half the

401
Q

What is the most common nozzle control valve?

A

Ball valve

402
Q

Slide valve?

A

Cylindrical slide valve control seats a moveable cylinder against a shaped cone to turn off the flow of water

403
Q

Rotary control valve

A

-only found on rotary control fog nozzles

404
Q

Nozzle reaction is caused by?

A

velocity, flow rate and discharge pattern of the stream

405
Q

Foam extinguishes or prevents ignition in several ways:

A
  • separating: creates a barrier between the fuel and the fire
  • cooling: lowers the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces
  • smothering: prevents air from reaching fuel
  • penetrating: lowers surface tension of water
406
Q

Class B foam is effective on what two basic categories of flammable liquids?

A

polar solvents and hydrocarbon fuels

407
Q

foam concentrate:

A

chemical compound solution

408
Q

foam proportioner

A

device that introduces foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution

409
Q

foam solution

A

mixture of foam concentrate and water before the introduction of air

410
Q

finished foam

A

completed product after air is introduced into the foam solution

411
Q

Low expansion foam has an air/solution ratio up to?

A

20 parts finished foam for every part of foam solution (20:1)

412
Q

Medium expansion foam has a ratio between?

A

20:1 and 200:1

413
Q

High expansion foams have a ratio of?

A

200:1-1000:1

414
Q

What are the four basic methods by which foam may be proportioned?

A
  • eduction-using an eductor
  • injection-an external pump or head pressure forces foam concentrate into the fire stream
  • batch-mixing-mixing foam within a fire apparatus water tank
  • premixing-premeasured portions of water and foam concentrate are mixed in a container
415
Q

There are three types of foam proportioning systems they are:

A
  • portable
  • apparatus mounted
  • compressed air foam systems
416
Q

What is the most common time of foam proportioner used in the fire service today?

A

in line eductor

417
Q

The foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should not be more than ____’ above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate

418
Q

Fog nozzles best application with foam is when used with?

A

regular AFFF and Class A foams, cannot be used with protein and fluroprotein foams

419
Q

The most effective appliance for the generation of low expansion foam is?

A

the air aspirating foam nozzle

420
Q 
Maximum reach of hose streams:
1 1/2
1 3/4
2
2 1/2
A

1 1/2: 25-50’
1 3/4: 25-50’
2: 40-70’
2 1/2: 50-100’

421
Q

Shielded fire?

A

a fire that is located in a remote part of the structure or hidden from view by objects in the compartment

422
Q

When advancing into a basement fire it is critical that you have enough hose to reach the base of the stairs and an additional…

423
Q

What is the metal pipe extending about the roof of the house where power lines come into called?

A

service mast

424
Q

What is the only location to shut off power to the entire structure?

425
Q

Solar panels have two shutoff switches, which are located where?

A

one on each side of the power inverter

426
Q

Difference between a Post Indicator Valve Assembly (PIVA) and a PIV (Post Indicator Valve)

A

PIVA: uses a circular disk that is perpendicular to the surrounding plate with the valve is open and in line with the plate when closed.
PIV: uses words OPEN or SHUT to indicate valve status

427
Q

In order to reduce risk of shock from electrical current in the ground due to a down wire how much area should be cordoned off?

A

a circle with a radius equal to the distance between the power poles

428
Q

Firefighters and public should stay at least ____ away from underground electrical vaults.

429
Q

How is LNG stored in a liquid state?

A

By cooling to -260 degrees in double walled vacuum-insulated pressure tanks

430
Q

LPG expansion rate when heated?

A

1.5x for every 10 degrees of increase

431
Q

Once the power is secured on an electric vehicle it will take about how many minutes to dissipate?

432
Q

What fires burn bright blue and may be hard to see during the day?

A

ethanol and methanol

433
Q

What are the three main influences on ground cover fire behavior?

A

fuel, weather and topography

434
Q

What are the three basic types of ground cover fires?

A
  • ground fires: burn in the layer of dead organic material
  • surface fires: most common- burning low lying grass, shrubs etc
  • crown fires: tree tops
435
Q

Aspect?

A

the compass direction a slope faces

436
Q

Drainages

A

steep ravines that create turbulent updrafts causing a chimney effect

437
Q

Islands

A

patches of unburned fuel inside the fire perimeter

438
Q

green

A

the area of unburned fuels next to the involved area

439
Q

Black

A

opposite of the green, the black is the area in which the fire has consumed

440
Q

LCES?

A

L-Lookout
C-Communications
E-Escape Routes
S-Safety Zones

441
Q

Combat Command?

A

involves the IC performing multiple tasks like holding command and advancing a hose line

442
Q

Formal Command

A

Involves the company officer remaining at the mobile radio

443
Q

What will plunging a stream into burning flammable liquids cause?

A

Increased production of flammable vapors and greatly increases fire intensity

444
Q

What is the minimum flow to be flowed on a pressure vessel at each point of flame impingement?

445
Q

Primary Damage vs. Secondary Damge

A

Primary from fire, secondary from extinguishment efforts

446
Q

When do salvage operations begin?

A

Upon arrival and continue until the last unit leaves the scene

447
Q

What is the method most often use to protect contents?

A

Leave them in the room they are found and gather them into compact piles that can be covered with a minimum of salvage covers

448
Q

When salvage covers are limited it is good practice to use available covers for?

A

water chutes and catchalls

449
Q

What are salvage covers made of?

A

Waterproof canvas or vinyl

450
Q

What is typically the only cleaning required for canvas salvage covers?

A

wetting or rinsing with a hose stream and scrubbing with a broom

451
Q

What is a waterproof carrier used to carry and catch debris or used as a water sump basin for immersing small burning objects?

452
Q

What is the most common salvage cover throw by two firefighters?

A

balloon throw

453
Q

Overhaul includes what activities?

A
  • Searching for and extinguishing hidden or remaining fire
  • placing the building and its contents in a safe condition
  • determining the cause of the fire
  • recognizing and preserving evidence of arson
454
Q

Area of origin?

A

general location where the fire began

455
Q

Point of origin?

A

exact physical location where the heat source and fuel come in contact with each other and a fire begins

456
Q

Competent ignition source?

A

will have sufficient temperature and energy and be in contact with the fuel long enough to raise it to its ignition temperature

457
Q

Ignition Sequence?

A

History of the fire, beginning when the ignition source and the first fuel ignited meet at the are of origin and proceeding through the entire duration of fire spread through the scene

458
Q

Trailer?

A

combustible material, such as rolled rags, blankets, newspapers or flammable liquid often used in intentionally set fires in order to spread fire from one area to other points or areas

459
Q

What is the perimeter for explosions?

A

1.5 times the distance from the farthest piece of debris found

460
Q

Direct Evidence?

A

type of evidence provided by a witness who obtained it through his or her senses

461
Q

Circumstantial Evidence

A

Evidence presented in a trial that tends to prove a factual matter through inference by proving other events or circumstances

462
Q

Physical Evidence

A

Tangible or real objects that are related to the incident

463
Q

Who has the legal responsibility for determining the origin and cause of a fire?

A

The fire chief

464
Q

What serves as the brain for the fire alarm system?

A

Fire alarm control panel (FACP)

465
Q

What is the most common type of alarm signaling system used?

A

Audible notification

466
Q

Alarm notification appliances fall under one of four categories:

A
  • audible
  • visual
  • textual- visual test or symbols indicating a fire
  • tactile- sense of touch or vibration
467
Q

What alarm system only provides notice to building occupants–does not notify 911 or off site monitoring.

A

Protected premise system/ local alarm system

468
Q

Three basic types of local alarm systems are:

A

noncoded: simplest type of local alarm–when an alarm initiating device sends a signal to FACP all of the alarm-signaling devices operate simultaneously.
zoned/annunciated alarm: enable FD to identify the general area of the alarm (zone)
addressable alarm system: displays location of each initiating device on the FACP

469
Q

The predominant type of signal-monitoring system in the US is?

A

supervising station alarm systems

470
Q

Auxiliary alarm system

A

system that connects the protected property with the FD alarm comm center by a municipal master fire alarm box over a dedicated telephone line

471
Q

Local Energy System

A

auxiliary fire alarm system that has its own power source

472
Q

Shunt System

A

auxiliary fire alarm system that connects a public fire alarm reporting system to initiating devices within a protected premises. When an initiated device in the protected premises operates, it activates the public fire alarm sending an alarm to the public communications center

473
Q

Proprietary alarm system

A

used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, groups of commonly owned facilities such as a college campus. System is owned and operated by the property owner

474
Q

Central Station Systems

A

Monitored by contracted services at a receiving point called the central station

475
Q

Remote Receiving System

A

System in which alarm signals from the protected premises are transmitted over a leased telephone line or radio signal to a remote receiving station with a 24 hour staff; usually the municipal fire department’s alarm communications center

476
Q

Living space heat detectors are set to? Areas such as attics may have detectors set to?

A

165 degrees and 200 degrees or higher.

477
Q

What are the three mechanisms of fixed temperature devices?

A
  • expansion of heated material
  • melting of heated material
  • changes in resistance of heated material
478
Q

What can detect heat over a linear area parallel to the detector?

A

Continuous line detectors

479
Q

Rate of rise detectors are set to send a signal when the temperature increases at a rate exceeding?

A

12-15 degrees in one minute

480
Q

What type of heat detector is used to monitor large areas of a building?

A

pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector

481
Q

Smoke detectors vs. smoke alarms

A

Detectors: can only detect and then have to send signal to another device that sounds an alarm
Alarms: can detect and signal

482
Q

Ionization smoke detectors respond faster to what type of fires?

A

faster to flaming than to smoldering ones

483
Q

Smoke detectors should be tested?

484
Q

Flame detectors are used to detect the following:

A
  • Light in the UV spectrum
  • Light in the IR spectrum
  • Light in both UV and IR spectrum
485
Q

What are the only vapors released from all fires?

A

-CO, CO2 and water vapor

486
Q

What kind of sprinklers react 5-10x faster than traditional sprinklers?

A

Early-suppression fast-response sprinklers

487
Q

What valve transmits a water flow alarm?

A

alarm check valve

488
Q

What chamber catches and slows the excess water that may be sent through the alarm valve of an automatic sprinkler system during momentary water pressure surges?

A

retard chamber

489
Q

What is the minimum water supply required for sprinklers?

A

has to deliver the required volume of water to the highest sprinkler in a building at a residual pressure of 15psi

490
Q

Wet pipe sprinkler systems can be used in climates where the temperature is?

A

above 40 degrees

491
Q

Required air pressure for dry-pipe system is?

A

Usually 20psi above the trip pressure

492
Q

How do you know that water has entered the system in a dry pipe system?

A

When the gauges read the same

493
Q

Preaction sprinkler system

A

closed sprinkler heads attached o a piping system that contains air under pressure and a secondary detection system; both must operate before the extinguishing agent is released into the system

494
Q

Residential sprinklers are designed:

A

To prevent flashover in the room of fire origin and improve the change for the occupants to escape or be evacuated

495
Q

Minimum flow for a residential sprinkler?

A

18gpm from an individual head

496
Q

Residential sprinklers activate when ceiling reaches a temperature of?

497
Q

Class 1 standpipe?

A

used by fire suppression personnel

498
Q

Class 2 standpipe

A

designed for use either by building occupants who are trained in its use or by FD personnel

499
Q

Class III standpipe

A

combines features of Class 1 and Class II systems

500
Q

Semiautomatic dry standpipe?

A

attached to a water supply that is capable of supplying the system demand at all times; requires activation of a control device to provide water at hose connections

501
Q

Manual wet/dry

A

Dry: no water in system must be supplied by FDC
Wet: Filled with water but must be supplied by FDC for pressure and additional water

502
Q

THIRA (threat and hazard identification and risk assessment) threats and hazards are divided into three categories:

A
  • Natural Hazards
  • Technological Hazards
  • Threats or Human-Caused Hazards
503
Q

What are the five Es in relation to program delivery for FIre and Life Safety Initiatives?

A
  • Education
  • Enforcement
  • Economic Incentives
  • Engineering
  • Emergency Response
504
Q

What are the three categories of hazards that can benefit from fire and life safety education?

A
  • unsafe behavior
  • unsafe conditions
  • hazardous processes
505
Q

Fire and Life Safety messages can generally be divided into four categories:

A
  • Prevent (fire and burns)
  • Prepare (for a fire emergency)
  • Protect (yourself in an emergency)
  • Persuade (others to be safe)
506
Q

Children under the age of 18 account for what percentage of all arson arrests?

507
Q

What is the second leading cause of fatalities in residential fires?

A

Juvenile firesetting

508
Q

What percentage of all fire deaths occur in residential structures?

509
Q

What is the most common compliant voiced by early childhood classroom teachers?

A

That the firefighter scared the children

510
Q

Cryogens?

A

Gases that turn into a liquid at or below -130 degrees

511
Q

What is the least energetic type of radiation?

A

nonionizing radiation (visible light or radio waves)

512
Q

The most energetic type of radiation?

A

ionizing radiation (causes a chemical change in atoms by removing their electrons)

513
Q

Four types of ionizing radiation?

A

Alpha-stopped by sheet of paper/human skin, harmful if inhaled or ingested
Beta-travel up to 20’ through air and penetrate the outer layer of skin, harmful if inhaled or ingested
Gamma-highly penetrating, stopped by 2” lead or 2’ of concrete, or several feet of earth
Neutron-produced by fission reactions, even more penetrating than gamma

514
Q

What are the three main types of radioactive contamination?

A
  • external contamination: occurs when radioactive material is on the skin or clothing
  • internal contamination: occurs when radioactive material is inhaled, swallowed or absorbed through wounds
  • environment contamination: occurs when radioactive material spreads or is unshielded, creating another potential source of external exposure
515
Q

Difference between simple asphyxiants and chemical asphyxiants?

A

-Simple displace oxygen, chemical inhibit the body from processing oxygen

516
Q

Acid PH values, Base PH values?

A

Acid: 0-6.9
Neutral: 7-7.9
Base (alkalis or caustics): 8-14

517
Q

Etiological Hazards

A

harmful viruses and bacteria

518
Q

Explosions create three types of mechanical hazards:

A
  • blast pressure wave (shock wave)
  • shrapnel fragmentation
  • seismic effect
519
Q

Boiling point?

A

temperature at which vapor pressure is equal to or greater than atmospheric pressure

520
Q

persistence

A

length of time a chemical agent remains effective without dissipating

521
Q

Reactive materials?

A

-unstable chemicals that react violently when combined with air, water, heat, light or other materials

522
Q

The reactivity triangle includes?

A
  • Oxidizing agent
  • Reducing agent (fuel)
  • activation energy
523
Q

Activation energy is usually supplied by?

524
Q

Strong oxidizers?

A

Materials that readily give off large quantities of oxygen

525
Q

Inhibitor

A

substance that slows down or prevents a chemical reaction, typically added to materials that are prone to polymerization

526
Q

polymerization?

A

a catalyst causes molecules to combine into a chain

527
Q

Carboy?

A

Cylindrical container of about 5-15 gallon capacity used to for pure or corrosive liquids

528
Q

Non-pressure tank cars have pressure below? Pressure tank cars have pressures above?

529
Q

US DOT Class

A

Class 1: Explosives
Class 2: Gases
Class 3: Flammable and Combustible Liquids
Class 4: Flammable Solids, Spontaneously Combustible Materials and Dangerous When Wet Materials
Class 5: Oxidizers and Organic Peroxides
Class 6: Poison and Poison Inhalation Hazard
Class 7: Radioactive Materials
Class 8: Corrosive Materials
Class 9: Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods

530
Q

NFPA 704 Colors?

A

Red (top) Flammability
Blue (left) Health
Yellow (right) Instability
White (bottom) Special Hazard

531
Q

Bill of Lading

A

Shipping paper that describes the cargo, origin, destination, route; typically placed in the cab of every tractor truck

532
Q

Train consist?

A

lists the entire cargo

533
Q

Incident Levels?

A

Level 1: Within the capabilities of fire/ emergency services organization
Level 2: Beyond the capabilities of the first responders on scene and may be beyond the capabilities of the organization having jurisdiction
Level 3: Type of incident requires state/federal resources

534
Q

ERG page colors?

A

Blue: Lists hazmats by name
Yellow: Lists hazmat in numerical order based on their 4 digit UN/NA ID
Orange: Initial action pages
Green: Table lists (by ID) TIH materials and water reactive materials that produce toxic gas upon contact with water–provides two recommended safe distances: initial isolation distance and protective action distances
“P” designation: polymerization risk
Highlighted entries: toxic inhalation hazards

535
Q

Protective action distance?

A

Downwind distance from a hazmat incident within which protective actions should be implemented

536
Q

Small vs Large Spill Sizes (ERG)

A

Small: 53 gallons or less
Large: More than 53 gallons

537
Q

Level A Protection

A

Highest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection that can be provided by PPE

538
Q

Level B Protection

A

PPE that provides the highest level of respiratory protection but a lesser level of skin protection

539
Q

Level C Protectoin

A

PPE that provides a lesser level of respiratory and skin protection than A or B. Consists of a full-face of half-mask APR, hooded chemical resistant suit, inner and outer gloves and chemical resistant boots

540
Q

Level D protection

A

PPE that provides the lowest level of respiratory and skin protection, consists of coveralls, gloves and chemical-resistant boots or shoes

541
Q

Isolation perimeter?

A

boundary established to prevent access by the public and unauthorized persons

542
Q

Hazard Control Zones?

A

hot, warm, cold

543
Q

Nuclear fall out rule of 7?

A

Every sevenfold increase in time that radioactivity level due to fallout decreases by a factor of 10

544
Q

When you double the distance from a point source (radioactivity) divides the dose by?

545
Q

In most cases triage should be conducted in the what zone?

A

Cold zone after decontamination has been performed

546
Q

Technical Decontamination

A

Chemical or physical methods to thoroughly remove or neutralize contaminants from responders PPE and equipment

547
Q

Absorption?

A

occurs when one material enters the cell structure of another and is retained within

548
Q

Adsorption

A

molecules of the hazmat material physically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being absorbed into the inner spaces of an absorbent material

549
Q

Dissoultion?

A

Process of dissolving a gas in water is called dissolution

MTech Test (19 decks)

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