EMT Chapter 2,3, & 12 Flashcards

0
Q

To be infected by something, you would have to have been ______ to it.

A

Exposed

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1
Q

PPE stands for…

A

Personal protective equipment

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2
Q

What are two modes of transmission of infectious diseases?

A

Airborne & bloodborne

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3
Q

Give an example of an airborne communicable disease.

A

Tuberculosis

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4
Q

What are two bloodborne communicable disease?

A

Hepatitis & HIV

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5
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A
Infectious agent
reservoir
Port of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
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6
Q

Cough and via skin are two examples of which chain of infection?

A

Portal of exit

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7
Q

Bloodborne and airborne are two examples of what chain of infection?

A

Mode of transmission

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8
Q

Via skin and inhaling are examples of what chain of infection?

A

Portal of entry

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9
Q

What makes a susceptible host?

A

Low immune system or body not healthy

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10
Q

What does HEPA stand for?

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air

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11
Q

High efficiency particulate air is what?

A

HEPA mask

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12
Q

What PPE do you need to wear if your patient informs you that he/she has tuberculosis?

A

High efficiency particulate air mask

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13
Q

What communicable disease is has a fecal- oral mode of transmission?

A

Hepatitis A

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14
Q

Does hepatitis A have a vaccine?

A

Yes.

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15
Q

What form of hepatitis does not have a vaccine?

A

Hepatitis C

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16
Q

True or false: all forms hepatitis are bloodborne

A

False. Hepatitis A is fecal- oral.

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17
Q

True or false: all forms of hepatitis have vaccines.

A

False. Hepatitis C does not have a vaccine.

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18
Q

What is a viral load?

A

How many viruses are in a load of exposure.

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19
Q

What is the primary oral virus?

A

Tuberculosis

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20
Q

HIV affects the body how?

A

By lowering the number of CD4 cells. (T-Cells)

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21
Q

what are the three types of stress?

A

Acute, delayed, and cumulative

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22
Q

PTSD is a form of what kind of stress?

A

Delayed

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23
Q

Burn-out is an example of which kind of stress?

A

Cumulative

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24
What type of stress is common in medics?
Burn-out (cumulative)
25
What are two coping methods?
CISD & CISM
26
CISD is an acronym that means what?
Critical incident stress debriefing
27
CISM is an acronym that means what?
Critical incident stress management
28
What must be proven for a medic to be charged with negligence?
1. Must have a duty to act 2. Must breach that duty 3. Must have damages that resulted from duty breach 4. Must be some causal connection from duty breach.
29
What are the two types of consent for treatment?
Expressed & Implied
30
How do you know if someone is competent enough to refuse?
A + O x 4 (alert and oriented x rule questions)
31
What is PPTP?
Person, place, time, purpose
32
What is 5150?
72 hour mental hold
33
What must there be to grant a refusal?
Must be at least 18 Must be oriented Must be informed Must get at least 3 no's
34
What is HIPAA?
Health information portability and accountability act
35
Disclosing patient information is a direct violation of what?
HIPAA
36
In order to avoid abandonment, you must ______ ______.
Transfer care
37
DNR is an acronym that stands for what?
Do not resuscitate
38
MOST is an acronym that means what?
Medical Orders for Scope of Treatment
39
When do you not perform CPR/ALS?
Clinical deaths, rigor mortis, dependent lividity, blunt forced trauma, body decomposition, injury not compatible with life
40
What is the stiffening of the body post mortal
Rigor mortis
41
Heart not beating and not breathing is what?
Clinical death
42
What is a pool of blood inside the body post mortal?
Dependent lividity
43
Decapitation is an example of what?
Injury not compatible with life
44
How long after the patient heart stops beating do you have to perform CPR/ALS before the patient is brain dead?
4-6 minutes
45
Outward signs on what is happening on the inside of the body is defined as what?
Vital signs
46
The initial sets of vital signs are defined as what?
Baseline vital signs
47
What are the top three vital signs taken by medics?
Systolic and diastolic blood pressure Pulse rate Respiratory rate
48
How often do you check vitals on a stable patient?
Every 15 minutes
49
How often do you take vitals on an unstable patient?
Every 5 minutes or upon significant change
50
Where is the most common place medics use to find a pulse?
Radial
51
What type of pulse is used for blood pressures?
Brachial
52
What is the term for the pulse found in your neck?
Carotid
53
What is the term for the pulse found in the groin?
Femoral
54
What is the term for the pulse found in the back of the knee?
Posterior tibialis
55
What is the term for the pulse found in the front of the foot?
Dorsalis pedis
56
If the patient is unresponsive what pulse do medics usually check?
Carotid
57
What size cuff do you use for your patient when taking blood pressure?
A cuff that is 2/3 the size of the arm
58
What is the standard for a "normal" blood pressure?
120/80
59
What type of patients most often have shunts?
Dialysis patients
60
What is the standard for "normal" respiration?
12-16 breaths per minute
61
What is the standard for a "normal" blood glucose level?
90-120 or 80-110
62
What is oxygen saturation?
The percent of oxygen bonded to hemoglobin in the body.
63
What are the three types of pupils?
Dilated Constricted Unequal
64
When testing a patients skin, what are you looking for?
Color, moisture, temperature
65
What organization is over EMS?
US department of transportation
66
What was the effect of "Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society" on EMS?
It was the "white paper" that improved ambulance systems, training and provision of care.
67
What year was the National Registry of EMT established?
1970
68
What is medical direction requirement a standard of?
The Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards
69
What organization provides the standards for EMS systems?
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
70
What is an example of high risk activities of EMT with regard to patient safety?
Carrying and moving patients
71
What is one way an EMT can work toward quality care?
Maintaining equipment
72
What is the name of the program that EMS services should establish in order to better access the ongoing efficiency of care they are rendering to patients?
Quality improvement
73
What establishes procedures by which emergency response workers may find out if they have been exposed to life threatening infectious diseases?
Ryan White CARE Act
74
What does the acronym TST stand for?
Tuberculosis Skin Test
75
In what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is an EMT when she had adapted to a stimulus and it no longer produces stress for her?
Resistance
76
Which of the following, statistically, causes the most deaths in EMS?
Air medical crashes
77
What is not necessary to respond to danger?
Evacuate
78
What is the primary rule when dealing with a hazardous material incident?
Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material
79
What vital sign may the EMT observe without any contact with the patient?
Respirations
80
Normal breathing rates in children are…
25 to 50 breaths per minute
81
You are reaching for the pediatric BP cuff when you note that your 9 year old patient has become cyanotic. What should you do?
Repeat primary assessment
82
What vital sign can best indicate the presence of early compensated shock?
Pulse
83
What is considered a normal set of vital signs for a 7 year old patient?
Pulse 90; Respirations 24; BP 112/70
84
The pressure wave generated by the contraction of the left ventricle is called…
A pulse