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Equine Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three clinical signs to look out for with infectious colitis?

A

Acute diarrhoeaFever - temperature over 38.5oCLow white blood cell count - <4x10^9 cells/liter

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2
Q

How many of the clinical signs of infectious colitis ar required to assume infection?

A

Two of three

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3
Q

Name a gram-ve motile bacillus which causes diarrhoea in horses by adhering to and penetrating the enterocyte membrane and causing hypersecretion of fluid and protein.

A

Salmonella enterica

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4
Q

Name a pathogen which is both a facultative anaerobe and facultative intracellular.

A

Salmonella enterica

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5
Q

Name the three exotoxin activities of salmonella enterica.

A

cAMPCytotoxinPhospholipase A activity

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6
Q

What types of factors can predispose a horse to an infection of salmonella?

A

StressAntibiotic useGeneral anaestheticChange in diet

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7
Q

The LPS endotoxin of Salmonella causes what response in the host?

A

Neutrophil dominated inflammatory response by IL1 and TNF release

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8
Q

What appearance to cyanotic gingiva have?

A

Purple

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9
Q

Flushing of the salmonella bacteria from the body by diarrhoea can lead to what if untreated?

A

Shock, dehydration and cardio-circulatory collapse, tissue necrosis

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10
Q

How long can salmonella species survive in damp soil?

A

9 months

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11
Q

What is a fomite?

A

A solid object which can spread bacteria

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12
Q

How long do horses with an infection of salmonella sp. need to stay in isolation?

A

Until 5 negative faecal samples are collected, each taken 12-24 hrs apart.

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13
Q

Which clostridial species are of clinical relevance when discussing GI infection in the horse?

A

PerfringensDifficile

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14
Q

Name a pathogen which can cause GI disease in horses but is also regarded as part of the normal gut flora.

A

Clostridium perfringens

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15
Q

Which species of clostridium is motile?

A

Difficile

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16
Q

Which substances secreted by Clostridium perfringens cause clinical disease in the host?

A

Enterotoxin - cytotoxic

Alpha Toxin - lecithinase

Beta 2 toxin - toxigenic strain

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17
Q

Toxin A, released by C.difficile, causes the release of what by the host?

A

Il1 and TNF - causing an inflammatory response

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18
Q

Name a type of pathogen which is spore forming and therefore resistant to heat and cold.

A

Clostridium

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19
Q

What type of test is used to identify clostridial disease in the horse?

A

ELISA

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20
Q

Rotavirus’ are a member of which family of viruses?

A

Reoviridae

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21
Q

What is the incubation period for rotavirus infection in the horse?

A

18-24hrs

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22
Q

How long to recovering foals shed rota virus after an infection?

A

2 weeks

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23
Q

How long do infected foals show signs of rotavirus mediated disease?

A

5-7 days

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24
Q

What is the key principle behind biosecurity in veterinary practice?

A

Wash your hands

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25
Q

What are the main streptococcal bacteria which cause dermatological disease in horses?

A

S.equi subspecies equiS.equi subspecies zooepidemicusS.equisimilis

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26
Q

Which antibiotic could be used to treat streptococcal dermatitis in the horse?

A

Penicillin

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27
Q

Which type of bacterial dermatitis is characterised by mildly to moderately painful skin infection and abscess?

A

Streptococcal dermatitis

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28
Q

How would pain in a staphylococcal dermatitis differ from that of streptococcal infection?

A

Staphylococcal infection is much more painful

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29
Q

What is the lay term for pastern folliculitis?

A

Mud fever

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30
Q

What clinical condition is also known as rain scald?

A

Dermatophilosis

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31
Q

What bacteria is Dermatophilosis caused by?

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

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32
Q

Which areas of the horse are often affect in rain scald infections?

A

Persistently soaked areas eg back

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33
Q

How is rain scald diagnosed?

A

Characteristic signs on histology

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34
Q

What management protocol should be implemented during rain scald infections?

A

Put in a dry stableRemove scabs and bathe with antimicrobial

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35
Q

What are ringworm infections also known as?

A

Dermatophytosis

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36
Q

What is the incubation period for dermatophytosis infections?

A

2-3 weeks

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37
Q

Name the two main genere of fungi which cause dermatophytosis in the horse.

A

TrichophytonMicrosporium

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38
Q

Why is ringworm infection characterised with bald patches appearing on the horse?

A

The infection causes weakening of the affected hair causing it to break leading to baldness.

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39
Q

What methods can be used to diagnose an infection of ringworm?

A

Skin scrapHair pluckCulture

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40
Q

Name two viral conditions which are characterised by dermatological disease.

A

Viral papilloma - grass wartsPineal acanthosis - aural plaques

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41
Q

What is the most recommended treatment for aural plaques and grass warts?

A

Leave them alone, the often recover spontaneously

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42
Q

What type of fly is responsible for transmitting aural plaques?

A

Black fly - simulium

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43
Q

Which virus causes coital exanthema?

A

Equine herpes virus - 3

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44
Q

Which virus type causes disease characterised by rapidly developing papules on the penis, vulva and perineum?

A

Ehv3 - coital exanthema

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45
Q

How long should breeding be stopped in a horse with coital exanthema?

A

3 weeks after lesions have healed

46
Q

Sarcoids are tumours of which cell type?

A

Fibroblast

47
Q

What are the names of the instigating viruses of equine sarcoids?

A

Bovine papillomavirus 1&2

48
Q

Streptococcus equi var equi is responsible for what infectious disease in the horse?

A

Strangle

49
Q

Contagious equine rhino pharyngitis is also known by what other name?

A

Strangles

50
Q

What is meant by the phrase “primary pathogen”?

A

A primary pathogen is one which is never usually found within the normal horse.

51
Q

A pathogen characterised by its gram positive cocci appearance. It often forms chains of coccus.

A

Streptococcus equi var equi

52
Q

Which aspect of streptococcus equi var equi structure is important in its protection within the body?

A

Cell wall m protein

53
Q

What function does the m protein in the cell wall of S.equi var equi serve?

A

AntiphagocytiticAdhesionProtective

54
Q

Name a type of bacteria which is catalase negative.

A

Streptococcus

55
Q

What is the mortality rate of respiratory strangles?

A

2%

56
Q

What is meant by morbidity?

A

The percentage of exposed animals which become clinically I’ll

57
Q

What is the morbidity rate of strangles?

A

30-100%

58
Q

After how many days will a horse infected with strangles begin showing clinical signs?

A

3-14 days

59
Q

Which lymphnodes of the horse are most commonly affected by strangles?

A

Retropharyngeal and submandibular

60
Q

Where is the most common site for carrying S.equi var equi? How many horses infected with the bacteria will become shedders?

A

Guttural pouch10%

61
Q

What would be feeding instructions for horses with strangles?

A

Soft, palatable feeds

62
Q

Small stones of inspissated pus found within the guttural pouch which lead to shedding of the strangles bacteria are also known as what?

A

Chondroids

63
Q

Purpura haemorrhagica is caused by what type of sensitivity?

A

Type 3

64
Q

What drug types do we use to treat purpura haemorrhagica?

A

Immunosuppressants

65
Q

Name three types of test used to diagnose strangles

A

PCRELISACulture

66
Q

How many guttural pouch washes are needed with negative results until you can assume the horse is negative for strangles? How many nasal swabs are needed?

A

1 3

67
Q

How long can S.equi var equi survive on pasture?

A

Around two months

68
Q

How long can the carrier status of a horse with strangles persist?

A

7-39 months

69
Q

How long should horses affected with strangles be isolated for?

A

3-6 weeks

70
Q

How long should a horse new to a yard be isolated for?

A

2 weeks

71
Q

What are the characteristics of the strangles vaccine of horses?

A

Modified live strain

72
Q

How is the strangles vaccine administered and why?

A

Submucosa line the gum/lipIt is at its site of action immediately

73
Q

Which bacteria can cause suppurative bronchopneumonia in foals aged 1-4 months?

A

Rhodococcus equi

74
Q

How does the rhodococcus bacteria appear histologically?

A

Gram positive pleiomorphic rod - coccus becomes bacillus

75
Q

Name three virulence factors of rhodococcus equi.

A

LPS - prevents phagocytosis

Inhibitory surface antigens - intracellular

VAPs only expressed at 34-41oC

76
Q

At what age are foals first infected with rhodococcus?

A

<2-4 weeks

77
Q

What is the incubation period of rhodococcus bacteria?

A

10 days to 3 weeks

78
Q

How does rhodococcus bacteria evade the immune system?

A

Poor chemotactic effects

Intracellular

Poor immunogenicity

Lipid capsule

79
Q

Which resident macrophages does R.equi replicate within?

A

Alveolar macrophages

80
Q

What types of lesions are characteristic rhodococcus infections?

A

Granulomatous lesions of the lungs

81
Q

What preventative measures can be taken to reduce R.equi infection in foals?

A

Plasma infusion at birth

Hygiene

Early recognition and isolation

Irrigation of pastures

82
Q

What is the protocol for giving hyperimmune plasma to foals to prevent rhodococcus equi?

A

Give aged 24-72 hours Repeat at 21 days

83
Q

What is shipping fever? Why does it happen?

A

Pleuropneumonia infection of mixed bacteriaTraveling causes stress, also since heads are tied up drainage of the sinuses

84
Q

Which strains of equine influenza are currently of interest for vets?

A

H3N8 - particularly the Florida clade 2 strainH7N7 - rarer and older strain

85
Q

What is the function of haemagglutinin surface molecules of influenza virus?

A

Adhesion to the respiratory mucosa

86
Q

What is the function of neuraminidase surface molecules of influenza virus?

A

Entrance into the respiratory mucosa

87
Q

How long do the symptoms of influenza last?

A

1-2 weeks

88
Q

How long is the incubation period of influenza viruses within the horse?

A

24-48 hrs

89
Q

Name some techniques which can be used for the diagnosis of viral respiratory disease.

A

PCR

Ab titres

ELISA

Haematology

90
Q

Outline the influenza vaccination protocol given by the jockey club.

A

D0 = 1st vaccine21-92 days after the first = 2nd vaccine 150-215 = 3rd vaccine Then boosters every year after that

91
Q

What concept causes influenza virus strains to rapidly alter, therefore producing lots of different strains?

A

Antigenic drift

92
Q

West Nile virus is an example of which type of virus?

A

Arbovirus > flaviviridae

93
Q

Outline the pathogenesis of west Nile virus.

A

1 - virus replicates at the site of inoculation

2 - viraemia - fever depression and anorexia

3 - CNS (muscle tremors, weakness, ataxia, mentation deficits)

94
Q

Outline the treatment and diagnosis of WNV. How can the spread of disease be prevented?

A

T - hyperimmune plasma (USA only) alongside supportive care.D - ELISA, PM P - vaccination and reducing contact with vectors (flies)

95
Q

What species of animal is the main reservoir of WNV?

A

Bird (transmitted to biting flies then to horses)

96
Q

Which herpes virus is specific to the horse?

A

EHV1 an alpha herpes virus

97
Q

How can an infection of EHV1 be treated?

A

Anti inflammatories and supportive care, beware of long periods of recumbency, horses lying down should be turned every 4-6 hours, slings may also be used (stress)

98
Q

What clinical signs are seen with an infection of EHV1? Which initial pathogenesis causes these signs?

A

CS - ataxia of HIND or all limbs, atony of the bladder, flaccid tail and anus, perineal hypoplasia, may see cranial nerve involvement.Factor - vasculitis and thrombosis of the arterioles of the brain and spinal cord

99
Q

Which clinical signs of EHV1 are caused by damage to the cauda equina?

A

Atony of the bladder, perineal hypoplasia, flaccid tail and anus

100
Q

Name a lyssavirus which can affect the horse.

A

Rabies

101
Q

Outline the transmission of rabies. How long can the virus be incubated in the body?

A

Transmitted by contaminated saliva on bite wounds. Incubation of the virus can be from weeks to years depending on the strain.

102
Q

How do the clinical signs of paralytic, dumb and furious rabies differ? Which areas of the CNS do they affect?

A

P - hyperaesthesia, progressive ataxia and lameness, can be recumbent for 3 - 5 days. SPINAL FORM

D - depressed, anorexia, excessive salvation. BRAIN STEM

F - aggression, muscle tremors, seizures. CEREBELLUM

103
Q

What percentage of human cases of rabies are fatal?

A

100%

104
Q

Briefly outline the clinical signs of equine herpes virus 1 - 8.

A

1 - myeloencephalitis, respiratory, abortions. 2 - keratitis. 3 - coital exanthema. 4 - respiratory. 5 - multinodular pulmonary fibrosis. 6 to 8 - donkeys.

105
Q

Describe equine rhino virus.

A

No vaccine. Last 3 - 5 days. Severe nasal discharge and pyrexia and respiratory disease

106
Q

What virus is most commonly associated with abortions in late pregnancy?

A

EHV1

107
Q

Which notifiable virus can be shed for an extended period via the accessory sex glands of stallions, after clinical infection has subsided?

A

Equine Arteritis Virus

108
Q

Name an equine Picornaviridae.

A

Equine Rhinovirus (also FMD)

109
Q

How is equine arteritis virus dealt with?

A

Name and shame stallions

Castrate effected - virus can’t be maintained (lack of testosterone)

110
Q

Clinical signs of Equine arteritis.

A
  • Mild URT infection
  • General depression, anorexia, (cough)
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Skin oral papules
  • Abortion
  • Vulval discomfort
  • Stallions ~ urethral and penile swelling
111
Q

How is EVA transmitted?

A

Venereal and inhalation.

ID (13 decks)

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