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Multi Engine DA42NG > Engines > Flashcards

Engines Flashcards

1
Q

What type of engine is the Technify Engine?

A

4-Cylinder automotive diesel engine modified for aviation

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2
Q

Do Technify engines use spark plugs?

A

No spark plugs

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3
Q

How is combustion provided in Technify engines?

A

By high compression ratio (15:1) and precise fuel injection timing

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4
Q

What is the compression ratio for gasoline engines compared to Technify engines?

A

9:1 for gasoline engines

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5
Q

What is the configuration of the Technify engine?

A

Turbocharged and water-cooled, in-line cylinder arrangement

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6
Q

What is the geared ratio of the Technify engine?

A

1:1.69 prop to engine RPM ratio

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7
Q

What is the horsepower rating of the Austro E4-B engine?

A

168 horsepower, 100% power (5 minute limit per flight)

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8
Q

What is the maximum continuous power for the Austro E4-B engine?

A

153 horsepower, 92% power

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9
Q

What is the maximum immediate engine restart altitude?

A

18,000 feet

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10
Q

What is the maximum engine restart altitude within 2 minutes?

A

10,000 feet

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11
Q

What does FAA Airworthiness Directive 2018-18-02 limit?

A

Limits the use of a windmilling restart for emergencies only

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12
Q

What are the risks associated with windmilling restart?

A

Failure of engine timing chain, loss of engine thrust control, reduced control of the airplane

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13
Q

Do diesel engines require spark plugs?

A

No

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14
Q

What is the purpose of glow plugs in diesel engines?

A

To pre-heat a cold engine

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15
Q

What indication is displayed when glow plugs are receiving power?

A

L/R GLOW ON

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16
Q

When might the L/R GLOW ON display appear?

A

Immediately after engine start

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17
Q

What is the maximum time to engage the starter?

A

10 seconds

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18
Q

How long should you wait between starter attempts?

A

20 seconds

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19
Q

After how many attempts should the starter cool for 30 minutes?

A

6 attempts

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20
Q

What does L/R STARTER indicate?

A

Starter is engaged, should extinguish after successful engine start

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21
Q

What is the engine oil capacity for the DA42?

A

6.0 Liters

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22
Q

What is the minimum oil capacity for the DA42?

A

4.5 liters

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23
Q

What type of oil should be used in the engine?

A

Approved diesel oil, such as Aeroshell Oil Diesel 10W-40

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24
Q

What is the maximum allowable oil consumption?

A

0.1 liter/hour

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25
Q

What is acceptable regarding oil level?

A

Oil level within minimum and maximum markings is acceptable

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26
Q

Is ‘topping off’ oil quantity required?

A

No

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27
Q

What is the oil capacity for the Austro E4-B?

A

7.0 liters

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28
Q

What is the minimum oil capacity for the Austro E4-B?

A

5.0 liters

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29
Q

Where is the dipstick access door located?

A

On the left side of the engine cowling

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30
Q

What is the primary function of the gearbox in the Diamond DA42?

A

Reduces engine RPM to a lower propeller RPM by a ratio of 1:1.69

For example, if the propeller is at 2300 RPM, the engine runs at 3887 RPM.

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31
Q

Where is the gearbox mounted in the Diamond DA42?

A

On the front of the engine block

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32
Q

What components can the gearbox be equipped with to manage torque pulses?

A

Either clutch or dual-mass flywheel

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the gearbox oil?

A

Provides lubrication and is used by the Constant Speed Unit and unfeathering accumulator for propeller control

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34
Q

What does the L/R GBOX TEMP indicator signify?

A

Possible loss of gearbox oil and impending engine failure

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35
Q

What does the G1000 display regarding RPM?

A

Propeller RPM, not engine RPM

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36
Q

How should gear box oil levels be checked before each flight?

A

Using the sight glass accessed through a door on the front of the engine cowl behind the propeller

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37
Q

Fill in the blank: It is common to see a small air bubble in the sight glass, but if the level is below the ________, oil should be added by an authorized mechanic.

A

center disk

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38
Q

What type of oil is recommended for the gearbox?

A

SHELL SPIRAX GSX 75W-80

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39
Q

What is viewed through the engine oil access door?

A

Gearbox sight glass with a flashlight

The gearbox sight glass allows for checking the oil level in the gearbox.

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40
Q

What items are identified in the engine without the cowling photo?

A

Item (1): gearbox sight glass, Item (2): engine oil dipstick

These items are essential for monitoring engine oil levels and ensuring proper functioning.

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41
Q

What are the types of engine air intakes mentioned?

A
  • Engine induction air intake
  • Cabin heat/defrost air intake
  • Coolant radiator air intake
  • Turbocharger intercooler air intake

Each intake serves a specific function in the engine’s operation and environmental control.

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42
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ allows for checking the engine oil level.

A

engine oil dipstick

The dipstick is a critical tool for ensuring that the engine has adequate oil for lubrication.

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43
Q

True or False: The gearbox sight glass can be viewed without any tools.

A

True

A flashlight is typically used to see the gearbox sight glass clearly.

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44
Q

What are the differences in air intake systems for the DA42NG?

A

The differences include:
* Cabin Heat/Defrost air intake
* Coolant radiator and gearbox air intake
* Combined engine induction air intake and turbocharger intercooler air intake

These differences highlight the various air intake functions specific to the DA42NG model.

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45
Q

What is the function of the engine nacelle air exhaust?

A

It facilitates the expulsion of air from the engine compartment.

The engine nacelle is the housing for the engine, and the air exhaust is crucial for engine cooling and performance.

46
Q

What is the purpose of the turbocharger intercooler outflow?

A

To release cooled air after it has passed through the turbocharger.

This process helps to increase the efficiency and power output of the engine by reducing the temperature of the compressed air.

47
Q

What is the function of the engine compartment side vent?

A

To allow air circulation and cooling within the engine compartment.

Proper ventilation is essential to maintain optimal engine performance and prevent overheating.

48
Q

What are the differences between DA42NG and DA42VI?

A

They differ in turbocharger intercooler outflow and oil cooler, heater/defroster outflow.

These differences can affect the performance and operational capabilities of each aircraft model.

49
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ facilitates the expulsion of air from the engine compartment.

A

engine nacelle air exhaust

50
Q

True or False: The turbocharger intercooler outflow is designed to increase the temperature of the air before it enters the engine.

A

False

The turbocharger intercooler outflow is intended to reduce the temperature of the air.

51
Q

What is the function of the turbocharger?

A

To compress induction air, increasing manifold pressure and engine performance.

Turbochargers improve engine efficiency by forcing more air into the combustion chamber.

52
Q

What happens to induction air after it passes through the air filter?

A

It enters the Compressor section, where it is compressed and its temperature increases.

Compression of air is essential for enhancing engine power.

53
Q

What role does the Intercooler play in the turbocharging process?

A

It cools the compressed air to improve engine performance.

Cooler air is denser, allowing for more oxygen in the combustion chamber.

54
Q

How does the Waste Gate function in a turbocharger system?

A

It directs varying amounts of exhaust gas into the Turbine, controlling induction air manifold pressure.

This control helps to optimize engine performance and prevent overboosting.

55
Q

What is the relationship between the Turbine and the Compressor in a turbocharger?

A

The Turbine is directly connected to the Compressor; as the Turbine spins faster, it increases manifold pressure created by the Compressor.

This relationship allows for efficient energy transfer from exhaust gases to the intake air.

56
Q

What controls the Waste Gate in a turbocharger system?

A

The ECU (Electronic Control Unit).

The ECU ensures optimal performance by dynamically adjusting exhaust gas flow.

57
Q

What is the location of the Alternate Air lever?

A

Near the co-pilot’s left knee.

This lever is crucial for activating alternate air intake for both engines.

58
Q

When should alternate air be activated?

A

When operating in visible moisture, rain, or icing conditions.

Activating alternate air helps prevent engine performance issues in adverse weather.

59
Q

Fill in the blank: The alternate air intake is activated by a _______.

A

[single lever].

This lever is essential for ensuring sufficient air supply under specific conditions.

60
Q

What is the location of the thermocouple for engine fire detection?

A

Near the turbocharger

The thermocouple is specifically designed to monitor temperatures in the engine compartment.

61
Q

What does the thermocouple detect in the engine compartment?

A

Elevated engine compartment temperatures

This is crucial for early detection of potential fire hazards.

62
Q

What happens if the engine compartment temperature exceeds 250˚C?

A

An aural alarm will sound and a L/R ENG FIRE message will be displayed

This serves as a warning to the pilot to take necessary action.

63
Q

How can the fire detection system be tested?

A

By pressing and holding the GEAR/FIRE TEST button

This allows for verification of the system’s functionality.

64
Q

True or False: The engine fire detection system activates at temperatures below 250˚C.

A

False

The system only activates when temperatures exceed 250˚C.

65
Q

What is the coolant system mixture in the engine?

A

One-to-one mixture of distilled water and antifreeze

66
Q

When can the coolant level be checked?

A

Coolant level cannot be checked during preflight inspection

67
Q

What does the thermostat do in the coolant system?

A

Restricts coolant from entering radiator until 88˚C operating temperature is reached

68
Q

Where is the coolant temperature displayed?

A

On G1000 MFD

69
Q

What maintains system pressure as coolant warms and expands?

A

Expansion tank

70
Q

What happens if coolant temperature exceeds 150˚C?

A

Pressure relief valve vents coolant out bottom of engine nacelle

71
Q

What function do heat exchangers serve in the coolant system?

A

Provide cabin heat and canopy defrosting

72
Q

What does the expansion tank contain?

A

Coolant level sensor

73
Q

What is displayed if coolant level falls below normal operating level?

A

L/R COOL LVL

74
Q

What is displayed if coolant temperature exceeds 105˚C?

A

L/R ENG TEMP

75
Q

What should be done in warm weather to reduce engine temperature?

A

Reduce engine power and increase airspeed

76
Q

True or False: If both L/R ENG TEMP and L/R COOL LVL are displayed, coolant may be leaking.

77
Q

What action should be taken if both L/R ENG TEMP and L/R COOL LVL are displayed?

A

Prepare for an engine failure and land as soon as practicable

78
Q

What does ECU stand for?

A

Engine Control Unit

79
Q

How many ECUs control each engine?

A

2 redundant, electrically-powered ECUs

80
Q

Name three parameters monitored by the ECUs.

A
  • Manifold pressure and air temperature
  • Propeller RPM
  • Turbocharger waste gate position
81
Q

What is the function of the ECU SWAP switches?

A

Allow manual selection of back-up ECU (ECU B)

82
Q

In what position are ECU SWAP switches normally left?

A

AUTO position

83
Q

What do the ECU TEST switches verify?

A

Proper system operation during the before takeoff checks

84
Q

Where are the ECUs mounted?

A

In the engine compartment

85
Q

What type of ECUs does the DA42NG use?

A

DA42NG ECUs

86
Q

What engine parameters are regulated by the ECUs?

A
  • Power lever position
  • Crankshaft and camshaft position
  • Fuel injection timing
  • Fuel pressure
  • Glow plugs
87
Q

What is the purpose of the access panel on the lower cowl?

A

To show the DA42NG ECUs

88
Q

What are the three positions of the VOTER ECU switches?

A

AUTO, MANUAL, OFF

Normally set to AUTO, allowing the ECUs with the lowest time-in-use to be the active ECU.

89
Q

What type of battery is used for ECU backup?

A

1.3 amp-hour lead-acid

Life limited, mounted under rear passenger seats.

90
Q

How long can the ECU backup batteries power the ECU during a total electrical system failure?

A

30 minutes

91
Q

What happens to the engines and propellers without electrical power to ECUs?

A

Engines will stop and propellers will feather

92
Q

What additional function do ECU backup batteries serve?

A

Provide power to that engine’s alternator field

93
Q

What does the ECU CAS message ‘L/R ECU A/B FAIL’ indicate?

A

A failure during the ECU test

94
Q

What should be done if the ‘L/R ECU A/B FAIL’ message is displayed after the ECU test?

A

Terminate flight preparations and arrange for unscheduled maintenance

95
Q

What should be consulted if the ‘L/R ECU A/B FAIL’ message appears during flight?

A

Appropriate Abnormal Operating Procedures checklist in AFM

96
Q

What does turning the Engine Master switch ON do?

A

Connects engine starter relays to battery bus
Connects ECUs to backup battery
Causes ECUs to activate glow plugs for engine start
Connects alternator to the excitation battery
Releases gearbox oil from the propeller’s unfeathering accumulator into propeller hub

These actions are critical for initiating the engine start process and ensuring proper functioning of various aircraft systems.

97
Q

What additional function does the Engine Master switch ON provide in the DA42NG?

A

Provides current to the low-pressure electric fuel pump associated with the active ECU

This is essential for fuel delivery in the DA42NG model.

98
Q

What are the components of the Power Levers?

A

Electrically connected to ECUs
Contain microswitches for:
* Gear unsafe warning when either power lever is below 25%
* Power greater than 20% for activating variable elevator backstop

These features enhance safety and control during flight operations.

99
Q

True or False: The Engine Master switch connects the alternator to the excitation battery.

A

True

This connection is vital for the alternator’s operation within the aircraft’s electrical system.

100
Q

Fill in the blank: Turning the Engine Master switch ON causes ECUs to activate _______.

A

glow plugs for engine start

Glow plugs are essential for heating the engine cylinders in preparation for starting.

101
Q

What is the purpose of the ECU Diagnostic Interface?

A

To access ECU log data and apply firmware updates

Maintenance personnel use this interface for diagnostics.

102
Q

Where are the ECU Diagnostic Interface cables located?

A

Above the storage compartment by the right front seat

103
Q

What does the message ‘L/R COOL LVL’ indicate?

A

Coolant level status for the left/right engine

104
Q

What does ‘L/R ECU A/B FAIL’ signify?

A

Failure of the left/right ECU A or B

105
Q

What does the message ‘L/R ENG FIRE’ indicate?

A

Engine fire alert for the left/right engine

106
Q

What does ‘L/R ENG TEMP’ refer to?

A

Engine temperature for the left/right engine

107
Q

What does ‘L/R GBOX TEMP’ represent?

A

Gearbox temperature for the left/right engine

108
Q

What message indicates that the glow plug is activated?

A

L/R GLOW ON

109
Q

What does ‘L/R OIL PRES’ indicate?

A

Oil pressure for the left/right engine

110
Q

What does ‘L/R OIL TEMP’ refer to?

A

Oil temperature for the left/right engine

111
Q

What does the message ‘L/R STARTER’ indicate?

A

Starter status for the left/right engine

Multi Engine DA42NG (17 decks)

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