Definitions and Abbreviations

Question 1

Define adequate aerodrome?

What CAR is it associated with?

Answer 1

Aerodrome associated with, or meets safety requirements equivalent to CAR 139;
Has SUITABLE FACILITIES and SERVICES such as:
ATC or AFIS;
At least 1 INSTRUMENT APPROACH;
VASI for TURBOJET and TURBOFAN;
SUFFICIENT LIGHTING

Question 2

Define alternate aerodrome?

Answer 2

AERODROME to which an AIRCRAFT may DIVERT when it is IMPOSSIBLE or INADVISABLE to land at INTENDED DESTINATION

Question 3

Define approach control?

Answer 3

ATC SERVICE for ARRIVING and DEPARTING flights

Question 4

Define area navigation?

Answer 4

A METHOD of navigation which allows AIRCRAFT OPERATION on any desired FLIGHT PATH within certain COVERAGE of ground NAV AIDS or within the limits of SELF-CONTAINED AIDS, or a COMBINATION of these

Question 5

Define augmented crew?

Answer 5

EXTRA CREW that is comprised of MORE THAN MINIMUM required by the AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATION

Question 6

Define category II precision approach procedure?

Answer 6

A precision approach and landing with:
100ft < DECISION HEIGHT < 200ft;
A RVR NO LESS than 300m

Question 7

Define category IIIA precision approach procedure?

Answer 7

A precision instrument approach and landing with:
DECISION HEIGHT < 100ft or NO DECISION HEIGHT;
RVR > 175m

Question 8

Define category IIIB precision approach procedure?

Answer 8

A precision approach and landing with:
DECISION HEIGHT < 50ft or NO DECISION HEIGHT;
50m < RVR < 175m

Question 9

Define category IIIC precision approach procedure?

Answer 9

A precision instrument approach and landing with:
NO DECISION HEIGHT;
NO RVR LIMITS

Question 10

Define contaminated runway?

Answer 10

MORE THAN 25% of the runway surface area within the REQUIRED LENGTH and WIDTH is covered by surface WATER, SLUSH or LOOSE SNOW MORE THAN 3mm in DEPTH or ICE on ANY part of the runway surface area

Question 11

Define decision altitude?

Answer 11

A specified altitude (AMSL) referenced to SEA LEVEL in the PRECISION approach at which a MISSED approach must be initiated if the RVR to continue the approach has NOT been ESTABLISHED

Question 12

Define decision height?

Answer 12

A specified height (AGL) referenced to the runway THRESHOLD in the PRECISION approach at which a MISSED approach must be initiated if the RVR to continue the approach has NOT been ESTABLISHED

Question 13

Define escorted passenger?

Answer 13

ANY passenger requiring the PERSONAL ATTENDANCE of an appointed ESCORT, during an AIR TRANSPORT operation

Question 14

Define IFR flight?

Answer 14

A flight conducted in ACCORDANCE with INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES

Question 15

Define instrument approach procedure?

Answer 15

A series of PREDETERMINED MANOEUVRES by reference to flight INSTRUMENTS with specified PROTECTION from:
OBSTACLES from the INITIAL approach fix or (where applicable);
From the BEGINNING of a defined ARRIVAL ROUTE, to a point from which a LANDING can be COMPLETED and thereafter, if a landing is NOT COMPLETED to a position at which HOLDING or EN-ROUTE OBSTACLE CLEARANCE criteria APPLY

Question 16

Define instrument flight?

Answer 16

Flight during which an aircraft is PILOTED SOLELY by REFERENCE to INSTRUMENTS and WITHOUT EXTERNAL REFERENCES

Question 17

Define instrument flight procedure?

Answer 17

A VISUAL or an INSTRUMENT flight procedure that COMPRISES or is ASSOCIATED with, any of the following for the operation of aircraft under IFR:
IFR departure, en-route and arrival;
IFR altitude;
Standard instrument arrival and departure;
IFR holding patterns;
Instrument approach and departure

Question 18

Define instrument flight time?

What are the 2 types?

Answer 18

TIME during which an aircraft is PILOTED by SOLE REFERENCE to INSTRUMENTS WITHOUT EXTERNAL REFERENCE;
ACTUAL or SIMULATED

Question 19

Define instrument meteorological conditions?

Answer 19

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of VISIBILITY, DISTANCE from CLOUD and CEILING LESS than the minima specified for VISUAL meteorological conditions

Question 20

Define instrument time?

Answer 20

Instrument flight time;

Time during which a pilot is PRACTISING SIMULATED instrument flight on an APPROVED MECHANICAL DEVICE

Question 21

Define Mach number?

Answer 21

The RATIO of TRUE airspeed to the SPEED of SOUND

Question 22

Define minimum decent altitude?

Answer 22

A specified altitude, REFERENCED to SEA LEVEL in a NON-PRECISION approach or CIRCLING approach below which DECENT may NOT be made WITHOUT VISUAL reference

Question 23

Define minimum decent height?

Answer 23

A specified height, REFERENCED to the RUNWAY THRESHOLD in a NON-PRECISION approach or CIRCLING approach below which DECENT may NOT be made WITHOUT VISUAL reference

Question 24

Define minimum safe altitude?

Answer 24

An altitude that gives a TERRAIN CLEARANCE within the TOTAL AREA of the NAVIGATION TOLERANCE

Question 25

Define precision approach procedure?

What is the difference about non-precision approach procedures?

Answer 25

An INSTRUMENT approach procedure using AZIMUTH and GLIDE PATH information;
NON-PRECISION only uses AZIMUTH information

Question 26

Define pressure altitude?

Answer 26

An ATMOSPHERIC pressure, expressed in the terms of ALTITUDE, which corresponds to that pressure in the STANDARD ATMOSPHERE

Question 27

Define reporting point?

Answer 27

A specific NAMED, GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION in RELATION to which the POSITION of an aircraft can be REPORTED

Question 28

Define RNP performance?

Answer 28

A CONTAINMENT VALUE, expressed as a DISTANCE in NAUTICAL MILES from the INTENDED position, within which, flights would be for AT LEAST 95% of TOTAL flying time

Question 29

Define turbofan?

Answer 29

TURBOJET CORE engine that uses a proportion of the RESIDUAL GAS FLOW energy to drive a COMPRESSOR, ducting gas flow AROUND the CORE engine as additional propulsion

Question 30

Define turbojet?

Answer 30

A GAS TURBINE engine that uses RESIDUAL GAS FLOW energy DIRECTLY as PROPULSION

Question 31

Define turboprop?

Answer 31

A GAS TURBINE engine that uses the RESIDUAL GAS FLOW energy to drive a shaft

Question 32

Define ZFT simulator?

Answer 32

A SYNTHETIC flight trainer with FULL MOTION;

Has its OWN REGISTRATION

Question 33

What does ACAS stand for?

What does it do?

Answer 33

Airborne collision avoidance system;
Provides pilots with a system INDEPENDENT of ATC to DETECT the presence of other AIRCRAFT which may present a THREAT of COLLISION

Question 34

What does CRM stand for?

What is it for?

Answer 34

Crew resource management;
To TRAIN CREW to achieve better INTERPERSONAL COMMUNICATION, DECISION MAKING and LEADERSHIP in order to REDUCE pilot error induced ACCIDENTS

Question 35

What does GPWS stand for?

What does it do?

Answer 35

Ground proximity warning system;

To ALERT pilots if aircraft is IMMEDIATE DANGER of flying into GROUND or OBSTACLES

Question 36

What does ICAO stand for?

What is it for?

Answer 36

International civil aviation organisation;
Agency of the UN, defines the PRINCIPLES and TECHNIQUES of international AIR NAVIGATION and fosters the PLANNING and DEVELOPMENT if international AIR TRANSPORT to ensure SAFE and ORDERLY GROWTH

Question 37

What does IFSD stand for?

Answer 37

In-flight shut down

Question 38

What does ILS stand for?

Answer 38

Instrument landing system

Question 39

What does RNP stand for?

Answer 39

Required navigation performance

Question 40

What does RVR stand for?

Answer 40

Runway visual range

Question 41

What does RVSM stand for?

Answer 41

Reduced vertical separation minimum

Question 42

What does TAWS stand for?

What does it do?

Answer 42

Terrain awareness warning system;
An enhanced version of GPWS by using DIGITAL ELEVATION DATA and aircraft INSTRUMENTAL VALUE to predict if a likely FUTURE POSITION of the aircraft intersects with the ground, hence EARLIER warning can be made