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Year 3 > Endocrinology > Flashcards

Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe a hypercalcaemic crisis

A

Intermittent confusion
Non-specific abdominal pain
Constipation
urine/chest infection may accompany

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2
Q

What is the order of the three aspects of the optic chain?

A

Optic nerve
Optic chiasm
Optic tract

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3
Q

What will a lesion in the optic chiasm cause?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

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4
Q

What will a lesion in the optic tract cause?

A

Homonymous hemianopia

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5
Q

What will a lesion in the optic nerve cause?

A

Unilateral loss of vision

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6
Q

Ketoconazole is used to treat what condition?

A

Cushing’s.

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7
Q

What may be a cause of High TSH, normal T4?

A

Patient not being compliant with medication - taken Thyroxine before consultation - TSH has not had time adjust.

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8
Q

What are the treatment choices for mineralocorticoid deficiency Vs. glucocorticoid deficiency?

A

Mineralocorticoid deficiency = fludrocortisone

Glucocorticoid deficiency = hydrocortisone

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9
Q

What is the most common ECG presentation in a pulmonary embolism?

A

Sinus tachycardia

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Glucocorticoids NOT adenoma.

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11
Q

How does the oral dexamethasone suppression test work?

A

Patient takes dexamethasone at night and 9am cortisol is measured the next day. ACTH should be low if normal (<50nmol/L). Dexamethasone will inhibit ACTH.

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12
Q

What will urine osmolarity be like in SIADH?

A

High.

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13
Q

What impact does insulin have on potassium levels?

A

Insulin will lower potassium levels. Must give KCL with Insulin.

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14
Q

What is key about carcinoid tumours?

A

Metastatic spread of primary carcinoid tumours. Breakdown of serotonin (5HT) products. Heart disease in 50-60% carcinoid syndrome.

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15
Q

What is the role of alpha-interferon in carcinoid tumours?

A

Reduce size of tumours.

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16
Q

Which antibody is specific for Grave’s disease?

A

Anti-TSH antibodies.

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17
Q

Which hyperthyroid medication may cause agranulocytosis as a side effect?

A

Carbimazole.

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18
Q

Name one side effect of Propylthiouracil.

A

Nephritis.

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19
Q

What is the most likely cause of SIADH?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma.

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20
Q

How do we treat hypercalcaemia?

A

Bisphosphanates

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21
Q

Which test is used for phaeochromocytomas?

A

MIBG scan.

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22
Q

What will calcium look like in chronic renal failure?

A

Low calcium.

23
Q

What can cause chronic renal failure and anaemia?

A

Myeloma.

24
Q

Which systems does Goodpasture’s syndrome impact?

A

Lung and renal involvement.

25
Q

Increase in urea, creatinine and potassium could point toward what?

A

Acute kidney injury.

26
Q

Do we treat hyperkalaemia or hypokalaemia with dialysis?

A

Hyperkalaemia.

27
Q

Name a medication that we can treat hyperkalaemia with.

A

Calcium Gluconate.

28
Q

What do we use Vancomycin to treat?

A

MRSA.

29
Q

What type of bacteria are staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Gram positive cocci.

30
Q

What type of bacteria is Neisseria Meningitidis.

A

Gram negative cocci.

31
Q

Name a medication we can use to treat malaria.

A

Artesunate.

32
Q

What is the first line treatment for sepsis?

A

Ceftriaxone.

33
Q

What is the most common complication of bacterial meningitis?

A

Sensorineural deafness.

34
Q

What must we exclude before diagnosing essential hypertension?

A

Conn’s and phaeochromocytoma.

35
Q

Which skin condition can be seen in hypothyroidism?

A

Vitiligo

also separately - menorrhagia.

36
Q

What do TSH and T4 levels look like in primary hypothyroidism?

A

High TSH, low T4.

37
Q

Which is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto’s disease.

38
Q

What is Conn’s syndrome?

A

High aldosterone.

39
Q

If aldosterone and renin are both high, which differential diagnosis does this point toward?

A

Renal artery stenosis.
In Conn’s syndrome, aldosterone will be high but not renin; aldosterone is high alone not as a result of increased renin production.

40
Q

What is the first step in managing phaeochromocytomas?

A

alpha blockers

41
Q

In which grade hypertension is papilloedema seen?

A

Grade 4

42
Q

Describe grade 3 hypertension

A

Cotton wool spots, flame-shaped haemorrhages.

43
Q

What is Methotrexate?

A

Folic acid antagonist.

44
Q

Describe the transferrin levels in Iron deficiency anaemia.

A

High transferrin.

45
Q

What is the first step in management of hyponatraemia?

A

Fluid restriction.

46
Q

When do we give saline?

A

Hypovolaemia - not euvolaemia nor hypervolaemia.

47
Q

Which test do we perform to diagnose Cushing’s?

A

High dose dexamethasone test.

48
Q

How do we treat hyperkalaemia?

A

Calcium gluconate first,

then insulin.

49
Q

What is a treatment for Paracetamol overdose?

A

N-acetylcysteine

50
Q

Which is the drug treatment of choice for opiate overdose?

A

Naloxone.

51
Q

Which is the first line test for Cushing’s?

A

Low dose dexamethasone test.

52
Q

Which is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto’s disease

53
Q

Which sign is specific for Grave’s disease?

A

Exopthalmos NOT goitre. Goitre is non specific for any over productive thyroid.

54
Q

What is the first line management for hypercalcaemia?

A

IV fluids - assess patient’s confusion status.

Year 3 (13 decks)

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