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Emergency Care > EMT Chapter 2,3, & 12 > Flashcards

EMT Chapter 2,3, & 12 Flashcards

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0
Q

To be infected by something, you would have to have been ______ to it.

A

Exposed

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1
Q

PPE stands for…

A

Personal protective equipment

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2
Q

What are two modes of transmission of infectious diseases?

A

Airborne & bloodborne

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3
Q

Give an example of an airborne communicable disease.

A

Tuberculosis

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4
Q

What are two bloodborne communicable disease?

A

Hepatitis & HIV

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5
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A 
Infectious agent
reservoir
Port of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
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6
Q

Cough and via skin are two examples of which chain of infection?

A

Portal of exit

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7
Q

Bloodborne and airborne are two examples of what chain of infection?

A

Mode of transmission

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8
Q

Via skin and inhaling are examples of what chain of infection?

A

Portal of entry

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9
Q

What makes a susceptible host?

A

Low immune system or body not healthy

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10
Q

What does HEPA stand for?

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air

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11
Q

High efficiency particulate air is what?

A

HEPA mask

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12
Q

What PPE do you need to wear if your patient informs you that he/she has tuberculosis?

A

High efficiency particulate air mask

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13
Q

What communicable disease is has a fecal- oral mode of transmission?

A

Hepatitis A

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14
Q

Does hepatitis A have a vaccine?

A

Yes.

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15
Q

What form of hepatitis does not have a vaccine?

A

Hepatitis C

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16
Q

True or false: all forms hepatitis are bloodborne

A

False. Hepatitis A is fecal- oral.

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17
Q

True or false: all forms of hepatitis have vaccines.

A

False. Hepatitis C does not have a vaccine.

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18
Q

What is a viral load?

A

How many viruses are in a load of exposure.

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19
Q

What is the primary oral virus?

A

Tuberculosis

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20
Q

HIV affects the body how?

A

By lowering the number of CD4 cells. (T-Cells)

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21
Q

what are the three types of stress?

A

Acute, delayed, and cumulative

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22
Q

PTSD is a form of what kind of stress?

A

Delayed

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23
Q

Burn-out is an example of which kind of stress?

A

Cumulative

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24
Q

What type of stress is common in medics?

A

Burn-out (cumulative)

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25
Q

What are two coping methods?

A

CISD & CISM

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26
Q

CISD is an acronym that means what?

A

Critical incident stress debriefing

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27
Q

CISM is an acronym that means what?

A

Critical incident stress management

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28
Q

What must be proven for a medic to be charged with negligence?

A
  1. Must have a duty to act
  2. Must breach that duty
  3. Must have damages that resulted from duty breach
  4. Must be some causal connection from duty breach.
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29
Q

What are the two types of consent for treatment?

A

Expressed & Implied

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30
Q

How do you know if someone is competent enough to refuse?

A

A + O x 4 (alert and oriented x rule questions)

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31
Q

What is PPTP?

A

Person, place, time, purpose

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32
Q

What is 5150?

A

72 hour mental hold

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33
Q

What must there be to grant a refusal?

A

Must be at least 18
Must be oriented
Must be informed
Must get at least 3 no’s

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34
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Health information portability and accountability act

35
Q

Disclosing patient information is a direct violation of what?

A

HIPAA

36
Q

In order to avoid abandonment, you must ______ ______.

A

Transfer care

37
Q

DNR is an acronym that stands for what?

A

Do not resuscitate

38
Q

MOST is an acronym that means what?

A

Medical Orders for Scope of Treatment

39
Q

When do you not perform CPR/ALS?

A

Clinical deaths, rigor mortis, dependent lividity, blunt forced trauma, body decomposition, injury not compatible with life

40
Q

What is the stiffening of the body post mortal

A

Rigor mortis

41
Q

Heart not beating and not breathing is what?

A

Clinical death

42
Q

What is a pool of blood inside the body post mortal?

A

Dependent lividity

43
Q

Decapitation is an example of what?

A

Injury not compatible with life

44
Q

How long after the patient heart stops beating do you have to perform CPR/ALS before the patient is brain dead?

A

4-6 minutes

45
Q

Outward signs on what is happening on the inside of the body is defined as what?

A

Vital signs

46
Q

The initial sets of vital signs are defined as what?

A

Baseline vital signs

47
Q

What are the top three vital signs taken by medics?

A

Systolic and diastolic blood pressure
Pulse rate
Respiratory rate

48
Q

How often do you check vitals on a stable patient?

A

Every 15 minutes

49
Q

How often do you take vitals on an unstable patient?

A

Every 5 minutes or upon significant change

50
Q

Where is the most common place medics use to find a pulse?

A

Radial

51
Q

What type of pulse is used for blood pressures?

A

Brachial

52
Q

What is the term for the pulse found in your neck?

A

Carotid

53
Q

What is the term for the pulse found in the groin?

A

Femoral

54
Q

What is the term for the pulse found in the back of the knee?

A

Posterior tibialis

55
Q

What is the term for the pulse found in the front of the foot?

A

Dorsalis pedis

56
Q

If the patient is unresponsive what pulse do medics usually check?

A

Carotid

57
Q

What size cuff do you use for your patient when taking blood pressure?

A

A cuff that is 2/3 the size of the arm

58
Q

What is the standard for a “normal” blood pressure?

A

120/80

59
Q

What type of patients most often have shunts?

A

Dialysis patients

60
Q

What is the standard for “normal” respiration?

A

12-16 breaths per minute

61
Q

What is the standard for a “normal” blood glucose level?

A

90-120 or 80-110

62
Q

What is oxygen saturation?

A

The percent of oxygen bonded to hemoglobin in the body.

63
Q

What are the three types of pupils?

A

Dilated
Constricted
Unequal

64
Q

When testing a patients skin, what are you looking for?

A

Color, moisture, temperature

65
Q

What organization is over EMS?

A

US department of transportation

66
Q

What was the effect of “Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society” on EMS?

A

It was the “white paper” that improved ambulance systems, training and provision of care.

67
Q

What year was the National Registry of EMT established?

A

1970

68
Q

What is medical direction requirement a standard of?

A

The Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards

69
Q

What organization provides the standards for EMS systems?

A

The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

70
Q

What is an example of high risk activities of EMT with regard to patient safety?

A

Carrying and moving patients

71
Q

What is one way an EMT can work toward quality care?

A

Maintaining equipment

72
Q

What is the name of the program that EMS services should establish in order to better access the ongoing efficiency of care they are rendering to patients?

A

Quality improvement

73
Q

What establishes procedures by which emergency response workers may find out if they have been exposed to life threatening infectious diseases?

A

Ryan White CARE Act

74
Q

What does the acronym TST stand for?

A

Tuberculosis Skin Test

75
Q

In what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is an EMT when she had adapted to a stimulus and it no longer produces stress for her?

A

Resistance

76
Q

Which of the following, statistically, causes the most deaths in EMS?

A

Air medical crashes

77
Q

What is not necessary to respond to danger?

A

Evacuate

78
Q

What is the primary rule when dealing with a hazardous material incident?

A

Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material

79
Q

What vital sign may the EMT observe without any contact with the patient?

A

Respirations

80
Q

Normal breathing rates in children are…

A

25 to 50 breaths per minute

81
Q

You are reaching for the pediatric BP cuff when you note that your 9 year old patient has become cyanotic. What should you do?

A

Repeat primary assessment

82
Q

What vital sign can best indicate the presence of early compensated shock?

A

Pulse

83
Q

What is considered a normal set of vital signs for a 7 year old patient?

A

Pulse 90; Respirations 24; BP 112/70

84
Q

The pressure wave generated by the contraction of the left ventricle is called…

A

A pulse

Emergency Care (8 decks)

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