Essentials Book Flashcards
1
Q
Define culture
A
The shared assumptions, beliefs, and values of a group or organization
2
Q
Define Jargon
A
the specialized or technical language of a trade, profession or similar group
3
Q
What is the basic unit of fire fighting operations?
A
a company
4
Q
NFPA 1001?
A
Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications
5
Q
NFPA 1582
A
Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments
6
Q
NFPA 1500?
A
Standard on Fire Department Occupational Health and Safety Program
7
Q
Unity of Command?
A
Each employee reports directly to just on supervisor
8
Q
Division of Labor?
A
Process of dividing large jobs into smaller jobs in order to make them more manageable, equalize workloads and increase efficiency
9
Q
Define policy?
A
A guide to decision making within an organization–policies set boundaries and establish standards of conduct that an organization expects from its members
10
Q
Define procedures?
A
Detailed written plans that list specific steps for approaching a recurring problem or situation
11
Q
Define Standard?
A
a set of principles, protocols, or procedures that is developed by committees through consensus
12
Q
Define code?
A
a collection of rules and regulations that has been enacted by law in a particular jurisdiction
13
Q
What is the leading cause of death for firefighters?
A
stress or overexertion
14
Q
What were the leading injuries to firefighters?
A
Stains and sprains followed by cuts and bruises
15
Q
What percent of firefighters are overweight?
A
40%
16
Q
NFPA 1971?
A
Standard on Protective Ensembles for Structural Firefighting
17
Q
NFPA 1975?
A
Standard on Station/Work Uniforms for Emergency Services
18
Q
What is a risk management plan?
A
Written plan that analyzes the exposure to hazards, implements appropriate risk management techniques and establishes criteria for monitoring their effectiveness
19
Q
What are the five causes for fire apparatus collisions?
A
- improper backing
- excessive speed
- lack of driving skill and experience
- reckless driving by the public
- poor apparatus design or maintenance
20
Q
Define defensive driving?
A
anticipating potential hazards and developing strategies to dea with them
21
Q
How far apart should multiple emergency vehicles travel?
A
300-500’
22
Q
What is driver reaction distance?
A
The distance the apparatus travels from when the driver operator realizes the need to stop until the driver/operator’s foot touches the brake pedal
23
Q
Define braking distance?
A
the distance the apparatus travels form when the driver touches the brake until the vehicle is completely stopped
24
Q
Define total stopping distance
A
The sum of the driver reaction distance and the braking distance
25
The only exception to the rule of never stand on or in moving apparatus is?
while loading hose as the apparatus slowly moves forward (5mph or less)
26
What are unpowered tools?
Hand tools
27
Electrical tools not marked "double insulated" should have what?
three prong plug
28
What are control zones?
hot, warm and cold zones
29
What are the reasons a collapse zone is established?
- prolonged heat or fire have weakened the structure
- a defensive strategy has been adopted
- interior operations cannot be justified
30
What are external communications?
Requests from the public for both emergency and non emergency assistance
31
What are internal communications?
Consists primarily of radio transmissions between units and individuals during emergency operations
32
What is the central location that takes all emergency calls and routes the call to the fire, ems, or police dispatcher?
Public Safety Answering Point
33
What are the four main limitations or barriers to all radio transmissions?
- distance
- physical barries
- interference
- ambient noise
34
The generally accepted communication model consists of 6 basic elements which are?
- sender
- message
- receiver
- feedback to sender
- interference
35
What are the ABCs of good communication?
A-Accurate
B-Brief
C-Concise
36
What are some reasons the IC can request a PAR?
- 15 min intervals
- incident declared U/C
- change from offensive to defensive
- sudden catastrophic event
- emergency evac
- firefighter reported missing or in distress
- primary search has been completed
- Safety Officer requests one
37
What affects how wood reacts to fire conditions?
size and moisture content
38
Pressure treating wood reduces its load carrying ability by as much as?
25%
39
What are the two types of iron that can be found in buildings?
Cast and wrought
40
Wrought iron and cast iron are connected differently, how are they connected?
Wrought iron is usually riveted or welded together
| Cast iron is bolted or screwed
41
Spalling?
Expansion of excess moisture within masonry materials due to exposure to the heat of a fire, resulting in tensile forces within the material and causing it to break apart. The expansion causes sections of the material's surface to violently disintegrate, resulting in explosive pitting or chipping of the materials surface
42
A 50' steel beam may elongate by at much as ___ inches when heated from room temperature to about 1000.
4"
43
At what temperature can failure of steel structural members be anticipated?
1000
44
Curtain Wall?
nonload bearing wall, often of glass and steel, fixed to the outside of a building and serving especially as cladding
45
In lath and plaster, the lath is oriented?
horizontally
46
Every building is composed of the following building elements?
- structural frame
- floor construction
- roof construction
47
Type 1 construction?
fire resistive
48
Type II construction?
noncombustible or limited combustible
49
Type III construction
Ordinary
50
Type IV heavy timber construction, structural members will be of what size and have a fire resistance rating of?
8" and 2 hours
51
Type V constuction?
wood frame or stick frame
52
What percentage do manufactured homes make up of all housing sales in the US?
25%
53
Reference occupancy classification, structures may be divided into either _____ occupancies or ____ occupancies.
single use or separated use
54
What are the three prevalent roof types?
flat, pitched, and arched
55
Types of roof styles?
Check pic on phone
56
What are the four types of arched roofs?
- bowstring
- ribbed
- diagonal grid (lamella)
- pleated barrel
57
What are the three main components roofs are made of?
- roof supporting structure
- roof deck or sheathing
- roof covering
58
What is generally used to support flat roofs and floor assemblies?
parallel chord truss
59
Rafter?
inclined beam that supports a roof, runs parallel to the slope of the roof and to which the roof decking is attached
60
Joists?
horizontal structural members used to support a ceiling or floor. Drywall materials are nailed or screwed to the ceiling joists and the subfloor is nailed or screwed to the floor joists
61
What are referred to as wide flange beams?
box beams and I-beams
62
Purlin?
Horizontal member between trusses that supports the roof
63
What are the two types of concrete roofs?
Precast and poured in place
64
Live load?
Items within a building that are movable but are not included as a permanent part of the structure; merchandise, stock, furnishings, occupants, firefighters, and the water used for fire suppression are examples of live loads. Also force placed upon a structure by the addition of people, objects or weather
65
What are the five types of doors?
- swinging
- sliding
- folding
- vertical
- revolving
66
Fire doors made with terneplate are commonly referred to as?
tin-clad doors
67
All windows contain glass known as...?
glazing
68
Fixed windows are also known as?
- display windows
- picture windows
- deadlights
69
What are the two primary types of dangerous conditions that may be posed by a particular building?
- conditions that contribute to the spread and intensity of the fire
- conditions that make the building susceptible to collapse
70
What is one of the most critical hazards in commercial, industrial and storage facilities?
heavy fuel load
71
What kind of roof covering can significantly contribute to fire spread?
wood shakes
72
Unprotected engineered steel and wooden trusses can fail after?
5-10 minutes of exposure to fire
73
During what stage of the fire is collapse very likely?
Decay stage and during post suppression activities
74
Contents can be a factor contributing to collapse in three ways?
- generating higher temperatures and rapid combustion
- causing collapse more rapidly due to added dead weight
- increasing stress on structural members due to increased weight from water retention
75
250gpm adds how much weight of water per minute to the structure?
1 ton
76
What is physical science?
The study of matter and energy
77
When does a physical change occur?
When a substance remains chemically the same but changes in size, shape, or appearance (water freezing)
78
When does a chemical reaction occur?
When a substance changes from one type of matter into another, such as two or more substances combining to form compounds
79
Oxidation?
A chemical reaction involving the combination of an oxidizer, such as 02 in the air with other materials
80
Oxidizer?
Material that readily yields oxygen or other oxidizing gas, or that readily reacts to promote or initiate combustion of combustible materials
81
Energy?
The capacity to perform work. Work occurs when a force is applied to an object over a distance or when a substance undergoes a chemical, biological or physical change
82
Potential energy?
stored energy possessed by an object that can be released in the future to perform work once released
83
Kinetic Energy
the energy possessed by a body because of its motion
84
What is the measure for energy?
Joules
85
How many joules is necessary to change the temp of one gram of water by one degree celsius?
4.2 J
86
What is a BTU (British Thermal Unit)?
amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of water 1 degrees F
87
How many Joules = 1BTU?
1055J
88
Exothermic reactions?
Reactions that emit energy (fire)
89
Reactions that absorb energy as they occur are?
endothermic reactions
90
Piloted ignition?
moment when a mix of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat source with sufficient heat or thermal energy to start the combustion reaction
91
Autoignition
initiation of combustion by heat but without a spark or flame
92
What are the two modes of combustion?
nonflaming and flaming
93
passive agent?
materials that absorb heat but do not participate actively in the combustion process (drywall/gypsum board)
94
CO combines with hemoglobin more than ____ times faster than 02 does.
200x
95
CO is created by?
incomplete combustion of carbon containing material
96
HCN is created by
the combustion of materials containing nitrogen
97
Co2 is a product of ____ combustion of organic materials?
complete
98
How many irritants are in smoke?
over 20
99
Thermal Energy is also known as?
heat
100
What is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions?
Chemical energy
101
Self-heating?
a form of oxidation, is a chemical reaction that increases the temperature of a material without the addition of external heat
102
Arching vs. sparking
Arc-high temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium
Sparking-when an arc occurs, luminous particles can be formed and spatter away from the point of arcing (spattering is the sparking)
103
Conduction
transfer of heat through or between solids that are in direct contact
104
convection
heat transfer by circulation within a medium such as a gas or a liquid
105
radiation
heat transfer by way of electromagnetic energy
106
How is mechanical energy generated?
friction or compression
107
Heat transfer due to conduction is dependent upon three factors...
- area being heated
- temperature difference between the heat source and the material being heated
- thermal conductivity of the heated material
108
Lateral currents are the result of?
differences in pressure
109
Radiant heat increases by a factor of what as the temperature of the heat source increases?
4
110
Heat Release Rate?
total amount of heat released per unit time. HRR is measured in KW and MW of outputs
111
Reducing Agent?
the fuel that is being oxidized or burned during combustion
112
Power?
the rate at which energy is being transferred over time
113
At sea level atmosphere exerts a pressure of ____?
14.7 psi
114
The pressure that vapors escaping from a liquid exert is known as?
vapor pressure
115
flash point?
minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite, but not sustain combustion
116
fire point?
the temperature at which sufficient vapors are being generated to sustain the combustion reaction
117
What mixes readily with water?
polar solvents
118
What temperature does pyrolysis of wood begin?
400
119
The required temperature for ignition of the vapors being given off by wood is?
1000-1300
120
What is the primary oxidizing agent in most fires?
oxygen in the air
121
At normal ambient temperatures (68) materials can ignite and burn at 02 concentrations as low as?
14%
122
Oxygen deficient/enriched
19.5%, 23.5%
123
Free radicals?
molecular fragments that are highly reactive
124
Chemical flame inhibition?
Extinguishment of a fire by interruption of the chemical chain reaction
125
Room or compartment fires take two forms:
fuel controlled and ventilation controlled
126
insulation?
contains heat within the compartment causing a localized increase in the temperature and fire growth
127
heat reflectivity?
increases fire spread through the transfer of radiant heat from wall surfaces to adjacent fuel sources
128
retention
maintains temperature by absorbing and releasing large amounts of heat slowly
129
Cold temperatures can cause smoke to appear?
White
130
Plume?
The column of hot gases, flames and smoke rising above a fire; also called convection column, thermal updraft, or thermal column
131
Mushrooming, when hot gases begin the spread horizontally across the ceiling is referred to as?
ceiling jet
132
The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as?
neutral plane
133
What are the four common elements of flashover?
- transition in fire development
- rapidity
- compartment
- ignition of all exposed surfaces
134
What ceiling temperature does flashover typically occur at?
1100
135
Protective coats used for structural firefighting is made of three components:
outer shell, moisture barrier and thermal barrier
136
What is the maximum noise exposure level?
90 decibels
137
Pass alarm activates when a firefighter is motionless for more than ___ seconds
30 seconds
138
How loud must the PASS device be and it must go off for at least how long?
95 decibels and continuously for at least one hour
139
What is the best protection for responders on the roadway?
Be visible to other motorists and work behind a barrier formed by your apparatus
140
Work uniforms perform two functions?
1) identify the wearer as a member of the organization
| 2) provide a layer of protection against direct flame contact
141
What are the four types of cleaning for PPE?
- routine-does not require that clothing be removed from service
- advanced-personnel trained in the care of gear should do this--likely use a gear washer
- specialized- when clothing is contaminated with hazardous materials or body fluids that cannot be removed by routine or advanced cleaning
- contract- specialized cleaning performed by the manufacturer, its representative or a certified vendor
142
PPE that is carried in personal vehicles should be placed in what?
closable garment bags intended for that purpose
143
What temperature do burns occur at?
1st- skin temp hits 118
2nd- 131
3rd- 152
144
At what 02 percentage does the human body increase its respiratory rate?
18%
145
Particulates bigger than what size are filtered by the nasal membranes?
1 micrometer
146
The two categories of respiratory protection equipment are atmosphere supplying respirators (ASRs) and air-purifying respirators (APRs). What is the difference?
ASRs- provide breathable air when working in oxygen deficient, toxic or gas filled atmospheres
APRs- filter particulates out of the ambient air
147
What are the two types of ASRs?
- SCBA
| - supplied air respirators
148
What are the two types of SCBA?
Open circuit-uses compressed air
| Closed circuit-uses compressed O2
149
What are the four basic components of SCBA?
- backplate and harness assembly
- air cylinder assembly
- regulator assembly
- facepiece assembly
150
What are the two types of fit tests?
Qualitative-measures the wearer's response to a test agent
| Quantiative-measures the amount of a test agent that has leaked into the respirator from the ambient atmosphere
151
How long must a firefighter wearing contact lenses demonstrate use without any problems in order to be approved to wear while wearing SCBA?
6 months
152
The UAC connection on SCBA is to be located within how many inches of the cylinder outlet?
4inches
153
Particulate filters have three categories of filter degradtion...
N- not resistant to oil
R- resistant to oil
P- used when oil or non-oil lubricants are present
154
Air cylinders should have no less than ___% of cylinder capacity?
90%
155
The frequency SCBA are inspected must not exceed?
1 week
156
What type of cylinders have an indefinite service life until they fail a hydro test?
steel and aluminum
157
With the exception of steel and aluminum cylinders all others have a service life of?
15 years
158
Hydro static test intervals on cylinders are as follows:
steel, aluminum, and fully wrapped carbon fiber- every 5 years
hoop-wrapped aluminum, fully wrapped fiberglass, fully wrapped kevlar- every 3 years
159
There are three breathing air sources that may be used to refill depleted SCBA air cylinder, they are and they must provide what grade air?
- stationary fill systems
- mobile fill systems
- Firefighter Breathing Air Replenishment Systems installed in high rises buildings
-Type 1 Grade D quality air
160
What is the only time an individual can work alone in an IDLH?
confined space where two members cannot fit
161
There are five classes of portable extinguishers they are:
```
A-ordinary combustibles
B-Flammable and combustible liquids and gases
C-energized electrical equipment
D-combustible metals and alloys
K- combustible cooking oils
```
162
Wet chemical systems?
Extinguishing system that uses a wet chemical solution as the primary extinguishing agent; usually installed in range hoods and associated ducting where grease may accumulate.
163
Extinguishing agents use at least one of the following methods to extinguish fires:
- smothering
- cooling
- chain breaking
- saponification--forming an oxygen-excluding soapy foam surface
164
If water type extinguishers are going to be exposed to temperatures below what shall they be protected against freezing?
40degrees
165
All portable extinguishers use one of the following methods to expel their contents:
- manual pump
- stored pressure
- pressure cartridge--compressed inert gas contained in a separate cartridge on the side of the container
166
Deionized water is used in what kind of extinguishers?
water mist extinguishers
167
Wet chemical extinguishers contain?
A special potassium-based low pH agent formulated to operate on the principle of saponification
168
AFFF extinguishers are most effective on?
static pools of flammable liquids
169
Halon has been replaced by?
clean agents, which cool and smother fires in class a and class B, also are nonconductive so they can be used on energized electrical equipment
170
Dry powder is used for?
Class D
171
How much pressure is maintained in the agent storage tank of a dry chem extinguisher?
200psi
172
What are the two gases used as pressurizing gas in dry chem extinguishers?
nitrogen or CO2
173
How are Class A extinguishers rated?
1a-40a, 1A 1 1/4 gallons are requied, 2A 2 1/2 gallons of water required
174
How are class B extinguishers rated?
1B-640B
Based on the approximate square foot of flammable liquid fire that a nonexpert operator can extinguish using one full extinguisher
175
Class K extinguishers have a minimum requirement of?
Must be able to extinguish a fire from a deep fryer using light oils with a surface area of 2.25 square feet
176
Name the letter/image symbol for each extinguisher class?
```
A-triangle/pile of wood
B-square/ gas can
C-circle/ electrical plug
D-star/ half of a gear
K-hexagon/ frying pan
```
177
Dry Chemical extinguishers have corrosive particulate residue so they should not be used where...
highly sensitive computer equipment is located
178
What are the three factors that determine the value of a fire extinguisher?
- serviceability
- accessibility
- simplicity of operation
179
Extinguishers should be inspected at least
weekly
180
If an extinguisher is deficient in weight by how much should it be removed from service?
10%
181
How often should a dry chem extinguisher be emptied and refilled?
Every 6 years
182
What is the only rope suitable for life safety applications?
block creel construction using continuous filament virgin fiber for load bearing elements
183
What kind of rope has excellent resistance to water, mildew, mold, rotting, shrinkage, and the effects of ultraviolet light?
Also:
- Longer life span than natural fiber rope
- It is very strong yet lightweight
- It is easy to maintain
Disadvantage:
-Melt when exposed to heat
Synthetic fiber rope
184
Natural fiber ropes have what advantages and disadvantages?
Advantages:
- resistant to sunlight
- does not melt when exposed to heat
- holds a knot firmly
Disadvantages:
- prone to mildew and mold
- deteriorates when exposed to chemicals
- burns when in contact with embers or open flame
185
What are the four most common types of rope?
- kernmantle
- laid
- braided
- braid on braid
186
Kernmantle rope is use for?
Life safety
187
How is kernamentle rope constructed?
it is a jacketed synthetic rope composed of a braid covering or sheath (mantle) over a core (kern) of the main load bearing strands
188
Kernmantle core is made of?
High strength fibers, usually nylon which accounts for 75% of the ropes strength
189
What is the difference between dynamic and static kernmantle rope and when are they used differently?
Dynamic (high stretch)-used when long falls are a possiblity
Static (low stretch)-used for most rope rescue operations, must not elongate more than 10% when tested under a load equal to 10% of its breaking strength
190
Laid rope?
Constructed by twisting fibers together to form strands then twisting the strands (typically 3) together to make the final rope. Most natural fiber ropes and some synthetic ropes are this type. Used exclusively as utility rope.
191
What is a disadvantage of laid ropes?
They are susceptible to abrasion and other physical damage
192
Braided rope?
rope constructed by uniformly intertwining strands or rope together
193
Braid on braid rope?
a braided core enclosed in a braied, herringbone patterned sheath (also known as double braided rope)
Very strong with half its strength in the core and half in the jacket
194
Each rope should be inspected at least?
once a year
195
When inspecting a rope what are you checking for?
imbedded shards of glass, metal shavings, wood splinters or other foreign objects that can damage the fibers. If any are found remove from service.
196
Ruptured fibers and powdering between strands indicate?
the rope has been overloaded
197
powdering between strands indicates?
internal wear
198
Sharp angles, bends and knots can reduce strength by as much as?
50%
199
Never subject a rope to sustained load for longer than?
2 days
200
If a rust stain is halfway through the rope how much strength of the rope is lost?
50%
201
Synthetic fiber ropes should be washed in?
lukewarm to warm water, with a mild detergent or fabric softener added to loosen imbedded dirt particles
202
What shall not be used when cleaning natural fiber ropes?
water
203
What sewing method is used with webbing to prevent edge-stitched webbing from becoming unstiched?
lock-stitching
204
What class harness is intended to be used for emergency escape and what weight rating does it have?
emergency escape and load up to 300lbs
205
What is the difference in a class I and class II harness?
Class II is rated for loads up to 600lbs
206
Class III harness?
full body harness, rated for loads up to 600lbs
207
When tying knots a rope is divided into three parts:
working end: used to tie the knot or hitch
running part: the free end that is used for hoisting or pulling
standing part: the section between the working end and the running part
208
The tighter the bend in a rope the ropes strength....
more is lost
209
There are three names for the bends which are?
- bight: is formed by simply bending the rope back on itself while keeping the sides parallel
- loop: crossing the side of a bight over the standing part
- round turn: consists of further bending one side of a loop
210
What is the safety knot?
overhand knot
211
Priority of searches:
1) most severely threatened
2) largest numbers
3) remainder of hazard zone
4) exposures
212
Oriented search method?
team leader remains anchored at the door, wall or hoseline, while other team members spread out through the room to complete the search
213
A search line is typically?
200' of 3/8" rope with a kevlar sheath
214
About how far from the entry point is the end of the searched rope tied and at what height?
10' away from the entrance and 3' high, a tag indicating unit is left at that point as well
215
What team member carries the rope bag?
the lead
216
The person that is next to the "lead" and directs the lead is called?
the navigator
217
In a search rope a 2 in steel ring is tied every how many feet, directly behind each ring, one or more knots are tied indicating?
Steel ring every 20', every knot indicates 20' from the beginning of the line...knots towards the fire, rings towards the exit
218
Search line tethers are?
20' lengths of 1/4" rope with a kevlar sheath. Each tether has a steel ring tied to one end, a knot at the midpoint and a carabiner at the other end
219
Even in an emergency you should never pull a victim...
sideways
220
point of no return?
point at which air in the scba will only last long enough to exit a hazardous atmosphere
221
What are your three possible actions if you are involved in a Mayday?
- remaining in place
- seeking safe haven
- esacping
222
Which way is it easier to move in an entanglement?
back the way you came
223
Digital radio transceivers enable lost or disoriented firefighters to be easily located, they operate on what frequency and have what range?
457kHz and 100' range
224
Is buddy breathing recommended?
No, unreliable and likely to produce two victims instead of one
225
Auxiliary Electrical Equipment consists of:
- electrical cables
- extension cords
- receptacles
- connectors
- junction boxes
- adapters
- ground fault circuit interrupter
226
What must auxiliary equipment be?
-waterproof
-intrinsically safe
designed for the amount of electrical current is intended to carry
227
Signs of arcing on plugs is indicated by?
presence of carbon soot around the ground electrode
228
You should avoid starting a generator when?
It is under a load
229
You should not run a generator for a long time...
without a load
230
Spreaders are used for....and can spread as much as?
pushing and pulling...32"
231
Cutters typically have an opening spread of approximately?
7 inches
232
Extension rams open force is how much greater than their closing force?
2x
233
Whizzer saw cuts through?
Case hardened locks and up to 3/4" of steel, driven by compressed air at 90psi it will run approx. 3mins on a full cylinder
234
Air chisels operate between what psi?
90-250psi
235
What are the two types of screw jacks and which one is typically used to support collapsed structural members?
bar screw jack and the trench screw jack
-bar screw jacks are typically used to support collapsed structural members
236
What is the least stable of all jacks?
ratchet-lever jacks (high-lift jacks)
237
What is a buttress tension system used for?
Stabilize a vehicle that is resting on its side or top (min. 3 4x4 posts wedged between the ground and vehicle)
238
Wheel chocks placed on the downhill side of the rear tires can hold a vehicle in place at what grade?
10-15%
239
What is the maximum amount of time you can pull with a winch when operating at or near capacity?
1 minute
240
When draping a blanket or object over the winch cable where should it be placed?
5-6' from the hook
241
How do you place the hook when winching?
So its back is facing the ground or facing away from the winch operator
242
What kind of chain can be used in rescue operations?
only alloy steel chain
243
What is the primary hazard at motor vehicle accidents?
traffic
244
After disconnecting the battery airbags can still be live up to?
60 minutes
245
Electric and hybrid vehicles have wires that carry as much as ___ volts?
650
246
When securing the electrical system what cable do you cut first?
negative cable
247
With electric vehicles, removing the key to a safe distance of ___?
25'
248
With electric cars how long do you consider the electrical system unsafe after the ignition has been shut down?
10 minutes
249
What is the 5-10-12-18-20 rules?
5- inches away from side-impact air bags and knee bolsters
10- inches away from driver frontal air bags
12-18- inches away from side impact curtains
20- inches away from passenger frontal air bags
250
When removing the roof of a vehicle a step chock or other support should always be placed?
under the B post
251
Pancake collapse?
occur when exterior walls collapse simultaneously
252
V-shaped collapse?
occurs when outer walls remain intact and the upper floors and or roof structure fall into the middle
253
Lean to collapse?
occurs when one outer wall fails while the opposite wall remains intact
254
A-frame collapse?
Occurs when the floor and/or roof assemblies on both sides of a load-bearing center wall collapse
255
Cantilever collapse
occurs when one or more walls of a multistory building collapse, leaving the floors attached to and supported by the remaining walls
256
Supplied air systems have hoses up to how many feet?
300'
257
O-A-T-H signaling method
O-one tug=OK
A-two tug=Advance
T-three tug=take up
H-four tug=help
258
Low Head Dam
create a pool of standing water in a river or stream. Water recirculates as it passes over the face of the dam, creating powerful undercurrents
259
Trench Safety Guidelines
- cordon off an area 100' in each direction from trench
- eliminate sources of vibration within 500' of trench
- place exit ladders no more than 50' apart
- ladders should extend 3' above the top of the trench
260
What kind of elevator provides a scenic view for passengers?
observation elevator
261
The majority of escalator rescues results from
victim's fingers and toes becoming caught between the step treats and guard plates or sandals becoming wedged between the treads
262
What does lockset descibe?
All types of doors latches, locks, and locking devices
263
What are the three basic types of locks/ describe each?
Mostrise: mounted into a cavity in the door edge
Cylindrical: most common type of lockset found in residential, key in knob lock and tubular dead bolt locks are the two types
Rim Lock: Mounted on the interior door surface and is used as a supplemental lock for doors that may or may not have other types of locks
264
Rim Lock-Night Latch?
-rim lock has a spring-loaded bolt with a beveled edge facing the door frame, this feature allows the door to lock when it is closed
265
Rim Lock- Dead Bolt?
-this rim lock has a rectangular bolt that must be manually retracted before the door can be closed and the bolt engaged with the receiver.
266
Rim Lock-Vertical Dead Bolt
-Has a bolt that slides vertically into the receiver and does not cross the door opening. This feature makes it impossible to open by spreading the door from the doorjamb.
267
multiple bolt locks?
a dead bolt lock that, when engaged, projects bolts 1in into two or three point on one edge of the door
268
With electromagnetic locks how can you release the door?
By shutting the power
269
Standard vs. Heavy Duty Padlocks
Standard: Have shackles or 1/4in or less in diameter and are not case hardened steel
Heavy Duty: case hardened steel shackles more than 1/4in in diameter, many have toe and heel locking
270
What are the four basic categories of forcible entry tools?
- cutting
- prying
- pushing/pulling
- striking
271
What is the head of a pick head axe made of?
case hardened steel
272
Can bolt cutters be used on case hardened materials?
No
273
Must pry tools are constructed from?
A single-piece high carbon steel approximately 30-36in
274
Rambars have what on them?
A sliding weight on a shaft that is used to drive the wedge or fork into an opening
275
What has two knifelike wings that depress as the head is driven through a ceiling?
Plaster hook
276
Battering Ram weight?
30-40lbs
277
When are cheater bars allowed?
Never
278
Which is more likely to cause an accident, a dull saw or a sharp one?
Dull saw
279
Never carry a power tool that is operating more than ____ feet.
10
280
Wooden handles and fiberglass handles should be washed by?
washing the handle with mild detergent, rinsing and wiping dry
281
How do you remove dirt and rust from unprotected metal surfaces?
Emery cloth or steel wool
282
What oil works best for unprotected metal surfaces?
light machine oil
283
To be intrinsically safe electrical cords must have
its sheathing and insulation intact
284
What is the most common type of door?
One that swings at least 90 degrees to open and close
285
Double acting swinging door are capable of?
Swinging 180 degrees
286
How much clearance is needed for a K tool?
1/2in
287
What can cause more damage to the door, A tool or K tool?
A tool
288
What tool is made of heavy gauge wire designed to fit through the space between double swinging doors equipped with panic hardware?
J tool
289
What tool screws into the keyway of a padlock?
bam-bam tool
290
What locks will a bam-bam tool not work on?
master locks, american locks and other high security locks
291
When forcing overhead doors what dimensions should you cut?
A square or rectangular opening 6' high and nearly full width of the door
292
To reduce the effect of wind entering through windows broken for entry what can be done?
Place wet canvas tarps or fire retardant tarps over these openings
293
Jalousie windows?
Window consists of small sections about 4in high
294
Lexan strength?
250x stronger than safety glass
30x stronger than acrylic
classified as self extinguishing
295
When using a rotary saw to cut through lexan what kind of blade do you want and how do you make the cuts?
- carbide tipped, medium toothed blade (approx. 40 teeth)
| - Make horizontal cuts first, then the vertical cuts
296
The traditional approach to breaching a masonry wall has been?
Using a battering ram
297
What is one of the fastest and efficient ways to cut through concrete walls?
Chain saw equipped with a diamond tipped chain
298
Wooden floor joists can be spaced?
12-24 inches apart
299
Wooden I beams are generally spaced?
24ins apart
300
The most efficient tool for cutting concrete floors may be?
a pneumatic or hydraulic jackhammer
301
Folding ladders are designed to support a maximum weight of?
300lbs
302
Single, roof, combination and extension ladders must support a weight of
750lbs
303
Footpads?
also called shoes, swivel plates attached to the butt of the ladder, usually have rubber or neoprene bottom surfaces
304
Ladder protection plates?
strips of metal attached to ladders at chafing points
305
Rails (ladders)?
Two lengthwise members of a trussed ladder beam that are separated by truss or separation blocks
306
tie rods (ladders)
metal rods located beneath rungs extending from one beam to the other of a wood ladder
307
truss block (ladders)
spacers set between the rails of a trussed ladder, sometimes used to support rungs
308
What is the most common type of metal ladders?
Heat treated aluminum
309
At what temperature can metal ladders fail suddenly?
heat in excess of 200 degrees
310
Wooden ladders have different types of wood for different parts of the ladder what are they?
Beams-Douglas Fire
Rungs- Hickory
Pulley blocks, slide glides, other misc parts- Red Oak
311
What type of ladder conduct heat, cold or electricity?
fiberglass
312
The designated ladder length must be marked on each beam within how many inches of the butt plate?
12inches
313
Ladders heat sensor is set to?
300 degrees
314
When shall ladders be inspected?
After each use and on a monthly basis
315
When shall ground ladders be service tested?
before being placed in service, annually while in service, and after any use that exposes them to high heat or rough treatment
316
What is the most effective tools for cleaning ladders?
Soft bristle brush and running water
317
You cannot paint ladders except for the top and bottom ___ inches?
18in
318
Do not raise any ladders within ____' of electrical wires?
10
319
Never overload the ladder means firefighters every?
10' or one per section
320
A residential story averages ____ and the distance from floor to windowsill averages about____.
10' and 3'
321
A commercial story averages ____ and the distance from floor to windowsill is _____?
12' and 4'
322
```
Ladder Selection Guide:
1st story roof-
2nd story window-
2nd story roof-
3rd story window or roof-
4th story roof-
```
```
1st story roof-16-20'
2nd story window-20-28'
2nd story roof-28-25'
3rd story window or roof-40-50'
4th story roof-over 50'
```
323
What is the climbing angle of ladders?
75 degrees
324
For lengths of 35' or less reach is approximately ___ less than designated length, for lengths greater than 35' reach is approximately _____ less than designated length.
1', 2'
325
When carrying a roof ladder up a ladder you should place your shoulder at ___ to ____ rungs from the tip.
3-4
326
When there are two firefighters at the butt which one is responsible for placement?
The one on the right
327
The easiest way to determine the proper distance between the butt of the ladder and the building is to?
Divide the working length of the ladder by 4.
328
What ladders are designed to be used with the fly in?
Wood
329
One firefighter can safely shift a single ladder that is ____' or less.
20'
330
What are the two methods for securing a ladder?
heeling and tying in
331
How many firefighters are needed to bring a victim down a ladder?
4
332
What are air flow indicators?
- velocity
- turbulence
- direcction
- movement of the neutral plane
333
The most important weather-related influence on ventilation is?
Wind
334
The means used for horizontal and vertical ventilation are?
natural, mechanical and hydraulic
335
When using natural ventilation windows on what side of the building should be opened first?
leeward side
336
What is the oldest type of mechanical ventilation?
negative pressure
337
The open areas around a smoke ejector should be?
Properly sealed
338
When using PPV on a normal single 3' wide door the distance between the door and the fan should be?
4-6'
339
With hydraulic ventilation the nozzle is set on a fog pattern that will cover what percentage of the opening, and about how far back from the opening should the nozzle tip be?
85-90% and at least 2' back from the opening
340
What is the easiest and fastest inspection hole to cut?
kerf cut
341
When a truss is in the middle of a roof cut what kind of cut is used?
Louver cut
342
An initial vertical ventilation opening on a flat roof should be no smaller than?
4x8
343
A trench cut must be created at least ____' ahead of the advancing fire.
30'
344
How wide is a trench cut?
3-4' wide
345
What are the two basic types of water supply systems?
Public and Private
346
How much saltier is seawater than fresh water?
220x
347
A gravity system?
Delivers water from the source or treatment plant to the distribution system without pumping equipment
348
In order for a gravity system to effective there must be an elevation difference of at least?
100'
349
Direct pumping system?
Pump placed near water source or treatment plant to create required pressure
350
Grid/gridiron?
the interlocking network of water mains that compose a water distribution system
351
Primary feeder
16-72" pipes, arterial mains
352
Secondary Feeders?
-12-14" pipes
353
Distributors (water)
6-8" pipes
354
What is the maximum length for valve spacing in a water system?
- 500' in high value districts
| - 800' in other areas
355
Isolation valves should be opened and closed at least?
Once a year
356
Opening a hydrant, and other valves involves turning the stem?
counterclockwise
357
FIre hydrant spacing?
- no more than 300' in high value districs
| - every other intersection for everything else
358
A hydrant that receives water from more than one direction is said to
be a circulating hydrant that has a circulating feed or a looped system
359
Fire hydrant bonnets, barrels and foot pieces are made of?
cast iron
360
Fire hydrant internal working parts are made of?
bronze
361
Hydrants containing non-potable water are colored?
violet
362
Hydrants should be inspected and operated?
twice a year
363
Hydrant color markings?
Class AA- Light Blue, 1500gpm or greater
Class A- Green, 1000-1499gpm
Class B- Orange, 500-999gpm
Class C- Red, 500gpm or less
364
What is the minimum amount of water necessary above and below the hard intake strainer?
24"
365
Floating strainers can draft in water as shallow as?
24"
366
Water shuttle operations are recommended for distances greater than ____ from the nearest fire hydrant or water supply.
1/2 mile
367
The diameter of a fire hose refers to its?
Inside diameter
368
Soft sleeve hose is a minimum of?
15'
369
What are the three categories of couplings?
- cast: very weak and only found on occupant-use fire hose
- extruded: mad of aluminum or aluminum alloy
- drop forged: made of brass or other malleable metal, strongest and most expensive
370
Both a male and female coupling together are considered a?
set (three-piece coupling) (male has one piece, female two)
371
The flattened angle at the end of the threads on the male and female couplings is called?
the higbee cut
372
What are the two type of non-threaded couplings?
- quarter turn
| - storz
373
What coupling has two hook-like lugs on each coupling?
quarter turn
374
If hose has not been unloaded from the apparatus during a period of ____ months it must be taken off to inspect, sweep and then reload with different folds.
6 months
375
The hose should be placed how far away from the curb or gutter?
2-4' but not in vehicle travel lanes
376
Water thief?
Any variety of a hose appliance with one female inlet for 2 1/2 or larger hose and with three gated outlets, usually, two 1 1/2 and one 2 1/2.
377
LDH manifold?
One LDH inlet and 3) 2 1/2 gated outlets
378
What sizes are hose jackets made in?
2 1/2 and 3 inches
379
What are the three types of hose clamps?
- screw down
- press down
- hydraulic
380
How far away from the apparatus should a hose clamp be?
At least 20' behind the apparatus
381
Apply the hose clamp approximately ___' from the coupling on the ______ side.
5', supply
382
With the twin donut roll if you offset the couplings when rolling by ___ they can be coupled together after the roll is complete.
1 foot
383
The three most common loads for supply hose are?
flat, accordion and horseshoe
384
When loading LDH on the hose bed in a flat load it should be started ___-___ from the front of the hose bed.
12-18"
385
Does the horseshoe load work for LDH?
no
386
When laying hose drive no faster than?
10mph
387
What can be used that allows a forward-laid supply line to be immediately charged and lets a later arriving pumper connect to the hydrant?
4 way hydrant valve
388
Open butt?
the end of a charged hoseline that is flowing water without a nozzle or valve to control the flow
389
When should service testing be performed?
- within 90 days before being placed in service
- annually
- after repairs have been made
- after a vehicle has run over the hose
390
What is the maximum test length of hose for service testing?
300'
391
Latent Heat of Vaporization?
Quantity of heat absorbed by a substance at the point at which it changes from a liquid to a vapor
392
vaporization?
water absorbs heat and converts into water vapor or steam
393
specific heat
amount of energy required to increase the temperature of a substance by one degree
394
When water converts to steam its volume increases?
1700x its original volume
395
Low volume stream
discharge less than 40gpm
396
Handline stream
40-350gpm
397
master stream
discharge greater than 350gpm
398
Broken stream?
stream that has been broken into coarsely divided water droplets by a specialized nozzle such as a cellar nozzle, piercing nozzle, and chimney nozzle
399
Under ideal circumstances, the greatest horizontal reach for a fire stream is attained at what degree from the horizontal plane? In actual operation?
45 degrees, between 30-34 degrees
400
Smooth bore nozzle should not be larger than ____ diameter of the hose.
one half the
401
What is the most common nozzle control valve?
Ball valve
402
Slide valve?
Cylindrical slide valve control seats a moveable cylinder against a shaped cone to turn off the flow of water
403
Rotary control valve
-only found on rotary control fog nozzles
404
Nozzle reaction is caused by?
velocity, flow rate and discharge pattern of the stream
405
Foam extinguishes or prevents ignition in several ways:
- separating: creates a barrier between the fuel and the fire
- cooling: lowers the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces
- smothering: prevents air from reaching fuel
- penetrating: lowers surface tension of water
406
Class B foam is effective on what two basic categories of flammable liquids?
polar solvents and hydrocarbon fuels
407
foam concentrate:
chemical compound solution
408
foam proportioner
device that introduces foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution
409
foam solution
mixture of foam concentrate and water before the introduction of air
410
finished foam
completed product after air is introduced into the foam solution
411
Low expansion foam has an air/solution ratio up to?
20 parts finished foam for every part of foam solution (20:1)
412
Medium expansion foam has a ratio between?
20:1 and 200:1
413
High expansion foams have a ratio of?
200:1-1000:1
414
What are the four basic methods by which foam may be proportioned?
- eduction-using an eductor
- injection-an external pump or head pressure forces foam concentrate into the fire stream
- batch-mixing-mixing foam within a fire apparatus water tank
- premixing-premeasured portions of water and foam concentrate are mixed in a container
415
There are three types of foam proportioning systems they are:
- portable
- apparatus mounted
- compressed air foam systems
416
What is the most common time of foam proportioner used in the fire service today?
in line eductor
417
The foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should not be more than ____' above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate
6
418
Fog nozzles best application with foam is when used with?
regular AFFF and Class A foams, cannot be used with protein and fluroprotein foams
419
The most effective appliance for the generation of low expansion foam is?
the air aspirating foam nozzle
420
```
Maximum reach of hose streams:
1 1/2
1 3/4
2
2 1/2
```
1 1/2: 25-50'
1 3/4: 25-50'
2: 40-70'
2 1/2: 50-100'
421
Shielded fire?
a fire that is located in a remote part of the structure or hidden from view by objects in the compartment
422
When advancing into a basement fire it is critical that you have enough hose to reach the base of the stairs and an additional...
6-8'
423
What is the metal pipe extending about the roof of the house where power lines come into called?
service mast
424
What is the only location to shut off power to the entire structure?
Meter box
425
Solar panels have two shutoff switches, which are located where?
one on each side of the power inverter
426
Difference between a Post Indicator Valve Assembly (PIVA) and a PIV (Post Indicator Valve)
PIVA: uses a circular disk that is perpendicular to the surrounding plate with the valve is open and in line with the plate when closed.
PIV: uses words OPEN or SHUT to indicate valve status
427
In order to reduce risk of shock from electrical current in the ground due to a down wire how much area should be cordoned off?
a circle with a radius equal to the distance between the power poles
428
Firefighters and public should stay at least ____ away from underground electrical vaults.
300'
429
How is LNG stored in a liquid state?
By cooling to -260 degrees in double walled vacuum-insulated pressure tanks
430
LPG expansion rate when heated?
1.5x for every 10 degrees of increase
431
Once the power is secured on an electric vehicle it will take about how many minutes to dissipate?
5 minutes
432
What fires burn bright blue and may be hard to see during the day?
ethanol and methanol
433
What are the three main influences on ground cover fire behavior?
fuel, weather and topography
434
What are the three basic types of ground cover fires?
- ground fires: burn in the layer of dead organic material
- surface fires: most common- burning low lying grass, shrubs etc
- crown fires: tree tops
435
Aspect?
the compass direction a slope faces
436
Drainages
steep ravines that create turbulent updrafts causing a chimney effect
437
Islands
patches of unburned fuel inside the fire perimeter
438
green
the area of unburned fuels next to the involved area
439
Black
opposite of the green, the black is the area in which the fire has consumed
440
LCES?
L-Lookout
C-Communications
E-Escape Routes
S-Safety Zones
441
Combat Command?
involves the IC performing multiple tasks like holding command and advancing a hose line
442
Formal Command
Involves the company officer remaining at the mobile radio
443
What will plunging a stream into burning flammable liquids cause?
Increased production of flammable vapors and greatly increases fire intensity
444
What is the minimum flow to be flowed on a pressure vessel at each point of flame impingement?
500gpm
445
Primary Damage vs. Secondary Damge
Primary from fire, secondary from extinguishment efforts
446
When do salvage operations begin?
Upon arrival and continue until the last unit leaves the scene
447
What is the method most often use to protect contents?
Leave them in the room they are found and gather them into compact piles that can be covered with a minimum of salvage covers
448
When salvage covers are limited it is good practice to use available covers for?
water chutes and catchalls
449
What are salvage covers made of?
Waterproof canvas or vinyl
450
What is typically the only cleaning required for canvas salvage covers?
wetting or rinsing with a hose stream and scrubbing with a broom
451
What is a waterproof carrier used to carry and catch debris or used as a water sump basin for immersing small burning objects?
carryall
452
What is the most common salvage cover throw by two firefighters?
balloon throw
453
Overhaul includes what activities?
- Searching for and extinguishing hidden or remaining fire
- placing the building and its contents in a safe condition
- determining the cause of the fire
- recognizing and preserving evidence of arson
454
Area of origin?
general location where the fire began
455
Point of origin?
exact physical location where the heat source and fuel come in contact with each other and a fire begins
456
Competent ignition source?
will have sufficient temperature and energy and be in contact with the fuel long enough to raise it to its ignition temperature
457
Ignition Sequence?
History of the fire, beginning when the ignition source and the first fuel ignited meet at the are of origin and proceeding through the entire duration of fire spread through the scene
458
Trailer?
combustible material, such as rolled rags, blankets, newspapers or flammable liquid often used in intentionally set fires in order to spread fire from one area to other points or areas
459
What is the perimeter for explosions?
1.5 times the distance from the farthest piece of debris found
460
Direct Evidence?
type of evidence provided by a witness who obtained it through his or her senses
461
Circumstantial Evidence
Evidence presented in a trial that tends to prove a factual matter through inference by proving other events or circumstances
462
Physical Evidence
Tangible or real objects that are related to the incident
463
Who has the legal responsibility for determining the origin and cause of a fire?
The fire chief
464
What serves as the brain for the fire alarm system?
Fire alarm control panel (FACP)
465
What is the most common type of alarm signaling system used?
Audible notification
466
Alarm notification appliances fall under one of four categories:
- audible
- visual
- textual- visual test or symbols indicating a fire
- tactile- sense of touch or vibration
467
What alarm system only provides notice to building occupants--does not notify 911 or off site monitoring.
Protected premise system/ local alarm system
468
Three basic types of local alarm systems are:
noncoded: simplest type of local alarm--when an alarm initiating device sends a signal to FACP all of the alarm-signaling devices operate simultaneously.
zoned/annunciated alarm: enable FD to identify the general area of the alarm (zone)
addressable alarm system: displays location of each initiating device on the FACP
469
The predominant type of signal-monitoring system in the US is?
supervising station alarm systems
470
Auxiliary alarm system
system that connects the protected property with the FD alarm comm center by a municipal master fire alarm box over a dedicated telephone line
471
Local Energy System
auxiliary fire alarm system that has its own power source
472
Shunt System
auxiliary fire alarm system that connects a public fire alarm reporting system to initiating devices within a protected premises. When an initiated device in the protected premises operates, it activates the public fire alarm sending an alarm to the public communications center
473
Proprietary alarm system
used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, groups of commonly owned facilities such as a college campus. System is owned and operated by the property owner
474
Central Station Systems
Monitored by contracted services at a receiving point called the central station
475
Remote Receiving System
System in which alarm signals from the protected premises are transmitted over a leased telephone line or radio signal to a remote receiving station with a 24 hour staff; usually the municipal fire department's alarm communications center
476
Living space heat detectors are set to? Areas such as attics may have detectors set to?
165 degrees and 200 degrees or higher.
477
What are the three mechanisms of fixed temperature devices?
- expansion of heated material
- melting of heated material
- changes in resistance of heated material
478
What can detect heat over a linear area parallel to the detector?
Continuous line detectors
479
Rate of rise detectors are set to send a signal when the temperature increases at a rate exceeding?
12-15 degrees in one minute
480
What type of heat detector is used to monitor large areas of a building?
pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector
481
Smoke detectors vs. smoke alarms
Detectors: can only detect and then have to send signal to another device that sounds an alarm
Alarms: can detect and signal
482
Ionization smoke detectors respond faster to what type of fires?
faster to flaming than to smoldering ones
483
Smoke detectors should be tested?
monthly
484
Flame detectors are used to detect the following:
- Light in the UV spectrum
- Light in the IR spectrum
- Light in both UV and IR spectrum
485
What are the only vapors released from all fires?
-CO, CO2 and water vapor
486
What kind of sprinklers react 5-10x faster than traditional sprinklers?
Early-suppression fast-response sprinklers
487
What valve transmits a water flow alarm?
alarm check valve
488
What chamber catches and slows the excess water that may be sent through the alarm valve of an automatic sprinkler system during momentary water pressure surges?
retard chamber
489
What is the minimum water supply required for sprinklers?
has to deliver the required volume of water to the highest sprinkler in a building at a residual pressure of 15psi
490
Wet pipe sprinkler systems can be used in climates where the temperature is?
above 40 degrees
491
Required air pressure for dry-pipe system is?
Usually 20psi above the trip pressure
492
How do you know that water has entered the system in a dry pipe system?
When the gauges read the same
493
Preaction sprinkler system
closed sprinkler heads attached o a piping system that contains air under pressure and a secondary detection system; both must operate before the extinguishing agent is released into the system
494
Residential sprinklers are designed:
To prevent flashover in the room of fire origin and improve the change for the occupants to escape or be evacuated
495
Minimum flow for a residential sprinkler?
18gpm from an individual head
496
Residential sprinklers activate when ceiling reaches a temperature of?
165
497
Class 1 standpipe?
used by fire suppression personnel
498
Class 2 standpipe
designed for use either by building occupants who are trained in its use or by FD personnel
499
Class III standpipe
combines features of Class 1 and Class II systems
500
Semiautomatic dry standpipe?
attached to a water supply that is capable of supplying the system demand at all times; requires activation of a control device to provide water at hose connections
501
Manual wet/dry
Dry: no water in system must be supplied by FDC
Wet: Filled with water but must be supplied by FDC for pressure and additional water
502
THIRA (threat and hazard identification and risk assessment) threats and hazards are divided into three categories:
- Natural Hazards
- Technological Hazards
- Threats or Human-Caused Hazards
503
What are the five Es in relation to program delivery for FIre and Life Safety Initiatives?
- Education
- Enforcement
- Economic Incentives
- Engineering
- Emergency Response
504
What are the three categories of hazards that can benefit from fire and life safety education?
- unsafe behavior
- unsafe conditions
- hazardous processes
505
Fire and Life Safety messages can generally be divided into four categories:
- Prevent (fire and burns)
- Prepare (for a fire emergency)
- Protect (yourself in an emergency)
- Persuade (others to be safe)
506
Children under the age of 18 account for what percentage of all arson arrests?
54%
507
What is the second leading cause of fatalities in residential fires?
Juvenile firesetting
508
What percentage of all fire deaths occur in residential structures?
92%
509
What is the most common compliant voiced by early childhood classroom teachers?
That the firefighter scared the children
510
Cryogens?
Gases that turn into a liquid at or below -130 degrees
511
What is the least energetic type of radiation?
nonionizing radiation (visible light or radio waves)
512
The most energetic type of radiation?
ionizing radiation (causes a chemical change in atoms by removing their electrons)
513
Four types of ionizing radiation?
Alpha-stopped by sheet of paper/human skin, harmful if inhaled or ingested
Beta-travel up to 20' through air and penetrate the outer layer of skin, harmful if inhaled or ingested
Gamma-highly penetrating, stopped by 2" lead or 2' of concrete, or several feet of earth
Neutron-produced by fission reactions, even more penetrating than gamma
514
What are the three main types of radioactive contamination?
- external contamination: occurs when radioactive material is on the skin or clothing
- internal contamination: occurs when radioactive material is inhaled, swallowed or absorbed through wounds
- environment contamination: occurs when radioactive material spreads or is unshielded, creating another potential source of external exposure
515
Difference between simple asphyxiants and chemical asphyxiants?
-Simple displace oxygen, chemical inhibit the body from processing oxygen
516
Acid PH values, Base PH values?
Acid: 0-6.9
Neutral: 7-7.9
Base (alkalis or caustics): 8-14
517
Etiological Hazards
harmful viruses and bacteria
518
Explosions create three types of mechanical hazards:
- blast pressure wave (shock wave)
- shrapnel fragmentation
- seismic effect
519
Boiling point?
temperature at which vapor pressure is equal to or greater than atmospheric pressure
520
persistence
length of time a chemical agent remains effective without dissipating
521
Reactive materials?
-unstable chemicals that react violently when combined with air, water, heat, light or other materials
522
The reactivity triangle includes?
- Oxidizing agent
- Reducing agent (fuel)
- activation energy
523
Activation energy is usually supplied by?
heat
524
Strong oxidizers?
Materials that readily give off large quantities of oxygen
525
Inhibitor
substance that slows down or prevents a chemical reaction, typically added to materials that are prone to polymerization
526
polymerization?
a catalyst causes molecules to combine into a chain
527
Carboy?
Cylindrical container of about 5-15 gallon capacity used to for pure or corrosive liquids
528
Non-pressure tank cars have pressure below? Pressure tank cars have pressures above?
25
529
US DOT Class
Class 1: Explosives
Class 2: Gases
Class 3: Flammable and Combustible Liquids
Class 4: Flammable Solids, Spontaneously Combustible Materials and Dangerous When Wet Materials
Class 5: Oxidizers and Organic Peroxides
Class 6: Poison and Poison Inhalation Hazard
Class 7: Radioactive Materials
Class 8: Corrosive Materials
Class 9: Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
530
NFPA 704 Colors?
Red (top) Flammability
Blue (left) Health
Yellow (right) Instability
White (bottom) Special Hazard
531
Bill of Lading
Shipping paper that describes the cargo, origin, destination, route; typically placed in the cab of every tractor truck
532
Train consist?
lists the entire cargo
533
Incident Levels?
Level 1: Within the capabilities of fire/ emergency services organization
Level 2: Beyond the capabilities of the first responders on scene and may be beyond the capabilities of the organization having jurisdiction
Level 3: Type of incident requires state/federal resources
534
ERG page colors?
Blue: Lists hazmats by name
Yellow: Lists hazmat in numerical order based on their 4 digit UN/NA ID
Orange: Initial action pages
Green: Table lists (by ID) TIH materials and water reactive materials that produce toxic gas upon contact with water--provides two recommended safe distances: initial isolation distance and protective action distances
"P" designation: polymerization risk
Highlighted entries: toxic inhalation hazards
535
Protective action distance?
Downwind distance from a hazmat incident within which protective actions should be implemented
536
Small vs Large Spill Sizes (ERG)
Small: 53 gallons or less
Large: More than 53 gallons
537
Level A Protection
Highest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection that can be provided by PPE
538
Level B Protection
PPE that provides the highest level of respiratory protection but a lesser level of skin protection
539
Level C Protectoin
PPE that provides a lesser level of respiratory and skin protection than A or B. Consists of a full-face of half-mask APR, hooded chemical resistant suit, inner and outer gloves and chemical resistant boots
540
Level D protection
PPE that provides the lowest level of respiratory and skin protection, consists of coveralls, gloves and chemical-resistant boots or shoes
541
Isolation perimeter?
boundary established to prevent access by the public and unauthorized persons
542
Hazard Control Zones?
hot, warm, cold
543
Nuclear fall out rule of 7?
Every sevenfold increase in time that radioactivity level due to fallout decreases by a factor of 10
544
When you double the distance from a point source (radioactivity) divides the dose by?
4
545
In most cases triage should be conducted in the what zone?
Cold zone after decontamination has been performed
546
Technical Decontamination
Chemical or physical methods to thoroughly remove or neutralize contaminants from responders PPE and equipment
547
Absorption?
occurs when one material enters the cell structure of another and is retained within
548
Adsorption
molecules of the hazmat material physically adhere to the adsorbent material rather than being absorbed into the inner spaces of an absorbent material
549
Dissoultion?
Process of dissolving a gas in water is called dissolution
