Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of action of metformin

A

Increases insulin sensitivity
Decreases glucose production by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SEs metformin

A
  • GI symptoms, including pain, nausea, and diarrhoea
  • Lactic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors naming

A

End in -gliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mechanism of action of SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

Inhibit sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 protein found in proximal tubules of kidneys, causing glucose to be lost to urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can SGLT-2 inhibitors cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Yes if combined with insulin or sulfonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Use of SGLT-2 inhibitors in heart failure

A

Reduce risk of cardiovascular disease, empagliflozin and dapagliflozin licensed for heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Use of SGLT-2 inhibtors in CKD

A

Dapagliflozin licensed in CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SEs SGLT2 inhibitors

A
  • Glycosuria
  • Increased UO and frequency
  • Genital and urinary tract infections
  • Weight loss
  • DKA (with only moderately raised glucose)
  • Lower-limb amputation (with canagliflozin)
  • Fournier’s gangrene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Thiazolidinedione e.g.

A

Pioglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mechanism of action of pioglitazone

A
  • Increases insulin sensitivity
  • Decreases liver production of glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SEs pioglitazone

A
  • Weight gain
  • Heart failure
  • Increased risk of bone fractures
  • Small increase risk of bladder cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sulfonylurea e.g.

A

Gliclazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mechanism of action of sulfonylureas

A

Stimulate insulin release from pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SEs sulfonylureas

A

Weight gain
Hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors e.g.

A

Sitagliptin
Alogliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SEs DPP-4 inhibitors

A

Headaches
Acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

GLP-1 mimetics e.g.

A

Exenatide
Litaglutide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Route of administration GLP-1 mimetics

A

SC injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Other use of litaglutide

A

Weight loss in non-diabetic obese patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SEs GLP-1 mimetics

A

Reduced appetite
Weight loss
GI symptoms, including discomfort, nausea, and diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rapid acting insulin e.g.

A

NovoRapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cause acromegaly

A

Excess GH secreted by pituitary adenoma in 95% cases
Minority cases caused by ectopic GNRH or GH production by tumours, e.g. pancreatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Features acromegaly

A

Coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, increase in shoe size
Large tongue, prognathism, interdental spaces
Excessive sweating and oily skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Features of pituitary tumour

A

Hypopituitarism
Headaches
Bitemporal hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Complications acromegaly

A

Hypertension
Diabetes
Cardiomyopathy
Colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Prolactin in acromegaly

A

1/3 of patients have raised prolactin → galactorrohoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

First line investigation acromegaly

A

Serum IGF-1 levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What to do if serum IGF-1 raised

A

OGTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Interpretation of OGTT in acromegaly

A

In normal patients, GH suppressed to <2mu/L with hyperglycaemia
In acromegaly no suppression of GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Further investigations acromegaly

A

Pituitary MRI may demonstrate pituitary tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Addison’s disease

A

Autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands, leading to reduced cortisol and aldosterone - accounts for 80% of cases of primary hypoadrenalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Features Addison’s disease

A

Lethargy
Weakness
Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss
Salt craving
Hyperpigmentation, esp palmar creases
Vitiligo
Loss of pubic hair in women
Hypotension
Hypoglycaemia
Hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Features Addisonian crisis

A

Collapse
Shock
Pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Other cause of primary hypoadrenalism

A

TB
Metastases, e.g. bronchial carcinoma
Meningococcal septicaemia
HIV
Antiphospholipid syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Secondary causes hypoadrenalism

A

Pituitary disorders - tumours, irradiation, infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

First line investigation Addison’s disease

A

ACTH stimulation test (short Synacthen test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is short synacthen test carried out

A

Plasma cortisol measured before and 30 mins after 250ug IM synacthen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Investigations of Addison’s when SST not available

A

9am serum cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Interpretation 9am serum cortisol in Addisons

A

> 500nmol/L makes Addison’s very unlikely
<100nmol/L definately abnormal
100-500nmol needs ACTH stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities in Addison’s

A

Hyperkalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hypoglycaemia
Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Management Addison’s disease

A

Hydrocortisone - 2 to 3 divided doses, typically need 20-30mg/day
Fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Management Addison’s during intercurrent illness

A

Glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, fludrocortisone dose stays the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Use of carbimazole

A

Used in thyrotoxicosis - typically given in high doses for 6 weeks until patient becomes euthyroid before being reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Adverse effects carbimazole

A

Agranulocytosis
Crosses placenta (can be used in low doses during pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Glucocorticoid vs mineralocorticoid activity fludrocortisone

A

MInimal gluco
Very high mineralo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Glucocorticoid vs mineralocorticoid activity hydrocortisone

A

Some gluco
High mineralo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Glucocorticoid vs mineralocorticoid activity prednisolone

A

Predominant glucoco
Low mineralo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Glucocorticoid vs mineralocorticoid activity dexamethasone/betmethasone

A

Very high gluco
Minimal mineralo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Endocrine SEs glucocorticoids

A

Impaired glucose regulation
Increased appetite/weight gain
Hirsuitism
Hyperlipidaemia
Cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MSK SEs glucocorticoids

A

Osteoporosis
Proximal myopathy
Avascular necrosis of femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Immunosuppressive SEs glucocorticoids

A

Increased susceptibility severe infection
Reactivation of TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Psychiatric SEs glucocorticoids

A

Insomnia
Mania
Depression
Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

GI SEs glucocorticoids

A

Peptic ulceration
Acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Opthalmic SEs glucocorticoids

A

Glaucoma
Cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Other SEs glucocorticoids

A

Suppression of growth in children
Intracranial HTN
Neutrophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

SEs mineralocorticoids

A

Fluid retention
Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When is gradual withdrawal of steroids required

A

More than 40mg pred daily for more than 1 week
More than 3 weeks of treatment
Recently received repeated courses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ACTH dependant causes Cushing’s syndrome

A

Cushing’s disease
Ectopic ACTH production, e.g. SCLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Cushing’s disease

A

Pituitary tumour secreting ACTH → adrenal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

ACTH independent causes Cushin’s syndrome

A

Iatrogenic - steroids
Adrenal adenoma
Adrenal carcinoma
Carney complex (syndrome including cardiac myxoma)
Micronodular adrenal dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Causes pseudo-Cushing’s

A

Alcohol excess
Severe depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How to differentiate Cushings syndrome and pseudocushings

A

Insulin stress test

63
Q

Features Cushing’s

A

Round face
Central obesity
Abdominal striae
Buffalo hump
Proximal limb muscle wasting
Hirsuitism
Easy bruising, poor skin healing

64
Q

Findings on gas Cushings

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

65
Q

First line test Cushing’s syndrome

A

Overnight dexamethasone suppression test

66
Q

Other tests to confirm Cushing’s syndrome

A

24 hr urinary free cortisol
Bedtime salivary cortisol

Both need 2 measurements

67
Q

Finding on overnight dexamethasone supression test in Cushing’s

A

Patients with Cushing’s do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed

68
Q

First line localisation tests Cushing’s syndrome

A

9am and midnight plasma ACTH and cortisol

69
Q

Interpretation 9am and midnight ACTH in Cushing’s

A

If ACTH suppressed, non-ACTH dependent cause likely

70
Q

Other localisation tests Cushing’s syndrome

A

High-dose dexamethasone suppression test
CTH stimulation
Petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH
Insulin stress test

71
Q

Interpretation high-dose dexamethasone suppression test

A

If cortisol suppressed and ACTH suppressed, Cushing’s disease (pituitary adenoma → ACTH secretion
If cortisol not suppressed but ACTH is, Cushing’s syndrome due to other causes
If neither cortisol or ACTH suppressed, ectopic ACTH syndrome

72
Q

Interpretation CRH stimulation in Cushings

A

If pituitary source, cortisol rises
If ectopic/adrenal, no change in cortisol

73
Q

Use of petrosal sampling in Cushing’s

A

Differentiate between pituitary and ectopic ACTH secretion

74
Q

Use of insulin stress test in Cushing’s

A

Differentiate between Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushings

75
Q

C-peptide in T1DM

A

Typically low

76
Q

Use of antibodies in diagnosis of diabetes mellitus

A

Useful to distinguish between T1DM and T2DM

77
Q

Antibodies in T1DM

A

Anti-GAD
Islet cell antibodies
Insulin autoantibodies
Insulinoma associated 2 autoantibodies (IA-2A)

78
Q

Diagnostic criteria T1DM

A

If symptomatic:
- Fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0mmol/L
- Random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1mmol/L

If asymptomatic, above criteria on 2 seperate occasions

79
Q

Features favouring T1DM over T2DM

A

Ketosis
Rapid weight loss
Age of onset below 50
BMI below 25
Personal and/or family history autoimmune disease

80
Q

When to consider further tests to distinguish T1DM from T2DM

A

If T1DM suspected, but clinical presentation involves some atypical features, e.g. over 50, BMI over 25, slow evolution of hyperglycaemia

81
Q

Features favouring T2DM over T1DM

A

Over 40
Respond well to oral hypoglycaemic

82
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of T2DM

A

If symptomatic:
- Fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0mmol/L
- Random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1mmol/L
- HbA1c ≤48mmol/mol (6.5%)

If asymptomatic, above criteria on 2 seperate occasions

83
Q

When can’t HbA1c be used to diagnose diabetes

A

Haemoglobinopathies
Haemolytic anaemia
Untreated iron deficiency anaemia
Suspected gestational diabetes
Children
HIV
CKD
Taking medications that may cause hyperglycaemia, e.g. corticosteroids

84
Q

Criteria impaired fasting glucose

A

Fasting glucose ≥6.1 but <7.0

85
Q

Criteria impaired glucose tolerance

A

Fasting plasma glucose less than 7.0, OGTT value ≥7.8mmolL but less than 11.1

86
Q

Diabetic drug adjustments for Ramadan

A

For patients taking metformin, dose split 1/3 before sunrise and 2/3 after sunset
For patients on OD sulfonylureas, change to after sunset. For BD, larger proportion of dose taken after sunset

87
Q

Screening for diabetic foot disease

A

At least annually
Ischaemia - palpating for dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulse
Neuropathy - 10g monofilament various parts of sole of foot

88
Q

Low risk diabetic foot disease criteria

A

No risk factors except callus alone

89
Q

Moderate risk diabetic foot disease criteria

A

Deformity
Neuropathy
Non-critical limb ischaemia

90
Q

High risk diabetic foot disease criteria

A

Previous ulceration
Previous amputation
Renal replacement therapy
Neuropathy and non-critical limb ischaemia
Neuropathy with callus and/or deformity
Non-critical limb ischaemia with callus and/or deformity

91
Q

Diagnostic criteria DKA

A

Glucose >11 or known diabetes
pH >7.3
Bicarb <15
Ketones >3mmol/L or urine ketones ++

92
Q

Management DKA

A
  • Fluid replacement
  • Insulin
  • Correcting electrolyte disturbance
93
Q

Insulin regime in DKA

A

IV insulin infusion started at 0.1unit/kg/hour
Once glucose <14, infusion of 10% dextrose should be started at 125ml/hour in addition to 0.9% NaCl regime

94
Q

Management of potassium in DKA

A

Serum potassium often high on admission, but quickly falls with insulin treatment, resulting in hypokalaemia, so potassium added to replacement fluids
If rate of K infusion greater than 20mmol/hour, cardiac monitoring

95
Q

Management of regular insulin in DKA

A

Long acting insulin continued, short acting insulin stopped

96
Q

How much potassium to add to replacement fluids in DKA

A

If K over 5.5, none
If K 3.5-5.5, 40mmol/L
If K below 3.5, senior review

97
Q

DKA resolution defined as

A

pH >7.3
Blood ketones <0.6mmol/L
Bicarb >15

98
Q

When should DKA resolution be achieved by

A

Within 24 hours - if not, senior review from endocrinologist

99
Q

When can patient switch to SC insulin in DKA

A

Once resolution criteria met and patient eating and drinking

100
Q

Complications DKA

A
  • Gastric stasis
  • Thromboembolism
  • Arrhythmias secondary to hyperkalaemia/iatrogenic hypokalaemia
  • ARDS
  • AKI

Iatrogenic due to incorrect fluids - cerebral oedema, hypokalaemia, hypoglycaemia

101
Q

Who is at most risk from cerebral oedema in DKA treatment

A

Children/young adults

102
Q

Presentation cerebral oedema in DKA treatment

A

Headache
Irritability
Visual disturbance
Focal neurology

103
Q

When does cerebral oedema occur in DKA treatment

A

4-12 hours after commencing treatment

104
Q

Investigation suspected cerebral oedema in DKA treatment

A

CT head

105
Q

Presentation diabetic peripheral neuropathy

A

Typically sensory loss not motor - glove and stocking distribution

106
Q

First line treatment pain from diabetic peripheral neuropathy

A

Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin

107
Q

‘Rescue therapy’ for exacerbation of pain diabetic peripheral neuropathy

A

Tramadol

108
Q

Treatment localised neuropathic pain in diabetes

A

Topical capsaicin

109
Q

GI autonomic neuropathy in diabetes causes…

A

Gastroparesis
Chronic diarrhoea
GORD

110
Q

Symptoms gastroparesis diabetes

A

Erratic glucose control
Bloating
Vomiting

111
Q

Management gastroparesis diabetes

A

Metoclopramide
Domperidone
Erythromycin

112
Q

Features chronic diarrhoea caused by diabetic neuropathy

A

Often occurs at night

113
Q

Causes of falsely low HbA1c

A

Sickle cell anaemia
G6PD deficiency
Hereditary spherocytosis
Haemodialysis

114
Q

Causes of falsely high HbA1c

A

Vitamin B12/folic acid deficiency
Iron-deficiency anaemia
Splenectomy

115
Q

What is Graves disease

A

Autoimmune thyroid disease in which body produces IgG antibodies to TSH receptor, stimulating it

116
Q

Features specific to Graves disease

A

Eye signs - exopthalmos, opthalmoplegia
Pretibial myxoedema
Thyroid acropachy - digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of hands and feet, periosteal new bone formation

117
Q

Autoantibodies seen in Graves

A

TSH receptor stimulating antibodies (90%)
Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (75%)

118
Q

Thyroid scintigraphy in Graves

A

Diffuse, homogenous, increased uptake of radioactive iodine

119
Q

Initial treatment to control symptoms in Grave’s diseasea

A

Propanolol

120
Q

First line definitive treatment Grave’s disease

A

Anti-thyroid drugs

121
Q

Anti-thyroid drug therapy in Graves

A

Carbimazole - started at 40mg and reduced gradually to maintain euthyroidism

122
Q

How long is carbimazole continued for in Grave’s

A

Typically 12-18 months

123
Q

Major complication of carbimazole therapy

A

Agranulocytosis

124
Q

Second line definitive treatment Grave’s disease

A

Radioiodine treatment

125
Q

Indications radioiodine treatment in Graves

A

Relapse following or resistance to anti-thyroid drug treatment

126
Q

Contraindications radioiodine treatment for Graves

A

Pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months after)
Age <16

Thyroid eye disease relative contraindication - may worsen condition

127
Q

Aftermath of radioiodine treatment

A

Majority of patients need thyroxine supps after 5 years

128
Q

Pathophysiology gynaecomastia

A

Due to increased oestrogen:androgen ratio

129
Q

Causes of gynaecomastia

A

Physiological - normal in puberty
Syndromes with androgen deficiency - Kallmans, Klinefilters
Testicular failure, e.g. mumps
Liver disease
Testicular cancer
Ectopic tumour secretion of oestrogen
Hyperthyroidism
Haemodialysis
Drugs

130
Q

Drugs causing gynaecomastia

A

Spironolactone
Cimetidine
Digoxin
Cannabis
Finasteride
GnRH agonists, e.g. goserelin, buserelin
Oestrogens, anabolic steroids

131
Q

What is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Autoimmune disorder of thyroid gland, typically associated with hypothyroidism but may be transient thyrotoxicosis in acute phase

132
Q

Features Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Features of hypothyroidism
Firm, non-tender goitre

133
Q

Antibodies in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO)
Anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies

134
Q

Conditions associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Other autoimmune conditions, e.g. coeliac, T1DM, vitiligo
MALT lymphoma

135
Q

Most common causes hypercalcaemia (90% of cases)

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism
Malignancy

136
Q

Causes of hypercalcaemia in malignancy

A

PTHrP from tumour, e.g. squamous cell lung cancer
Bone mets
Myeloma

137
Q

Other causes hypercalcaemia

A

Sarcoidosis
Vitamin D intoxication
Acromegaly
Thyrotoxicosis
Milk-alkali syndrome
Thiazides, calcium containing antacids
Dehydration
Addison’s disease
Paget’s disease of bone

138
Q

HHS precipitating factors

A

Intercurrent illness
Dementia
Sedative drugs

139
Q

Presentation HHS

A

Comes on over many days, so dehydration and metabolic distubances may be worse than DKA
Dehydration, polyuria, polydipsia
Lethargy, N&V
Altered consciousness, focal neurological deficits
Hyperviscosity - MI, stroke, thrombosis

140
Q

HHS not diagnostic criteria but what you see

A

Hypovolaemia
Marked hyperglycaemia (>30mmol/L)
Significantly raised serum osmolarity (>320mosmol/kg)
No significant hyperketonaemia
No significant acidosis

141
Q

Management HHS

A

Fluid replacement
VTE prophylaxis

142
Q

Fluid losses in HHS estimation

A

100-220ml/kg

143
Q

Fluid used for replacement HHS

A

0.9% NaCl

144
Q

Role of insulin in HHS

A

Should not be given unless blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids

145
Q

Causes hypoglycaemia

A

Insulinoma
Insulin/sulphonylureas
Liver failure
Addison’s disease
Alcohol

146
Q

Effects of glucose <3.3

A

Causes autonomic symptoms due to release of glucagon and adrenaline, causing:
- Sweating
- Shaking
- Hunger
- Anxiety
- Nausea

147
Q

Effects of glucose <2.8

A

Cause neuroglycopenic symptoms due to inadequate glucose supply to brain:
- Weakness
- Vision changes
- Confusion
- Dizziness

148
Q

Investigation hypoglycaemia

A

If cause of hypoglycaemia unclear, measure insulin and c-peptide

149
Q

High insulin and high c-peptide interpretation

A

Endogenous insulin production - insulinoma, sulphonylurea use/abuse

150
Q

High insulin, low c-peptide interpretation

A

Exogenous insulin administration - exogenous insulin overdose, factitious disorder

151
Q

Low insulin, low c-peptide interpretation

A

Non-insulin related cause, e.g. alcohol-induced hypoglycaemia, critical illness, adrenal insufficiency, GH deficiency, fasting/starvation

152
Q

Community management hypoglycaemia

A

Oral glucose 10-20g in liquid, gel, or tablet form

153
Q

Hospital management hypoglycaemia

A

If patient alert, quick acting carbohydrate
If patient unconscious or unable to swallow, SC or IM injection glucagon, or IV 20% glucose solution