ENT Flashcards

1
Q

3 common organisms that cause otitis media

A

strep pneumoniae, h influenzae and moraxella

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2
Q

what normally precedes otitis media ?

A

viral URTI

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3
Q

What will you see on otoscopy when a person has otitis media ?

A

Loss of light reflex
bulging tympanic membrane
perforation with purulent otorrhoea

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4
Q

When should medical advice be sought for otitis media ?

A

If symptoms worsen or do not improve after 3 days

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5
Q

Should a child with bilateral otitis media and under the age of 2 get antibiotics?

A

Yes

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6
Q

Should a child with otitis media with perforation get antibiotics?

A

Yes

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7
Q

First line course of abx for otitis media

A

Amoxicillin
If penicillin allergic give erythromycin

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8
Q

First and second-line treatment for sinusitis?

A

Analgesia and nasal decongestant
2nd line: intranasal corticosteroids

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9
Q

What is a normal value on an audiogram ?

A

Above 20dB line is normal

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10
Q

What happens in an audiogram for a patient with sensorineural hearing loss?

A

both air and bone conduction are impaired

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11
Q

What happens in an audiogram for a patient with conductive hearing loss?

A

only air conduction is impaired

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12
Q

What happens in an audiogram for a patient with mixed hearing loss?

A

both air and bone conduction are impaired but air conduction is usually worse than bone.

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13
Q

What is a positive Dix Hall pike manoeuvre and who is it normally seen in?

A

experience vertigo and rotatory nystagmus
positive in BPPV

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14
Q

What are two treatments for BPPV?

A

Epley’s manoeuvre
Betahistine

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15
Q

What condition increases your incidence of getting a cholesteatoma?

A

cleft palate

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16
Q

when is rhinosinusitis classed as chronic?
how do you manage it?

A

When it lasts more than 12 weeks
Use of intranasal steroids

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17
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

Presbycusis describes age-related sensorineural hearing loss. Patients may describe difficulty following conversations

Audiometry shows bilateral high-frequency hearing loss

18
Q

What is otosclerosis ?

A

Autosomal dominant, replacement of normal bone by vascular spongy bone. Onset is usually at 20-40 years - features include:

19
Q

How does otosclerosis present?

A

typically in their 20-40s
conductive deafness
tinnitus
tympanic membrane - 10% of patients may have a ‘flamingo tinge’, caused by hyperaemia

20
Q

3 drugs that cause ototoxicity?

A

Aspirin
Gentamicin
Furosemide

21
Q

3 causes of gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin
ciclosporin
calcium channel blockers

22
Q

When should a larygneal cancer be suspected?

A

laryngeal cancer in people aged 45 and over with:
persistent unexplained hoarseness or
an unexplained lump in the neck

23
Q

3 causes of voice hoarseness

A

voice overuse
smoking
viral illness
hypothyroidism
gastro-oesophageal reflux
laryngeal cancer
lung cancer

24
Q

who is malignant otitis externa found in?

A

people who are immunocompromised

25
Q

what is malignant OE

A

osteomyelitis of the bone typically caused by pseudomonas and needs a CT head scan.

26
Q

What is meniere’s a disease of ?

A

endolymph system

27
Q

How do you treat an acute attack of Meniere’s disease?

A

acute attacks: buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine. Admission is sometimes required
prevention: betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises may be of benefit

28
Q

Management for otosclerosis ?

A

Management
hearing aid
stapedectomy

29
Q

What is a positive and negative Rinne’s test?

A

positive test’: air conduction (AC) is normally better than bone conduction (BC)
‘negative test’: if BC > AC then conductive deafness

30
Q

What is the response of Weber’s test in conductive and sensorineural deafness?

A

in unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side
in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side

31
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Reactivation of the VZV virus causing patients to have auricular pain that then leads to a facial palsy and tinnitus

32
Q

How do you normally treat Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Acyclovir and steroids

33
Q

Which salivary gland do you mostly get stones in?

A

submandibular (mixed) - most stones

34
Q

Which salivary gland do you mostly get tumours in?

A

parotid (serous)

35
Q

What is the most common type of parotid gland swelling?

A

Pleomorphic adenomas a tumour that is benign non painful and slow growing

36
Q

What are the four componments of the centor criteria ?

A

The Centor criteria are: score 1 point for each (maximum score of 4)
presence of tonsillar exudate
tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis
history of fever
absence of cough

37
Q

3 complications of thyroid surgery:

A
  1. Anatomical such as recurrent laryngeal nerve damage.
  2. Bleeding. Owing to the confined space haematoma’s may rapidly lead to respiratory compromise owing to laryngeal oedema.
  3. Damage to the parathyroid glands resulting in hypocalcaemia.
38
Q

What is the main distinguishing feature between vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis

A

Labyrinthitis should be distinguished from vestibular neuritis as there are important differences: vestibular neuritis is used to define cases in which only the vestibular nerve is involved, hence there is no hearing impairment; Labyrinthitis is used when both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth are involved, usually resulting in both vertigo and hearing impairment.

39
Q

Management of vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis

A

prochlorperazine

40
Q

In conductive hearing loss is bone and air conduction affected?

A

No only air

41
Q

In sensorineural hearing loss is bone and air conduction affected?

A

Yes both are.