ENR 1.5

Question 1

Does controlled airspace may totally contain the navigational tolerances?

Answer 1

NO: Designed to contain 5% gradient for ARRIVALS, APPROACHES, DEPARTURES, and MISSED APPROACHES

Question 2

What do the minimum altitudes on DME arcs and holds and minimum climb gradients do?

Answer 2

Provide TERRAIN and OBSTACLE CLEARANCE but do NOT ensure CONTAINMENT

Question 3

What are the type non-standard approach procedures?

Where are they?

Answer 3

MINIMA annotated on AIP charts as CIRCLING and do NOT utilise the STANDARD circling AREAS or standard circling MANOEUVRING;
NZGB: RNAV (GNSS) B;
NZQN: VOR/DME B and C and RNAV (GNSS) F and G

Question 4

What is the purpose of published departure procedures?
What if this is not possible?
What about in emergencies?

Answer 4

Provide routing to AVOID most HIGH TERRAIN in CLOSE PROXIMITY to the aerodrome;
Where NOT POSSIBLE MINIMUM SET HEADING altitudes or VISUAL SEGMENTS will be prescribed;
In EMERGENCIES terrain CLEARANCE NOT GUARANTEED under all conditions of operation, DUE AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE

Question 5

What are the types of IFR departures?

Answer 5

A PUBLISHED INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE procedure;
A CLIMB ON TRACK ABOVE enroute DESCENT (distance) OR VORSEC chart steps;
A specified TRACK, RADAR HEADING or RADAR SID or HEADING within an evaluated CLIMB SECTOR

Question 6

What are the standard procedures for SIDs when not stated on chart?
What about when a visual departure segment?

Answer 6

3.3% or 200ft/nm CLIMB GRADIENT;
CLIMB CENTRELINE to 400ft BEFORE making TURN;
MUST BE flown during DAY;
MAXIMUM IAS for CAT A - 120kt, CAT B - 165kt assuming AVERAGE of 15° ANGLE of BANK

Question 7

What is the condition where an aircraft is required to cross through two or more sectors to intercept the departure track in terms of the climb gradient?
What is the requirement where a departure requires an aircraft to climb via the radial or track dividing two sectors with different climb gradients?

Answer 7

HIGHER CLIMB GRADIENT required applies FROM TAKE OFF;

ONLY comply with the LOWER SECTOR GRADIENT

Question 8

When can a PIC leave an evaluated climb sector?

Answer 8

ESTABLISHED ON an evaluated ROUTE OR;
ESTABLISHED on a climb ABOVE VORSEC steps OR;
ESTABLISHED UNDER RADAR CONTROL AT or ABOVE MINIMUM radar TERRAIN contour level OR;
AT or ABOVE an APPROVED area MSA

Question 9

What are the equations associated with rate of climb?

Answer 9

VSI (ft/min) = GRADIENT % x G/S x 1.013;

FT/NM = (VSI (ft/min) x 60)/G/S

Question 10

What is the condition when a SID has been cancelled?

When do SIDs terminate?

Answer 10

It CANNOT be REINSTATED;

When ON TRACK and ABOVE MSA

Question 11

What are the IFR take off requirements?

Answer 11

TAKE OFF is PROHIBITED unless IFR weather conditions are:
AT or ABOVE the weather MINIMA for IFR TAKE OFF detailed IN the OPERATIONAL DATA chart OR;
If NOT detailing IN CHART, CEILING AT LEAST 300ft and ABOVE 1500m VISIBILITY

Question 12

What is the reduced take off minima?

What are the requirements?

Answer 12

ZER COULD CEILING and VISIBILITY AT or ABOVE 800m;
The runway to be used has CENTRELINE MARKING or CENTRELINE LIGHTING AND;
The TAKE OFF weather VISIBILITY is CONFIRMED by the pilot by OBSERVATION of the runway CENTRELINE MARKING or CENTRELINE LIGHTING AND;
AD 2 ALLOWS for REDUCED TAKE OFF minima on the runway to be used AND;
OBSTACLES in the TAKE OFF FLIGHT PATH are taken into account AND;
If the aircraft is a TWO ENGINE PROPELLER DRIVEN aeroplane, it is EQUIPPED with an operative AUTO FEATHER or AUTO COARSE system

Question 13

What is the minimum permissible holding altitude is based initially on?

Answer 13

A CLEARANCE of AT LEAST 1000ft ABOVE OBSTACLES in the holding area and INCREASED to 2000ft OVER areas designated as MOUNTAINOUS

Question 14

What is the maximum IAS for holding patterns?

Answer 14

14000ft and BELOW: CAT A and B 170kts in NORMAL and TURBULENT conditions

Question 15

When does outbound timing begin?

Answer 15

When TURN is COMPLETE or ABEAM the FIX;
For 1 MINUTE BELOW 14000ft;
For 1 MINUTE 30 SECONDS ABOVE 14000ft;
OR until the APPROPRIATE LIMITING DISTANCE ATTAINED, where distance is specified

Question 16

What are the turn requirements in a hold?

Answer 16

ANGLE of BANK of 25° or 3° PER SECOND whichever is LESS ANGLE of BANK

Question 17

What is the entry pattern determined by?

Can more than 1 entry be available at 1 time?

Answer 17

HEADING;

ZONE of FLEXIBILITY of 5° on either side of sector boundaries

Question 18

When are you established on each holding pattern?

Answer 18

OFFSET and PARALLEL: SECOND time CROSSING of FIX;

DIRECT: FIRST CROSSING of FIX

Question 19

How are holding patterns identified?

Answer 19

NAME of NAVAID, significant POINT or FIX;
TYPE of NAVAID;
RUNWAY associated with INSTRUMENT APPROACH;
Instrument approach PROCEDURE IDENTIFIER;
Instrument approach SEGMENT IDENTIFIER;
For ENROUTE, the term “ENROUTE”

Question 20

Where are the non standard places aircraft are asked to hold?

Answer 20

A DISTANCE or BETWEEN TWO DISTANCES on a VOR RADIAL OR;

A significant POINT or FIX on ATS ROUTE or ARRIVAL PROCEDURE

Question 21

What do the instructions include that ATC will give if asking to hold in a non standard position?

Answer 21

NAME and TYPE of NAVAID or NAME of significant POINT or FIX;
DISTANCE or DISTANCES;
LEVEL INSTRUCTIONS which are AT or ABOVE approved AREA MINIMUM ALTITUDE or AT or ABOVE MINIMUM LEVEL for RADAR control;
DIRECTION of HOLDING patterns
TIMING of OUTBOUND LEG if NO LIMITING DISTANCE

Question 22

When is an onwards clearance time given?

What about expected approach time?

Answer 22

If HELD ENROUTE OTHER THAN INITIAL APPROACH FIX, given a TIME to expect to LEAVE HOLD;
If HELD at INITIAL APPROACH FIX which will be LONGER than 5 MINUTES, expected APPROACH TIME is given

Question 23

What is Vat?

How is it calculated?

Answer 23

INDICATED AIRSPEED at the THRESHOLD;

Vat = 1.3 x Vso: Where Vso is STALL SPEED in LANDING CONFIG at MAX LANDING WEIGHT

Question 24

Can the category of aircraft be changed?

Answer 24

May NOT CHANGE due to a REDUCTION in OPERATING WEIGHT;

May CHANGE when ACTUAL HANDLING SPEEDS are in EXCESS of LOWER CATEGORY

Question 25

What is the Vat for category A and B?

Answer 25

A: LESS THAN 91kts
B: MORE THAN 91kts and LESS THAN 121kts

Question 26

What are the required altimeter settings in the NZFIR at a cruising level?

Answer 26

AT or ABOVE the TRANSITION LEVEL of FL150 maintain vertical position with reference to PRESSURE VALUE 1013.2hPa AND;
AT or BELOW the TRANSITION ALTITUDE of 13000ft maintain vertical position with reference to QNH ALTIMETER SETTING AND;
BETWEEN 13000ft and FL150 maintain vertical position by reference to the ALTIMETER
between 13,000 ft and the transition level of FL150 must maintain vertical position by reference to the altimeter setting as advised by ATC.

Question 27

What is the altimeter setting for a flight above the transition layer?
What about a flight below transition layer?

Answer 27

ON GROUND: Set AERODROME QNH;
IN CLIMB: Set ZONE AREA QNH;
AT 13000ft (climbing): Set 1013.2;
AT 15000ft (descending): Set AERODROME or ZONE AREA QNH;

ON GROUND: Set AERODROME QNH;
CRUISE: Set AERODROME or ZONE AREA QNH;
DESCENT: Set AERODROME QNH

Question 28

What are the considerations when the zone area QNH is above or below 980hPa?

Answer 28

ABOVE: TRANSITION LAYER provides adequate SEPARATION b
BETWEEN aircraft using the QNH SETTING and aircraft operating on the STANDARD PRESSURE value;
BELOW: MINIMUM useable ALTITUDE for the ZONE INCREASES to FL160

Question 29

What is the transition layer used for in NZFIR?

Are there any exceptions?

Answer 29

FL150 provides TERRAIN CLEARANCE throughout New Zealand under ALL CONDITIONS of TEMPERATURE and PRESSURE;
The exception is 20 NM RADIUS centred on 43°36’S 170°09’E, which includes Mount Cook (12,316 ft) IFR flights in LEVEL FLIGHT in IMC must MAINTAIN at least FL160 in order to ensure ADEQUATE TERRAIN CLEARANCE

Question 30

What are the altimeter settings to be used in class C, D and G airspace?

Answer 30

CLASS C and D: Maintain vertical position by REFERENCE to the QNH setting ADVISED by ATS;
CLASS G: Maintain vertical position by REFERENCE to the ZONE AREA QNH setting EXCEPT that the appropriate AERODROME QNH setting must be used for TAKE OFF, LANDING, in CIRCUIT, INTERMEDIATE and FINAL APPROACH segments of INSTRUMENT APPROACH

Question 31

What must a pilot do if departing from an aerodrome with no QNH?

Answer 31

SET AERODROME ELEVATION on the altimeter PRIOR to DEPARTURE and OBTAIN the appropriate altimeter SETTING FROM an ATS unit ASAP and in any case, BEFORE entering IMC.

Question 32

What does a STAR chart show?

Answer 32

A TRANSITION ROUTE;
An ARRIVAL ROUTE;
VERTICAL NAVIGATION REQUIREMENTS to SEGREGATE TRAFFIC;
SPEED RESTRICTIONS to REGULATE TRAFFIC FLOW;
MSA for each ROUTE SEGMENT and a 25 NM MSA

Question 33

What is the minimum initial approach altitude?
What must be in accordance with?
Are there any restrictions?

Answer 33

A CLEARANCE for IFR aircraft to carry out INSTRUMENT APPROACH;
STAR;
RNAV ARRIVAL;
ROUTE MSA (including DISTANCE STEPS);
25NM MINIMUM SECTOR altitude chart;
TAA;
VORSEC chart;
May include LEVEL RESTRICTIONS PRIOR to APPROACH COMMENCEMENT and CIRCUIT INTEGRATION

Question 34

How are base turn instrument approaches joined?

Answer 34

If ARRIVING +/- 30° of the BASE TURN OUTBOUND, can JOIN DIRECTLY via the OVERHEAD;
If ARRIVING in any OTHER DIRECTION, COURSE REVERSAL must be COMPLETED BEFORE JOINING OUTBOUND, achieved through the HOLD OVERHEAD the AID and HOLD ENTRY PROCEDURES;
If HOLD is on SAME side as OUTBOUND LEG, published PROCEDURE TURN has to be utilised for COURSE REVERSAL FOLLOWING the HOLDING PATTERN ENTRY

Question 35

When may IFR flights in controlled airspace be cleared for an instrument approach and issued with a descent restriction prior to reporting visual reference?

Answer 35

REPORTED or KNOWN CLOUD BASE is at least 1000ft ABOVE the ALTITUDE specified in DESCENT RESTRICTION AND;
VISIBILITY is EQUAL to OR GREATER than 8 km AND;
REASON for the DESCENT RESTRICTION is PASSED to the PILOT

Question 36

If a clearance for the approach is not issued or acknowledged prior to the flight intercepting the final approach track what must the pilot do?

Answer 36

MAINTAIN the LAST assigned LEVEL UNTIL established on the FINAL APPROACH TRACK, and then COMMENCE APPROACH

Question 37

What are the speeds for procedure calculations for category A and B aircraft?

Answer 37

Vat: A <91, B 91-120
RANGE for INITIAL APPROACH: A 90-150, B 120-180
MAX for REVERSAL TURNS: A 110, B 140
RANGE for FINAL APPROACH: A 70-100, B 85-130
MAX for VISUAL MANOEUVRING (CIRCLING): A 100, B 135
MAX for MISSED APPROACH: A 110, B 150

Question 38

When is procedural timing used?

What does it consider?

Answer 38

When there is NO DISTANCE INFORMATION;

CALCULATED for WINDS up to 60kts HEADWIND/TAILWIND

Question 40

What is height difference between procedure commencement minimum and intermediate approach minimum?

Answer 40

One that if a pilot DESCENDS at 650ft/min they will REACH the MINIMUM BY END of INTERMEDIATE APPROACH

Question 41

Describe a 45° procedure turn?

Answer 41

A 45° TURN AWAY FROM the OUTBOUND TRACK for ONE MINUTE FROM START of TURN (A and B) FOLLOWED by a 180° TURN in the OPPOSITE DIRECTION to INTERCEPT the INBOUND track

Question 42

Describe an 80° procedure turn?

Answer 42

80° TURN AWAY FROM the OUTBOUND track, FOLLOWED by a 260° TURN in the OPPOSITE DIRECTION to INTERCEPT the INBOUND track

Question 43

Describe a base turn?

Answer 43

A specified OUTBOUND TRACK and TIMING from a facility, FOLLOWED by a TURN to INTERCEPT the INBOUND track

Question 44

What are the instrument approach procedure timing adjustments?

Answer 44

2 MINUTES on CHART: 70-90kt = 3 MINUTES, 91-110kt = 2.5 MINUTES;
3 MINUTES on CHART: 70-90kt = 4.5 MINUTES, 91-110kt = 4 MINUTES

Question 45

What are the characteristics of the DME arc?

Answer 45

Pilots expected to ANTICIPATE the LEAD DISTANCE REQUIRED for of TURN ONTO ARC;
RADIAL or BEARING is published that PROVIDES at least 2 NM LEAD DISTANCE for the TURN ONTO FINAL approach;
MINIMUM ALTITUDE is the GREATER of MSA for the ROUTE OR TRACK from which ARRIVAL is MADE OR ALTITUDE SPECIFIED on DME ARC;
DESCENT may only happen WHEN ESTABLISHED on ARC in CONTROLLED AIRSPACE;
MINIMUM ALTITUDES specified on DME arc PROVIDE NOT LESS than 1000ft terrain or obstacle CLEARANCE WITHIN an area extending 2.5 NM EACH SIDE of ARC;
In CONTROLLED AIRSPACE, can only do when CLEARED by ATC

Question 46

When can a DME arc be intercepted from the inside?

Answer 46

When STATED on APPLICABLE AIP charts;
When UNDER RADAR CONTROL;
When VRF or in VMC until ESTABLISHED on the FINAL APPROACH TRACK

Question 47

What are the circling areas determined by?

Answer 47

Aircraft TAS at MAXIMUM IAS for CIRCLING calculated at 1000ft ABOVE AERODROME with 1000ft ELEVATION AND;
A +/- 25kt WIND THROUGHOUT TURN AND;
A 20° ANGLE of BANK or 3° PER SECOND TURN whichever is LESS AND;
ISA TEMPERATURE + 15°

Question 48

What are the circling radii for cat A and B aircraft?

Answer 48

CAT A: 1.68nm

CAT B: 2.66nm

Question 49

Under what conditions will ATC advise a visual approach is suitable?

Answer 49

DAY, VISIBILITY 16km, CEILING 1000ft ABOVE applicable MINIMUM RADAR VECTORING altitude OR the applicable instrument approach PROCEDURE COMMENCEMENT altitude;
NIGHT, ONLY CHRISTCHURCH, VISIBILITY 16km, NO CLOUD BELOW 5000ft

Question 50

What are the types of QNH sources that are found on an approach plate?
What do they mean?

Answer 50

Use LOCAL QNH: ASSUMES that QNH is AVAILABLE for that location FROM a CERTIFIED SOURCE;
Use REMOTE QNH: ADD 5ft to the MDA for 1NM in excess of 5NM from the SOURCE of the QNH ie: (DISTANCE - 5) x 5 = ADDITION to MDA
Use LOCAL QNH ONLY: NON-HOMOGENEOUS nature of WEATHER in MOUNTAINOUS terrain, a REMOTE QNH setting must NOT be USED for MDA or DA. If the LOCAL QNH is NOT AVAILABLE the APPROACH CANNOT be made
Use REMOTE QNH NA: REMOTE QNH NOT to be USED when flying RNAV approaches with BAROMETRIC vertical path guidance (Baro-VNAV), that is to LNAV/VNAV minima